Search Results

Search found 18466 results on 739 pages for 'static member'.

Page 149/739 | < Previous Page | 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156  | Next Page >

  • WPF EventRouting to Children

    - by Shaun Bowe
    Is there any way to broadcast a RoutedEvent to all of my children in WPF? For example lets say I have a Window that has 4 children. 2 of them know about the RoutedEvent 'DisplayYourself' and are listening for it. How can I raise this event from the window and have it sent to all children? I looked at RoutingStrategy and Bubble is the wrong direction, Tunnel and Direct don't work because I don't know which children I want to send this to. I just want to broadcast this message and have whoever cares about it handle it. update: I declared the events in a static class. public static class StaticEventClass { public static readonly RoutedEvent ClickEvent = EventManager.RegisterRoutedEvent("Click", RoutingStrategy.Bubble, typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(StaticEventClass)); public static readonly RoutedEvent DrawEvent = EventManager.RegisterRoutedEvent("Draw", RoutingStrategy.Bubble, typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(StaticEventClass)); } The problem is when I raise the event from my window, the children never see it. RoutedEventArgs args = new RoutedEventArgs(StaticEventClass.DrawEvent, this); this.RaiseEvent(args); update again.. Here is the handler in the child. public ChildClass() { this.AddHandler(StaticEventClass.DrawEvent, new RoutedEventHandler(ChildClass_Draw)); }

    Read the article

  • Refresher on Java classes in separate files

    - by JohnFaig
    I need a refresher on moving classes from one file into two files. My sample code is in one file called "external_class_file_main". The program runs fine and the code is shown below: Public class external_class_file_main { public static int get_a_random_number (int min, int max) { int n; n = (int)(Math.random() * (max - min +1)) + min; return (n); } public static void main(String[] args) { int r; System.out.println("Program starting..."); r = get_a_random_number (1, 5); System.out.println("random number = " + r); System.out.println("Program ending..."); } } I move the get_a_random_number class to a separate file called "external_class_file". When I do this, I get the following error: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.Error: Unresolved compilation problem: The method get_a_random_number(int, int) is undefined for the type external_class_file_main at external_class_file_main.main(external_class_file_main.java:20) The "external_class_file_main" now contains: public class external_class_file_main { public static void main(String[] args) { int r; System.out.println("Program starting..."); r = get_a_random_number (1, 5); System.out.println("random number = " + r); System.out.println("Program ending..."); } } The "external_class_file" now contains: public class external_class_file { public static int get_a_random_number (int min, int max) { int n; n = (int)(Math.random() * (max - min +1)) + min; return (n); } }

    Read the article

  • Dependency Properties, change notification and setting values in the constructor

    - by stefan.at.wpf
    Hello, I have a clas with 3 dependency properties A,B,C. The values of these properties are set by the constructor and every time one of the properties A, B or C changes, the method recalculate() is called. Now during execution of the constructor these method is called 3 times, because the 3 properties A, B, C are changed. Hoewever this isn't necessary as the method recalculate() can't do anything really useful without all 3 properties set. So what's the best way for property change notification but circumventing this change notification in the constructor? I thought about adding the property changed notification in the constructor, but then each object of the DPChangeSample class would always add more and more change notifications. Thanks for any hint! class DPChangeSample : DependencyObject { public static DependencyProperty AProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("A", typeof(int), typeof(DPChangeSample), new PropertyMetadata(propertyChanged)); public static DependencyProperty BProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("B", typeof(int), typeof(DPChangeSample), new PropertyMetadata(propertyChanged)); public static DependencyProperty CProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("C", typeof(int), typeof(DPChangeSample), new PropertyMetadata(propertyChanged)); private static void propertyChanged(DependencyObject d, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { ((DPChangeSample)d).recalculate(); } private void recalculate() { // Using A, B, C do some cpu intensive caluclations } public DPChangeSample(int a, int b, int c) { SetValue(AProperty, a); SetValue(BProperty, b); SetValue(CProperty, c); } }

    Read the article

  • How to take advantage of an auto-property when refactoring this .Net 1.1 sample?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    I see a lot of legacy .Net 1.1-style code at work like in example below, which I would like to shrink with the help of an auto-property. This will help many classes shrink by 30-40%, which I think would be good. public int MyIntThingy { get { return _myIntThingy; } set { _myIntThingy = value; } } private int _myIntThingy = -1; This would become: public int MyIntThingy { get; set; } And the only question is - where do I set MyIntThingy = -1;? If I wrote the class from the start, then I would have a better idea, but I did not. An obvious answer would be: put it in the constructor. Trouble is: there are many constructors in this class. Watching the initialization to -1 in the debugger, I see it happen (I believe) before the constructor gets called. It is almost as if I need to use a static constructor as described here: http://www.c-sharpcorner.com/uploadfile/cupadhyay/staticconstructors11092005061428am/staticconstructors.aspx except that my variables are not static. Java's static initializer comes to mind, but again - my variables are not static. http://www.glenmccl.com/tip_003.htm I want to make stylistic but not functional changes to this class. As crappy as it is, it has been tested and working for a few years now. breaking the functionality would be bad. So ... I am looking for shorter, sweeter, cuter, and yet EQUIVALENT code. Let me know if you have questions.

    Read the article

  • Html LogIn form not functioning

    - by Tony C
    Ok, I have a login form that looks like this: <form id="loginForm" name="loginForm" method="post" action="login-exec.php"> <table width="300" border="0" align="center" cellpadding="2" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td width="112"><b>Login</b></td> <td width="188"><input name="login" type="text" class="textfield" id="login" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td><b>Password</b></td> <td><input name="password" type="password" class="textfield" id="password" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td>&nbsp;</td> <td><input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Login" /></td> </tr> </table> </form> Now, This form is on a page in a directory called members. When i put it on a page in the home directory and change the action to "members/login-exec.php" When I try to logIn it just refreshes the page, but the name of the page in the browser changes to the actions taking place in the form. Any ideas on making this work guys? EDIT, heres the login-exec.php code: <?php //Start session session_start(); //Include database connection details require_once('config.php'); //Array to store validation errors $errmsg_arr = array(); //Validation error flag $errflag = false; //Connect to mysql server $link = mysql_connect(DB_HOST, DB_USER, DB_PASSWORD); if(!$link) { die('Failed to connect to server: ' . mysql_error()); } //Select database $db = mysql_select_db(DB_DATABASE); if(!$db) { die("Unable to select database"); } //Function to sanitize values received from the form. Prevents SQL injection function clean($str) { $str = @trim($str); if(get_magic_quotes_gpc()) { $str = stripslashes($str); } return mysql_real_escape_string($str); } //Sanitize the POST values $login = clean($_POST['login']); $password = clean($_POST['password']); //Input Validations if($login == '') { $errmsg_arr[] = 'Login ID missing'; $errflag = true; } if($password == '') { $errmsg_arr[] = 'Password missing'; $errflag = true; } //If there are input validations, redirect back to the login form if($errflag) { $_SESSION['ERRMSG_ARR'] = $errmsg_arr; session_write_close(); header("location: login-form.php"); exit(); } //Create query $qry="SELECT * FROM members WHERE login='$login' AND passwd='".md5($_POST['password'])."'"; $result=mysql_query($qry); //Check whether the query was successful or not if($result) { if(mysql_num_rows($result) == 1) { //Login Successful session_regenerate_id(); $member = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); $_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID'] = $member['member_id']; $_SESSION['SESS_FIRST_NAME'] = $member['firstname']; $_SESSION['SESS_LAST_NAME'] = $member['lastname']; session_write_close(); header("location: members.php"); exit(); }else { //Login failed header("location: login-failed.php"); exit(); } }else { die("Query failed"); } ?>

    Read the article

  • java annotations - problem with calling a locator class from a Vaadin Project

    - by George
    Hello, I'm not sure how to explain this without writing several pages so I hope the actual code is more expressive. I've made a jar containing multiple annotation declaration similar to the following: @Target(ElementType.PACKAGE) @Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME) public @interface MarkedPackage { } then I have made a test jar containing several classes in several packages and marked just one package with the above annotation (with package-info.java) like below: @myPackage.MarkedPackage package package.test.jar; this jar had in its build path the jar containing the annotations. then I made a static class that has a method (LoadPlugins) that retrieves a list with all the jars of a directory. Then it searches through the jars for the 'package-info' class and checks if that classes package contains the MarkedPackage annotation. by calling this: if (checkPackageAnnotation(thisClass.getPackage())) where thisClass is the package-info class retrieved via a classloader. and: public static boolean checkPackageAnnotation(AnnotatedElement elem) { System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); if (elem == null || !elem.isAnnotationPresent(MarkedPackage.class)) return false; return true; } the elem.getAnnotatios().length is there for debug purposes. And the problem appears when I call the method from the static class: if I call it from a main function: public class MyMain { public static void main(String[] args){ PluginUtils.LoadPlugins(); } } everything works perfectly it displays '1' from that System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); But if I call it from a button from my Vaadin project: header.addComponent(new Button("CallThat", new Button.ClickListener() { public void buttonClick(ClickEvent event) { PluginUtils.LoadPlugins(); } })); It displays '0' from that System.out.println(elem.getAnnotations().length); Also I should mention that I created the main inside my Vaadin project so it would have the exact same build path and resources. Is there a problem with web applications and that "@Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME)" ? hope I was clear enough... Hope someone has a solution for me... If you need more information - let me know. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

    - by s093294
    Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

    Read the article

  • Fluent NHibernate Map to private/protected Field that has no exposing Property

    - by Jon Erickson
    I have the following Person and Gender classes (I don't really, but the example is simplified to get my point across), using NHibernate (Fluent NHibernate) I want to map the Database Column "GenderId" [INT] value to the protected int _genderId field in my Person class. How do I do this? FYI, the mappings and the domain objects are in separate assemblies. public class Person : Entity { protected int _genderId; public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; private set; } public virtual Gender Gender { get { return Gender.FromId(_genderId); } } } public class Gender : EnumerationBase<Gender> { public static Gender Male = new Gender(1, "Male"); public static Gender Female = new Gender(2, "Female"); private static readonly Gender[] _genders = new[] { Male, Female }; private Gender(int id, string name) { Id = id; Name = name; } public int Id { get; private set; } public string Name { get; private set; } public static Gender FromId(int id) { return _genders.Where(x => x.Id == id).SingleOrDefault(); } }

    Read the article

  • How are property assignment expressions handled in C#?

    - by Serious
    In C# you can use a property as both an lrvalue and rvalue at the same time like this : int n = N = 1; Here is a complete C# sample : class Test { static int n; static int N { get { System.Console.WriteLine("get"); return n; } set { System.Console.WriteLine("set"); n = value; } } static void Main() { int n = N = 1; System.Console.WriteLine("{0}/{1}", n, N); } } You can't do that in C++/CLI as the resulting type of the assignment expression "N = 1" is void. EDIT: here is a C++/CLI sample that shows this : ref class A { public: static property int N; }; int main() { int n = A::N = 1; System::Console::WriteLine("{0}/{1}", n, A::N); } So what's the magic behind C# syntax allowing a void-expression to be used as a rvalue ? Is this special treatment only available for properties or do you know other C# tricks like this ?

    Read the article

  • Unable to step into interface implementation configured by unity application block

    - by Rahul
    I have configured a set of interface implementations with EntLib. unity block. The constructor of implementation classes work fine as soon as I run the application: 1. The interface to implement when I run the application the cctor runs fine, which shows that unity resolution was successful: But when I try to call a method of this class, the code just passes through without actually invoking the function of the implemented class: Edit: Added on June 11, 2012 Following is the Unity Configuration I have. (This is all the unity configuration I am doing) public class UnityControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private static readonly IUnityContainer container; private static UnityControllerFactory factory = null; static UnityControllerFactory() { container = new UnityContainer(); UnityConfigurationSection section = (UnityConfigurationSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("unity"); section.Configure(container); factory = new UnityControllerFactory(); } public static UnityControllerFactory GetControllerFactory() { return factory; } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { return container.Resolve(controllerType) as IController; } } I am unable to step into this code and the implementation simply skips out without executing anything. What is wrong here?

    Read the article

  • Why is my GUI unresponsive while a SwingWorker thread runs?

    - by Starchy
    Hello, I have a SwingWorker thread with an IOBound task which is totally locking up the interface while it runs. Swapping out the normal workload for a counter loop has the same result. The SwingWorker looks basically like this: public class BackupWorker extends SwingWorker<String, String> { private static String uname = null; private static String pass = null; private static String filename = null; static String status = null; BackupWorker (String uname, String pass, String filename) { this.uname = uname; this.pass = pass; this.filename = filename; } @Override protected String doInBackground() throws Exception { BackupObject bak = newBackupObject(uname,pass,filename); return "Done!"; } } The code that kicks it off lives in a class that extends JFrame: public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent event) { String cmd = event.getActionCommand(); if (BACKUP.equals(cmd)) { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { final StatusFrame statusFrame = new StatusFrame(); statusFrame.setVisible(true); SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run () { statusFrame.beginBackup(uname,pass,filename); } }); } }); } } Here's the interesting part of StatusFrame: public void beginBackup(final String uname, final String pass, final String filename) { worker = new BackupWorker(uname, pass, filename); worker.execute(); try { System.out.println(worker.get()); } catch (InterruptedException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (ExecutionException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } So far as I can see, everything "long-running" is handled by the worker, and everything that touches the GUI on the EDT. Have I tangled things up somewhere, or am I expecting too much of SwingWorker?

    Read the article

  • Independent name of a class

    - by tobi
    We have class lua. In lua class there is a method registerFunc() which is defined: void lua::registerFun() { lua_register( luaState, "asd", luaApi::asd); lua_register( luaState, "zxc", luaApi::zxc); } lua_register is a built-in function from lua library: http://pgl.yoyo.org/luai/i/lua_register it takes static methods from luaApi class as an 3rd argument. Now some programmer wants to use the lua class, so he is forced to create his own class with definitions of the static methods, like: class luaApi { public: static int asd(); static int zxc(); }; and now is the point. I don't want (as a programmer) to create class named exactly "luaApi", but e.g. myClassForLuaApi. But for now it's not possible because it is explicitly written in the code - in lua class: lua_register( luaState, "asd", luaApi::asd); I would have to change it to: lua_register( luaState, "asd", myClassForLuaApi::asd); but I don't want to (let's assume that the programmer has no access there). If it's still not understandable, I give up. :) Thanks.

    Read the article

  • I want Lotus Domino to only send one email to users that are both recipients and members of a cc'ed lotus group.

    - by Marcus
    Lotus Domino 7 and now Lotus Domino 8.5 The scenario: A@mycompany writes an email to b@internet and cc's it to group@mycompany. A@mycompany is a member of group@mycompany. With the initial email Domino is intelligent enough to not send the email which a@mycompany just wrote to a@mycompany again. But when b@internet answers to all (a@mycompany + group@mycompany) then a@mycompany gets this email twice, because he is not only the author but also a member of group@mycompany. During the smtp session the email is sent once with the recipients set to a@mycompany and group@mycompany and a single esmtp id. So Domino should well be able to see that the mail should only be sent to a@mycompany once. Can I make Lotus Domino behave in this sane fashion?

    Read the article

  • JFrame that has multiple layers

    - by phunehehe
    Hello, I have a window that has two layers: a static background and a foreground that contains moving objects. My idea is to draw the background just once (because it's not going to change), so I make the changing panel transparent and add it on top of the static background. Here is the code for this: public static void main(String[] args) { JPanel changingPanel = new JPanel() { @Override public void paintComponent(Graphics g) { super.paintComponent(g); g.setColor(Color.RED); g.fillRect(100, 100, 100, 100); } }; changingPanel.setOpaque(false); JPanel staticPanel = new JPanel(); staticPanel.setBackground(Color.BLUE); staticPanel.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); staticPanel.add(changingPanel); JFrame frame = new JFrame(); frame.add(staticPanel); frame.setSize(800, 600); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setVisible(true); } This piece of code gives me the correct image I want, but every time I repaint changingPanel, staticPanel gets repainted as well (which is obviously against the whole idea of painting the static panel just once). Can somebody show me what's wrong? FYI I am using the javax.swing.Timer to recalculate and repaint the changing panel 24 times every second.

    Read the article

  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

    Read the article

  • DataReader already open when using LINQ

    - by Jamie Dixon
    I've got a static class containing a static field which makes reference to a wrapper object of a DataContext. The DataContext is basically generated by Visual Studio when we created a dbml file & contains methods for each of the stored procedures we have in the DB. Our class basically has a bunch of static methods that fire off each of these stored proc methods & then returns an array based on a LINQ query. Example: public static TwoFieldBarData[] GetAgesReportData(string pct) { return DataContext .BreakdownOfUsersByAge(Constants.USER_MEDICAL_PROFILE_KEY, pct) .Select(x => new TwoFieldBarData(x.DisplayName, x.LeftValue, x.RightValue, x.TotalCount)) .ToArray(); } Every now and then, we get the following error: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed firs This is happening intermittently and I'm curious as to what is going on. My guess is that when there's some lag between one method executing and the next one firing, it's locking up the DataContext and throwing the error. Could this be a case for wrapping each of the DataContext LINQ calls in a lock(){} to obtain exclusivity to that type and ensure other requests are queued?

    Read the article

  • Suggestions for splitting server roles amongst Hyper-V virtual servers / RAID6 or RAID10? / AppAssure

    - by Anon
    We have 2 Hyper-V hosts at present running 1 virtual server that was converted from a physical box running all roles. My plan is to split the roles over various virtual machines, upgrading to the latest software versions as I go, and use the backup server as a standby in case the main server fails. AppAssure backup software has a feature called Virtual Standby, so the VHD's can be ready to be fired up on the backup server if necessary. Off-site backups will be done via external USB drive for now. I'm just seeking some input/suggestions into how I'm planning to split the roles out amongst various virtual servers. Also, I'm curious how to setup the storage on the servers. We do not have any NAS's, SAN'S or any budget for this. What would the best RAID level be to use? I'm thinking either RAID6 (which is currently used) however I'm concerned about the write speeds, or RAID10 but again I'm worried that I can only lose 1 drive (from the same mirror) as opposed to any 2 with RAID6. I realise I have a hot swap for this, but what if a further drive fails during a rebuild? Is the write penalty of RAID6 worth the extra reliability over RAID10? Or will it be too slow with all the roles I am planning, therefore RAID10 is my only real option? The reason for the needed redundancy is I am the only technician and I'm not always on-site. Options I've considered: 1) 5 drives in RAID6 set, 200gb for host OS, rest for VM storage. 1 drive for hot swap - this is how it is currently setup 2) 4 drives in RAID10 set, 200gb for host OS, rest for VM storage. 2 drives for hot swap 3) 4 drives in RAID10 set for VM storage, 2 drives in RAID1 set for host OS. No drives for hot swap - While this is probably the best option with the amount of drives I have, I don't like the idea of having no hot swap 4) 3 drives in RAID6 set for VM storage, 2 drives in RAID1 set for host OS. 1 drive for hot swap All options give us enough storage capacity for our files, etc. We don't have any budget for extra drives or extra hot swap HD chassis for the servers. We have about 70 clients and about 150 users. MAIN SERVER Intel Xeon 5520 @ 2.27 GHz (2 processors) 16GB RAM 6 x 1TB Seagate Barracuda ES.2 Enterprise SATA drives Intel SRCSATAWB RAID controller Virtual machine workload using Hyper-V on Windows Server 2008 R2: DC01 - Active Directory Domain Controller / DNS server / Global catalog - 1GB RAM DC02 - Active Directory Domain Controller / DNS server / Global catalog - 1GB RAM Member Server - DHCP server, File server, Print server - 1GB RAM SCCM Member Server - 4GB RAM Third Party Software Member Server - A/V server, Ticketing software, etc - 4GB RAM Exchange 2007 - 4GB RAM - however we are probably migrating to a hosted solution, therefore freeing up resources BACKUP SERVER Intel Xeon E5410 @ 2.33GHz (2 processors) 16GB RAM 6 x 2TB WD RE4 SATA drives Intel SRCSASRB RAID controller Virtual machine workload using Hyper-V on Windows Server 2008 R2: AppAssure backup software - 8GB RAM

    Read the article

  • How to Inject code in c# method calls from a separate app

    - by Fusspawn
    I was curious if anyone knew of a way of monitoring a .Net application's runtime info (what method is being called and such) and injecting extra code to be run on certain methods from a separate running process. say i have two applications: app1.exe that for simplicity's sake could be class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ Somefunc(); } } static void Somefunc() { Console.WriteLine("Hello World"); } } and I have a second application that I wish to be able to detect when Somefunc() from application 1 is running and inject its own code, class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ if(App1.SomeFuncIsCalled) InjectCode(); } } static void InjectCode() { App1.Console.WriteLine("Hello World Injected"); } } So The result would be Application one would show Hello World Hello World Injected I understand its not going to be this simple ( By a long shot ) but I have no idea if it's even possible and if it is where to even start. Any suggestions ? I've seen similar done in java, But never in c#. EDIT: To clarify, the usage of this would be to add a plugin system to a .Net based game that I do not have access to the source code of.

    Read the article

  • Ninject: Shared DI/IoC container

    - by joblot
    Hi I want to share the container across various layers in my application. I started creating a static class which initialises the container and register types in the container. public class GeneralDIModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { Bind().To().InSingletonScope(); } } public abstract class IoC { private static IKernel _container; public static void Initialize() { _container = new StandardKernel(new GeneralDIModule(), new ViewModelDIModule()); } public static T Get<T>() { return _container.Get<T>(); } } I noticed there is a Resolve method as well. What is the difference between Resolve and Get? In my unit tests I don’t always want every registered type in my container. Is there a way of initializing an empty container and then register types I need. I’ll be mocking types as well in unit test so I’ll have to register them as well. There is an Inject method, but it says lifecycle of instance is not managed? Could someone please set me in right way? How can I register, unregister objects and reset the container. Thanks

    Read the article

  • how to generate unique numbers less than 8 characters long.

    - by loudiyimo
    hi I want to generate unique id's everytime i call methode generateCustumerId(). The generated id must be 8 characters long or less than 8 characters. This requirement is necessary because I need to store it in a data file and schema is determined to be 8 characters long for this id. Option 1 works fine. Instead of option 1, I want to use UUID. The problem is that UUID generates an id which has to many characters. Does someone know how to generate a unique id which is less then 99999999? option 1 import java.util.HashSet; import java.util.Random; import java.util.Set; public class CustomerIdGenerator { private static Set<String> customerIds = new HashSet<String>(); private static Random random = new Random(); // XXX: replace with java.util.UUID public static String generateCustumerId() { String customerId = null; while (customerId == null || customerIds.contains(customerId)) { customerId = String.valueOf(random.nextInt(89999999) + 10000000); } customerIds.add(customerId); return customerId; } } option2 generates an unique id which is too long public static String generateCustumerId() { String ownerId = UUID.randomUUID().toString(); System.out.println("ownerId " + ownerId); return ownerId }

    Read the article

  • C# iterator is executed twice when composing two IEnumerable methods

    - by achristoph
    I just started learning about C# iterator but got confused with the flow of the program after reading the output of the program. The foreach with uniqueVals seems to be executed twice. My understanding is that the first few lines up to the line before "Nums in Square: 3" should not be there. Can anyone help to explain why this happens? The output is: Unique: 1 Adding to uniqueVals: 1 Unique: 2 Adding to uniqueVals: 2 Unique: 2 Unique: 3 Adding to uniqueVals: 3 Nums in Square: 3 Unique: 1 Adding to uniqueVals: 1 Square: 1 Number returned from Unique: 1 Unique: 2 Adding to uniqueVals: 2 Square: 2 Number returned from Unique: 4 Unique: 2 Unique: 3 Adding to uniqueVals: 3 Square: 3 Number returned from Unique: 9 static class Program { public static IEnumerable<T> Unique<T>(IEnumerable<T> sequence) { Dictionary<T, T> uniqueVals = new Dictionary<T, T>(); foreach (T item in sequence) { Console.WriteLine("Unique: {0}", item); if (!uniqueVals.ContainsKey(item)) { Console.WriteLine("Adding to uniqueVals: {0}", item); uniqueVals.Add(item, item); yield return item; Console.WriteLine("After Unique yield: {0}", item); } } } public static IEnumerable<int> Square(IEnumerable<int> nums) { Console.WriteLine("Nums in Square: {0}", nums.Count()); foreach (int num in nums) { Console.WriteLine("Square: {0}", num); yield return num * num; Console.WriteLine("After Square yield: {0}", num); } } static void Main(string[] args) { var nums = new int[] { 1, 2, 2, 3 }; foreach (int num in Square(Unique(nums))) Console.WriteLine("Number returned from Unique: {0}", num); Console.Read(); } }

    Read the article

  • Opening my application when a usb device is inserted on Windows using WMI

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I'm trying to launch an event when someone plugs in a usb device. For now, I'm content to simply print something to the console (in the finished product, it will launch an application). This code is very loosely adapted from: http://serverfault.com/questions/115496/use-wmi-to-detect-a-usb-drive-was-connected-regardless-of-whether-it-was-mounted There's two problems: 1) I need to pass the argument to Management scope dynamically because this will be installed on computers I don't use or whose name I don't know. 2) I'm getting an invalid namespace exception when I call w.Start(); Any ideas what I'm doing wrong? static ManagementEventWatcher w=null; static void Main(string[] args) { AddInstUSBHandler(); for(;;); } public static void USBRemoved(object sneder, EventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine("A USB device inserted"); } static void AddInstUSBHandler() { WqlEventQuery q; ManagementScope scope = new ManagementScope("HQ\\DEV1"); scope.Options.EnablePrivileges=true; q=new WqlEventQuery(); q.EventClassName+="_InstanceCreationEvent"; q.WithinInterval=new TimeSpan(0,0,3); q.Condition=@"TargetInstance ISA 'Win32_USBControllerdevice'"; w=new ManagementEventWatcher(scope,q); w.EventArrived+=new EventArrivedEventHandler(USBRemoved); w.Start(); }

    Read the article

  • No Hibernate Exception on the same insert of data

    - by Mark Estrada
    Hi All, Hibernate Newbie here. I am quite unsure why I am not getting any exception when I am executing below code. On first attempt, this code creates the Book Entry on my Book Table. But my concern is that when I execute below code again, no error was pop out by Hibernate. I was in fact expecting some sort of Violation of Primary Key Constraints as what I have bee doing in JDBC code. public class BookDao { public void createBook(Book bookObj) { Session session = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory() .getCurrentSession(); session.beginTransaction(); session.saveOrUpdate(bookObj); session.getTransaction().commit(); } } public class HibernateUtil { private static final SessionFactory sessionFactory = buildSessionFactory(); private static SessionFactory buildSessionFactory() { try { // Create the SessionFactory from hibernate.cfg.xml return new AnnotationConfiguration().configure() .buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Throwable ex) { // Make sure you log the exception, as it might be swallowed ex.printStackTrace(); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(ex); } } public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory() { return sessionFactory; } } public class BookDBStarter { public static void main(String[] args) { Book bookHF = new Book(); bookHF.setIsbn("HF-12345"); bookHF.setName("Head First HTML"); bookHF.setPublishDate(new Date()); BookDao daoBook = new BookDao(); daoBook.createBook(bookHF); } } Is this normal hibernate way? And how will I know if my insert is successful? Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Declaration, allocation and assignment of an array of pointers to function pointers

    - by manneorama
    Hello Stack Overflow! This is my first post, so please be gentle. I've been playing around with C from time to time in the past. Now I've gotten to the point where I've started a real project (a 2D graphics engine using SDL, but that's irrelevant for the question), to be able to say that I have some real C experience. Yesterday, while working on the event system, I ran into a problem which I couldn't solve. There's this typedef, //the void parameter is really an SDL_Event*. //but that is irrelevant for this question. typedef void (*event_callback)(void); which specifies the signature of a function to be called on engine events. I want to be able to support multiple event_callbacks, so an array of these callbacks would be an idea, but do not want to limit the amount of callbacks, so I need some sort of dynamic allocation. This is where the problem arose. My first attempt went like this: //initial size of callback vector static const int initial_vecsize = 32; //our event callback vector static event_callback* vec = 0; //size static unsigned int vecsize = 0; void register_event_callback(event_callback func) { if (!vec) __engine_allocate_vec(vec); vec[vecsize++] = func; //error here! } static void __engine_allocate_vec(engine_callback* vec) { vec = (engine_callback*) malloc(sizeof(engine_callback*) * initial_vecsize); } First of all, I have omitted some error checking as well as the code that reallocates the callback vector when the number of callbacks exceed the vector size. However, when I run this code, the program crashes as described in the code. I'm guessing segmentation fault but I can't be sure since no output is given. I'm also guessing that the error comes from a somewhat flawed understanding on how to declare and allocate an array of pointers to function pointers. Please Stack Overflow, guide me.

    Read the article

  • IISReset to remote server fails

    - by Rob
    I'm attempting to run iisreset 192.168.100.182 (against a Windows Server 2003 machine) from another machine on the same domain (running Windows 7 Professional) and am receiving the following error message: Attempting stop... Restart attempt failed. Access denied, you must be an administrator of the remote computer to use this command. Either have your account added to the administrator local group of the remote computer or to the domain administrator global group. I'm running the command from an elevated command prompt with my domain account added to the Administrators group on the target machine. I've attempted this when being a member of the administrators group both directly and by virtue of membership of a domain group that's a member of the administrators group. I've reviewed the event log on the target machine and it shows a selection of Success Audits for my domain credentials immediately after attempting the iisreset, but no failure audits.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156  | Next Page >