Search Results

Search found 13842 results on 554 pages for 'reference identity'.

Page 149/554 | < Previous Page | 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156  | Next Page >

  • Using Enums that are in an external dll C#

    - by user1443233
    I have a project I am working that will involve creating one DLL that will be used across multiple other sites. Inside this DLL we need to reference about 10 Enums. The values of these Enums however will be different for each site the DLL is used on. For example: MyBase.dll may have a class MyClass with an attribute of type MyEnum. MyBase.dll is then referenced in MySite. MyStie will also reference MyEnums.dll which will contain the values for the MyEnum type. Is there any way to accomplish this? While building MyBase.dll, I know what enums will exist in side of MyEnums.dll. The problem is I cannot build MyBase.dll without specifically referenceing the MyEnums.dll, which is not created until the MyBase.dll is used in a specific project. I hope that makes sense and hope I can find an answer here. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • C#/.NET Project - Am I setting things up correctly?

    - by JustLooking
    1st solution located: \Common\Controls\Controls.sln and its project: \Common\Controls\Common.Controls\Common.Controls.csproj Description: This is a library that contains this class: public abstract class OurUserControl : UserControl { // Variables and other getters/setters common to our UserControls } 2nd solution located: \AControl\AControl.sln and its project: \AControl\AControl\AControl.csproj Description: Of the many forms/classes, it will contain this class: using Common.Controls; namespace AControl { public partial class AControl : OurUserControl { // The implementation } } A note about adding references (not sure if this is relevant): When I add references (for projects I create), using the names above: 1. I add Common.Controls.csproj to AControl.sln 2. In AControl.sln I turn off the build of Common.Controls.csproj 3. I add the reference to Common.Controls (by project) to AControl.csproj. This is the (easiest) way I know how to get Debug versions to match Debug References, and Release versions to match Release References. Now, here is where the issue lies (the 3rd solution/project that actually utilizes the UserControl): 3rd solution located: \MainProj\MainProj.sln and its project: \MainProj\MainProj\MainProj.csproj Description: Here's a sample function in one of the classes: private void TestMethod<T>() where T : Common.Controls.OurUserControl, new() { T TheObject = new T(); TheObject.OneOfTheSetters = something; TheObject.AnotherOfTheSetters = something_else; // Do stuff with the object } We might call this function like so: private void AnotherMethod() { TestMethod<AControl.AControl>(); } This builds, runs, and works. No problem. The odd thing is after I close the project/solution and re-open it, I have red squigglies everywhere. I bring up my error list and I see tons of errors (anything that deals with AControl will be noted as an error). I'll see errors such as: The type 'AControl.AControl' cannot be used as type parameter 'T' in the generic type or method 'MainProj.MainClass.TestMethod()'. There is no implicit reference conversion from 'AControl.AControl' to 'Common.Controls.OurUserControl'. or inside the actual method (the properties located in the abstract class): 'AControl.AControl' does not contain a definition for 'OneOfTheSetters' and no extension method 'OneOfTheSetters' accepting a first argument of type 'AControl.AControl' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Meanwhile, I can still build and run the project (then the red squigglies go away until I re-open the project, or close/re-open the file). It seems to me that I might be setting up the projects incorrectly. Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Does SQL Server 2005 error message numbers back to the asp.net application?

    - by Duke
    I'd like to get the message number and severity level information from SQL Server upon execution of an erroneous query. For example, when a user attempts to delete a row being referenced by another record, and the cascade relationship is "no action", I'd like the application to be able to check for error message 547 ("The DELETE statement conflicted with the REFERENCE constraint...") and return a user friendly and localized message to the user. When running such a query directly on SQL Server, the following message is printed: Msg 547, Level 16, State 0, Line 1 <Error message...> In an Asp.Net app is this information available in an event handler parameter or elsewhere? Also, I don't suppose anyone knows where I can find a definitive reference of SQL Server message numbers?

    Read the article

  • Where is the help.py for Android's monkeyrunner

    - by Keyboardsurfer
    Hi, I just can't find the help.py file in order to create the API reference for the monkeyrunner. The command described at the Android references monkeyrunner <format> help.py <outfile> does not work when i call monkeyrunner html help.py /path/to/place/the/doc.html. It's quite obvious that the help.py file is not found and the monkeyrunner also tells me "Can't open specified script file". But a locate on my system doesn't bring me a help.py file that has anything to do with monkeyrunner or Android. So my question is: Where did they hide the help.py file for creating the API reference?

    Read the article

  • JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

    - by IrishDubGuy
    I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

    Read the article

  • How to scan and count controls present in DataAccessPage of Access DataBase programmatically?

    - by Suman
    As per my application (Vb.net), it scans the Access database for Active-X controls. It is working now for Report form and Access Form. The code to find out controls is as follows: oReportCtls = oReport.Controls For Each oReportCtl In oReportCtls If oReportCtl.ControlType = 119 Then 'Activex Control' intReportObjectCount = intReportObjectCount + 1 End If Next But for DataAccessPages I am not getting any reference for Controls. Need Help: Please let me know it is possible or not? If yes, then please provide me some reference or example. Many Many Thanks, Sugam

    Read the article

  • Map browser DOM using Javascript

    - by EddyR
    I'm trying to map a browsers DOM using javascript. It should list all the functions and attributes associated with it and it should also recurse through any object attributes. Now as I understand it 'window' is the most top-level node (although I've see a reference to 'top' as well in Chrome.) then 'document', etc. However I've never seen 'Node' under 'window' and yet I can call it. So where is 'Node' located? Is there a level above 'window' or is it a separate object (W3C says it's supposed to be inherited by 'document' only.)? I've been playing with a function to do this but I keep getting weird results so I'm not post it here. Alternatively - is it possible to get the properties from the object types instead of the object reference itself? for example 'DOMWindow' instead of 'window'. I think this would stop duplicating data from inherited objects.

    Read the article

  • Global Import Aliasing in .NET

    - by Josh Stodola
    Using import aliasing in a single class, we can reference class library namespaces by assigning our own custom alias like this: Imports Db = Company.Lib.Data.Objects And then we are able to reference the classes inside of Company.Lib.Data.Objects by using the Db alias that we assigned. Is it possible to do this at the global level so that the alias is applied to the entire solution instead of the given file? Currently, we are working with web applications, so I was hoping we could add something to web.config, but I am also interested in whether or not this is possible with windows forms, console apps, and/or class libraries.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate object equality checking

    - by Sujee
    As far as I understand(correct me if I am wrong) Hibernate uses object reference to check the object equality. When Hibernate identifies that there are more than one objects attached to same DB record, it throws following exception. "a different object with the same identifier value was already associated with the session" My question is, does Hibernate use equal() method to check the object equality (The default equal method uses object reference)? If it is true, will overridden equal() method change the Hibernate behavior? Note: My question is not about the issues of implementing equal() or hashCode() methods in a Hibernate persisted object. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Is it acceptable to email an Interviewer after the interview?

    - by djhworld
    Yesterday I took part in an interview for a Java position in a company and one of the questions was Does Java pass by reference or by value? In the heat of the moment I (mistakenly) confidently said it passed by reference, possibly because I come from a C/C++ background. Unfortunately after the interview I'd realised my terrible mistake to my horror. So my question is this, is it acceptable for me to wait a few days and drop a quick email to recognise my mistake? Or should I just let this one lie?

    Read the article

  • Does .NET have a linker?

    - by Water Cooler v2
    From Jon Skeet's blog: What does the following comment mean? // The line below only works when linked rather than // referenced, as otherwise you need a cast. // The compiler treats it as if it both takes and // returns a dynamic value. string value = com.MakeMeDynamic(10); I understand what referencing an assembly is. You may reference it when compiling the program files either using the /ref: switch at the command line or you may add a statically reference to the assembly in Visual Studio. But how do you link to an assembly in .NET? Does he mean, load the assembly using Reflection (Assembly.LoadFile())? Or, the Win32 API LoadLibrary()? Or, does .NET have a linker that I have never heard of?

    Read the article

  • How can unit testing make parameter validation redundant?

    - by Johann Gerell
    We have a convention to validate all parameters of constructors and public functions/methods. For mandatory parameters of reference type, we mainly check for non-null and that's the chief validation in constructors, where we set up mandatory dependencies of the type. The number one reason why we do this is to catch that error early and not get a null reference exception a few hours down the line without knowing where or when the faulty parameter was introduced. As we start transitioning to more and more TDD, some team members feel the validation is redundant. Uncle Bob, who is a vocal advocate of TDD, strongly advices against doing parameter validation. His main argument seems to be "I have a suite of unit tests that makes sure everything works". But I can for the life of it just not see in what way unit tests can prevent our developers from calling these methods with bad parameters in production code. Please, unit testers out there, if you could explain this to me in a rational way with concrete examples, I'd be more than happy to seize this parameter validation!

    Read the article

  • Is there a memory leak here?

    - by TheLearner
    Please see my comments in code: -(id)initWithCoordinate:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)c title:(NSString *)t { [super init]; coordinate = c; NSDate *today = [NSDate date]; NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [dateFormatter setDateStyle:NSDateFormatterLongStyle]; NSString* formattedDate = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ %@", [dateFormatter stringFromDate:today], t]; [self setTitle:formattedDate]; //Why does the app crash when I try and release formattedDate? I have after all passed its reference to the title property? [dateFormatter release]; //I need to release the dateformatter because I have finished using it and I have not passed on a reference to it return self; }

    Read the article

  • Calling web service methods using URLs

    - by Alka
    Hi. So, i have a central web service that is responsible for managing other services. These services register in the main WS with their URL, leading to their own web service. what i need to do now is call the child web services from the central web service. I've searched google on how to do this but all i could find was this. I would like to register any web service and not create a web reference, as suggested in the solution i've found. How is this done without using a web reference?

    Read the article

  • Can anyone recommend a good BSS/OSS platform for a voip provider?

    - by john unkas
    We are a voip startup and want to launch a voip service, while we have the call control platform (broadworks) we are wondering what BSS/OSS platform to use. Our options are to buy a turnkey solution (if it exists) or else to glue together opensource and commerical offerings to create a complete solution. BSS components we're looking for are identity management, billing, rating, product catalogue, subscription management, reporting, etc..

    Read the article

  • Perfect Forwarding to async lambda

    - by Alexander Kondratskiy
    I have a function template, where I want to do perfect forwarding into a lambda that I run on another thread. Here is a minimal test case which you can directly compile: #include <thread> #include <future> #include <utility> #include <iostream> #include <vector> /** * Function template that does perfect forwarding to a lambda inside an * async call (or at least tries to). I want both instantiations of the * function to work (one for lvalue references T&, and rvalue reference T&&). * However, I cannot get the code to compile when calling it with an lvalue. * See main() below. */ template <typename T> std::string accessValueAsync(T&& obj) { std::future<std::string> fut = std::async(std::launch::async, [](T&& vec) mutable { return vec[0]; }, std::forward<T>(obj)); return fut.get(); } int main(int argc, char const *argv[]) { std::vector<std::string> lvalue{"Testing"}; // calling with what I assume is an lvalue reference does NOT compile std::cout << accessValueAsync(lvalue) << std::endl; // calling with rvalue reference compiles std::cout << accessValueAsync(std::move(lvalue)) << std::endl; // I want both to compile. return 0; } For the non-compiling case, here is the last line of the error message which is intelligible: main.cpp|13 col 29| note: no known conversion for argument 1 from ‘std::vector<std::basic_string<char> >’ to ‘std::vector<std::basic_string<char> >&’ I have a feeling it may have something to do with how T&& is deduced, but I can't pinpoint the exact point of failure and fix it. Any suggestions? Thank you! EDIT: I am using gcc 4.7.0 just in case this could be a compiler issue (probably not)

    Read the article

  • Resources for memory management in embedded application

    - by Elazar Leibovich
    How should I manage memory in my mission critical embedded application? I found some articles with google, but couldn't pinpoint a really useful practical guide. The DO-178b forbids dynamic memory allocations, but how will you manage the memory than? preallocate everything in advance and send a pointer to each function that needs allocation? Allocate it on the stack? Use a global static allocator (but then it's very similar to dynamic allocation)? Answers can be of the form of regular answer, reference to a resource, or reference to good opensource embedded system for example. clarification: The issue here is not whether or not memory management is availible for the embedded system. But what is a good design for an embedded system, to maximize reliability.

    Read the article

  • Iterator category

    - by Knowing me knowing you
    In code: //I know that to get this effect (being able to use it with std algorithms) I can inherit like I did in line below: class Iterator //: public std::iterator<std::bidirectional_iterator_tag,T> { private: T** itData_; public: //BUT I WOULD LIKE TO BE ABLE TO DO IT BY HAND AS WELL typedef std::bidirectional_iterator_tag iterator_category; typedef T* value_type;//SHOULD IT BE T AS value_type or T*? typedef std::ptrdiff_t difference_type; typedef T** pointer;//SHOULD IT BE T* AS pointer or T**? typedef T*& reference;//SHOULD IT BE T& AS reference or T*&? }; Basically what I'm asking is if I have my variable of type T** in iterator class is it right assumption that value type for this iterator will be T* and so on as I described in comments in code, right next to relevant lines. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • java memory usage

    - by xdevel2000
    I know I always post a similar question about array memory usage but now I want post the question more specific. After I read this article: http://www.javamex.com/tutorials/memory/object_memory_usage.shtml I didn't understand some things: the size of a data type is always the same also on different platform (Linux / Windows 32 / 64 bit)??? so an int will be always 32 bit?; when I compute the memory usage I must put also the reference value itself? If I have an object to a class that has an int field its memory will be 12 (object header) + 4 reference + 4 (the int field) + 3 (padding) = 24 bytes??

    Read the article

  • how to update multiple tables in oracle DB?

    - by murali
    hi, i am using two tables in my oracle 10g. the first table having the keyword,count,id(primary key) and my second table having id, timestamp.. but i am doing any chages in the first table(keyword,count) it will reflect on the my second table timestamp.. i am using id as reference for both the tables... table1: CREATE TABLE Searchable_Keywords (KEYWORD_ID NUMBER(18) PRIMARY KEY, KEYWORD VARCHAR2(255) NOT NULL, COUNT NUMBER(18) NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT Searchable_Keywords_unique UNIQUE(KEYWORD) ); table2: CREATE TABLE Keywords_Tracking_Report (KEYWORD_ID NUMBER(18), PROCESS_TIMESTAMP TIMESTAMP(8) ); how can update one table with reference of another table.. help me plz...

    Read the article

  • Website load perfectly from localhost but after 3 or 4 hours is not load from remote computer until restart iis

    - by kia
    I have a web application on IIS 7.5 and windows server 2008 r2. It's load perfectly from localhost but after 3 or 4 hours is not load from remote computer until restart iis or recycle pool. Users of this site are about 900 people. Some setting of my pool: .Net frame work version: v2.0 Manage pipe line mode: Integrated Enable 32-Bit applications: true Identity: Administrator Idle time-out: 120 Load user profile: false Rapid fail protection enabled: false Disable recycling for configuration changes: true

    Read the article

  • Why this java application print "true"?

    - by user292084
    This is my first Class Hello.java public class Hello { String name = ""; } This is my second Class Test1.java public class Test1 { public static void main(String[] args) { Hello h = new Hello(); Test1 t = new Test1(); t.build(h); System.out.println((h.name)); } void build(Hello h){ h.name = "me"; } } When I run Test1.java, it prints "me". I think I understand, because of "reference transfer". This is my third Class Test2.java public class Test2 { public static void main(String[] args) { Hello h = null; Test2 t = new Test2(); t.build(h); System.out.println(((h == null))); } void build(Hello h){ h = new Hello(); } } When I run Test2.java, it prints "true", why ? Is it "reference transfer" no longer? I am confused.

    Read the article

  • Creating a view linking three different node types with two node references

    - by mikesir87
    I have the following content types: Camp - the top level type Registration Information - contains node reference to Camp called Camp Medical Release Form - contains node reference to registration information called Camper I would like to create a View that takes the nid for the Camp, and pulls out all the fields for the Registration Info and Medical Release Form. I'm having trouble figuring out how to set up the various arguments/relationships. I haven't done something that's referenced more than two types. I know it would be smart/best to just combine the Registration Info and Medical Release Form, since it's a 1:1 mapping, but we can't. So... any help would be appreciated!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156  | Next Page >