Search Results

Search found 10550 results on 422 pages for 'syntax rules'.

Page 149/422 | < Previous Page | 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156  | Next Page >

  • Commenting out portions of code in Scala

    - by akauppi
    I am looking for a C(++) #if 0 -like way of being able to comment out whole pieces of Scala source code, for keeping around experimental or expired code for a while. I tried out a couple of alternatives and would like to hear what you use, and if you have come up with something better? // Simply block-marking N lines by '//' is one way... // <tags> """ anything My editor makes this easy, but it's not really The Thing. It gets easily mixed with actual one-line comments. Then I figured there's native XML support, so: <!-- ... did not work --> Wrapping in XML works, unless you have <tags> within the block: class none { val a= <ignore> ... cannot have //<tags> <here> (not even in end-of-line comments!) </ignore> } The same for multi-line strings seems kind of best, but there's an awful lot of boilerplate (not fashionable in Scala) to please the compiler (less if you're doing this within a class or an object): object none { val ignore= """ This seems like ... <truly> <anything goes> but three "'s of course """ } The 'right' way to do this might be: /*** /* ... works but not properly syntax highlighed in SubEthaEdit (or StackOverflow) */ ***/ ..but that matches the /* and */ only, not i.e. /*** to ***/. This means the comments within the block need to be balanced. And - the current Scala syntax highlighting mode for SubEthaEdit fails miserably on this. As a comparison, Lua has --[==[ matching ]==] and so forth. I think I'm spoilt? So - is there some useful trick I'm overseeing?

    Read the article

  • Exclude subdirectory from rewrite rule in web.config

    - by Clog
    This question comes up often, but I can only find solutions for PHP, Apache, htaccess etc but not for web.config I would like my pages to return in HTTP not HTTPS, except for forms within certain subdirectories. I have created the following web.config file, but how do I exclude a subdirectory called forms. <configuration> <system.webServer> <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Force all to HTTP" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="(.*)" /> <conditions> <add input="{HTTPS}" pattern="on" ignoreCase="true" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" redirectType="Found" url="http://www.mysite.com/{R:1}" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> </system.webServer> </configuration> Many thanks all you clever clogs.

    Read the article

  • LINQ extention SelectMany in 3.5 vs 4.0?

    - by Moberg
    Hi When I saw Darins suggestion here .. IEnumerable<Process> processes = new[] { "process1", "process2" } .SelectMany(Process.GetProcessesByName); ( http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3059667/process-getprocessesbyname/3059733#3059733 ) .. I was a bit intrigued and I tried it in VS2008 with .NET 3.5 - and it did not compiling unless I changed it to .. IEnumerable<Process> res = new string[] { "notepad", "firefox", "outlook" } .SelectMany(s => Process.GetProcessesByName(s)); Having read some Darins answers before I suspected that it was me that were the problem, and when I later got my hands on a VS2010 with.NET 4.0 - as expected - the original suggestion worked beautifully. My question is : What have happend from 3.5 to 4.0 that makes this (new syntax) possible? Is it the extentionmethods that have been extended(hmm) or new rules for lambda syntax or? I've tried to search but my google-fu was not strong enough. Please forgive if the question is a bit naive and note that I've taged it as beginner :)

    Read the article

  • Python re module becomes 20 times slower when called on greater than 101 different regex

    - by Wiil
    My problem is about parsing log files and removing variable parts on each lines to be able to group them. For instance: s = re.sub(r'(?i)User [_0-9A-z]+ is ', r"User .. is ", s) s = re.sub(r'(?i)Message rejected because : (.*?) \(.+\)', r'Message rejected because : \1 (...)', s) I have about 120+ matching rules like those above. I have found no performances issues while searching successively on 100 different regex. But a huge slow down comes when applying 101 regex. Exact same behavior happens when replacing my rules set by for a in range(100): s = re.sub(r'(?i)caught here'+str(a)+':.+', r'( ... )', s) Got 20 times slower when putting range(101) instead. # range(100) % ./dashlog.py file.bz2 == Took 2.1 seconds. == # range(101) % ./dashlog.py file.bz2 == Took 47.6 seconds. == Why such thing is happening ? And is there any known workaround ? (Happens on Python 2.6.6/2.7.2 on Linux/Windows.)

    Read the article

  • Issue selenium code maintenance

    - by Rajasankar
    I want to group the common methods in one file and use it. For example, login to a page using selenium may be used in multiple times. Define that in class A and call it in class B. However, it throws null pointer exception. class A has public void test_Login() throws Exception { try{ selenium.setTimeout("60000"); selenium.open("http://localhost"); selenium.windowFocus(); selenium.windowMaximize(); selenium.windowFocus(); selenium.type("userName", "admin"); selenium.type("password", "admin"); Result=selenium.isElementPresent("//input[@type='image']"); selenium.click("//input[@type='image']"); selenium.waitForPageToLoad(Timeout); } catch(Exception ex) { System.out.println(ex); ex.printStackTrace(); } } with all other java syntax in class B public void test_kk() throws Exception { try { a.test_Login(); } catch(Exception ex) { System.out.println(ex); ex.printStackTrace(); } } with all syntax. When I execute class B, I got this error, java.lang.NullPointerException at A.test_Login(A.java:32) at B.test_kk(savefile.java:58) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Unknown Source) at junit.framework.TestCase.runTest(TestCase.java:168) at junit.framework.TestCase.runBare(TestCase.java:134) at com.thoughtworks.selenium.SeleneseTestCase.runBare(SeleneseTestCase.j ava:212) at junit.framework.TestResult$1.protect(TestResult.java:110) at junit.framework.TestResult.runProtected(TestResult.java:128) at junit.framework.TestResult.run(TestResult.java:113) at junit.framework.TestCase.run(TestCase.java:124) at junit.framework.TestSuite.runTest(TestSuite.java:232) at junit.framework.TestSuite.run(TestSuite.java:227) at junit.textui.TestRunner.doRun(TestRunner.java:116) at junit.textui.TestRunner.doRun(TestRunner.java:109) at junit.textui.TestRunner.run(TestRunner.java:77) at B.main(B.java:77) I hope someone must have tried this before. I may miss something here.

    Read the article

  • emacs: How to intelligently handle buffer-modified when setting text properties?

    - by Cheeso
    The documentation on Text Properties says: Since text properties are considered part of the contents of the buffer (or string), and can affect how a buffer looks on the screen, any change in buffer text properties marks the buffer as modified. First, I don't understand that policy. Can anyone explain? The text props are not actually saved in the file, when the buffer is saved. So why mark the buffer as modified? For me, buffer-modified indicates "some changes have not yet been saved." but understanding the policy is just for my own amusement. More importantly, is there an already-established way that, in code, I can change syntax text properties on the text in a buffer, while keeping the buffer-modified flag set to whatever it was, prior to those changes? I'm thinking of something like save-excursion. It would be pretty easy to write, but this seems like a common case and I'd like to use the standard function, if possible. For more on the scenario - I have a mode that does a full text scan and sets syntax-tabe properties on the text. After opening a buffer, the scan runs, but it results in a buffer with buffer-modified set to t . As always, thanks.

    Read the article

  • Prevent Word from Reformatting my HTML

    - by Jonathan
    I have an HTML page that needs to open in word. I created the document in word and saved the document as an HTML document. So word spits out all its nasty HTML syntax. This is the opened through internet explorer which will display the word document within the browser. When I view the page word modifies some of the tags. More specifically it adds a Width and Height tag and ignores the width and height within the style tag. If I try setting the Width and Height tags it overrides with new values. I have tested on different environments and get different results as word makes decision how to handle. A bit of background this img starts off as this, and is rendered via data rendering syntax. <asp:Image id="as" runat="server" Src"<%# ImgSource %>" style="width:178px;height:130px" /> It ends up like this in word <img width=32 height=32 id=barCodeImage src="http://myurl/BarcodeImages/1136574_129180418198008169.png" style='border-bottom-width:0px;border-left-width:0px;border-right-width:0px; border-top-width:0px;height:130px;width:178px'> I want to stop word from reformatting the HTML.

    Read the article

  • Invalid Argument javascript error only on certain computers

    - by Jen
    Getting an error whenever we click a particular button/link on our site. It is generating a javascript "Invalid Argument" error. I know in the other posts it is typically because it is a syntax error in the javascript however it only just seems to have started happening and it doesn't happen on all pcs. ie. in our client's environment if I remote onto their web server and view the uat website I get the javascript error. If I remote onto their sql server and view the uat website I don't get the javascript error. If it was a syntax error then I would always get the error wouldn't I? both browsers are the same version of IE6 (yeah I know...) :) I have tried deleting temporary internet files - including viewing the files and deleting them myself - but no joy. client uses citrix.. and they're all getting the error :( Any ideas would be appreciated - Thanks! :) Update - Sorry I haven't posted specific code as there is too much to post (and I'm not sure where the error is occurring). The "button" launches a new window which in turn opens up a couple of aspx pages and calls lots of javascript. So the window opens ok, and there's a function that gets called to resize the window - but before it calls the resizing of the window/content it throws the invalid argument error. Am busy trying to get alerts to trigger to see if I can see where it's falling over but so far no luck. Again not sure why this error doesn't occur when I use a particular PC (same browser version)

    Read the article

  • CRM 2011 - Set/Retrieve work hours programmatically

    - by Philip Rich
    I am attempting to retrieve a resources work hours to perform some logic I require. I understand that the CRM scheduling engine is a little clunky around such things, but I assumed that I would be able to find out how the working hours were stored in the DB eventually... So a resource has associated calendars and those calendars have associated calendar rules and inner calendars etc. It is possible to look at the start/end and frequency of aforementioned calendar rules and query their codes to work out whether a resource is 'working' during a given period. However, I have not been able to find the actual working hours, the 9-5 shall we say in any field in the DB. I even tried some SQL profiling while I was creating a new schedule for a resource via the UI, but the results don't show any work hours passing to SQL. For those with the patience the intercepted SQL statement is below:- EXEC Sp_executesql N'update [CalendarRuleBase] set [ModifiedBy]=@ModifiedBy0, [EffectiveIntervalEnd]=@EffectiveIntervalEnd0, [Description]=@Description0, [ModifiedOn]=@ModifiedOn0, [GroupDesignator]=@GroupDesignator0, [IsSelected]=@IsSelected0, [InnerCalendarId]=@InnerCalendarId0, [TimeZoneCode]=@TimeZoneCode0, [CalendarId]=@CalendarId0, [IsVaried]=@IsVaried0, [Rank]=@Rank0, [ModifiedOnBehalfBy]=NULL, [Duration]=@Duration0, [StartTime]=@StartTime0, [Pattern]=@Pattern0 where ([CalendarRuleId] = @CalendarRuleId0)', N'@ModifiedBy0 uniqueidentifier,@EffectiveIntervalEnd0 datetime,@Description0 ntext,@ModifiedOn0 datetime,@GroupDesignator0 ntext,@IsSelected0 bit,@InnerCalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@TimeZoneCode0 int,@CalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@IsVaried0 bit,@Rank0 int,@Duration0 int,@StartTime0 datetime,@Pattern0 ntext,@CalendarRuleId0 uniqueidentifier', @ModifiedBy0='EB04662A-5B38-E111-9889-00155D79A113', @EffectiveIntervalEnd0='2012-01-13 00:00:00', @Description0=N'Weekly Single Rule', @ModifiedOn0='2012-03-12 16:02:08', @GroupDesignator0=N'FC5769FC-4DE9-445d-8F4E-6E9869E60857', @IsSelected0=1, @InnerCalendarId0='3C806E79-7A49-4E8D-B97E-5ED26700EB14', @TimeZoneCode0=85, @CalendarId0='E48B1ABF-329F-425F-85DA-3FFCBB77F885', @IsVaried0=0, @Rank0=2, @Duration0=1440, @StartTime0='2000-01-01 00:00:00', @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA', @CalendarRuleId0='0A00DFCF-7D0A-4EE3-91B3-DADFCC33781D' The key parts in the statement are the setting of the pattern:- @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA' However, as mentioned, no indication of the work hours set. Am I thinking about this incorrectly or is CRM doing something interesting around these work hours? Any thoughts greatly appreciated, thanks.

    Read the article

  • Client validate in MVC 2

    - by khoailang
    Hello, I'm very new in MVC 2, Let say, I have a page with 1 text box and 2 input typed submit, "back" and "next". I'm using client validation like this: "" type="text/javascript"/" " type="text/javascript"/ " type="text/javascript"/ . . . <% Html.EnableClientValidation(); % . . . . . . and validation rule used for that text box is [StringLength(100, ErrorMessage="This field should be no longer than 100")] My wish is that validation rules will be applied only when I click on Next button. And when I click on Back button, no validation error message will be displayed and form will be posted to server. Is it possible to do that? could you please tell me how? My problem now is that when I click Back, validation rules are applied and prevent me from posting back to server.

    Read the article

  • Magento: How do I get observers to work in an external script?

    - by Laizer
    As far as I can tell, when a script is run outside of Magento, observers are not invoked when an event is fired. Why? How do I fix it? Below is the original issue that lead me to this question. The issue is that the observer that would apply the catalog rule is never called. The event fires, but the observer doesn't pick it up. I'm running an external script that loads up a Magento session. Within that script, I'm loading products and grabbing a bunch of properties. The one issue is that getFinalPrice() does not apply the catalog rules that apply to the product. I'm doing everything I know to set the session, even a bunch of stuff that I think is superfluous. Nothing seems to get these rules applied. Here's a test script: require_once "app/Mage.php"; umask(0); $app = Mage::app("default"); $app->getTranslator()->init('frontend'); //Probably not needed Mage::getSingleton('core/session', array('name'=>'frontend')); $session = Mage::getSingleton("customer/session"); $session->start(); //Probably not needed $session->loginById(122); $product = Mage::getModel('catalog/product')->load(1429); echo $product->getFinalPrice(); Any insight is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • What programming language do you wish would quietly retire? [closed]

    - by Gregory Higley
    This is the inverse of the "What programming language do you wish would catch on?" question. I was a Delphi programmer for many years, and I still appreciate its power, but I dislike verbose programming languages. So I would love to see Pascal put out to pasture. The same goes for BASIC in any form, despite the fact that it's the language I cut my teeth on. When I look at cathedrals of beauty like Haskell and REBOL, BASIC just makes me cringe. (VB.NET is tolerable, but barely. It has a few nice language features I'd like to see moved to C#.) My dislike of Pascal and VB.NET is subjective. They are powerful languages, but I dislike their syntax esthetically. Try to explain your reasoning, if you can, even if it's just "I don't like its syntax." This question is not meant to be a flame war, argumentative, or hateful. It's meant to be a straightforward, honest discussion of programmers' dislikes.

    Read the article

  • C++ class derivation and superconstructor confusion

    - by LukeN
    Hey, in a tutorial C++ code, I found this particular piece of confusion: PlasmaTutorial1::PlasmaTutorial1(QObject *parent, const QVariantList &args) : Plasma::Applet(parent, args), // <- Okay, Plasma = namespace, Applet = class m_svg(this), // <- A member function of class "Applet"? m_icon("document") // <- ditto? { m_svg.setImagePath("widgets/background"); // this will get us the standard applet background, for free! setBackgroundHints(DefaultBackground); resize(200, 200); } I'm not new to object oriented programming, so class derivation and super-classes are nothing complicated, but this syntax here got me confused. The header file defines the class like this: class PlasmaTutorial1 : public Plasma::Applet { Similar to above, namespace Plasma and class Applet. But what's the public doing there? I fear that I already know the concept but don't grasp the C++ syntax/way of doing it. In this question I picked up that these are called "superconstructors", at least that's what stuck in my memory, but I don't get this to the full extend. If we glance back at the first snippet, we see Constructor::Class(...) : NS::SuperClass(...), all fine 'till here. But what are m_svg(this), m_icon("document") doing there? Is this some kind of method to make these particular functions known to the derivated class? Is this part of C++ basics or more immediate? While I'm not completly lost in C++, I feel much more at home in C :) Most of the OOP I have done so far was done in D, Ruby or Python. For example in D I would just define class MyClass : MySuperClass, override what I needed to and call the super class' constructor if I'd need to.

    Read the article

  • How do I use the Enum value from a class in another part of code?

    - by ChiggenWingz
    Coming from a C# background from a night course at a local college, I've sort of started my way in C++. Having a lot pain getting use to the syntax. I'm also still very green when it comes to coding techniques. From my WinMain function, I want to be able to access a variable which is using an enum I declared in another class. (inside core.h) class Core { public: enum GAME_MODE { INIT, MENUS, GAMEPLAY }; GAME_MODE gameMode; Core(); ~Core(); ...OtherFunctions(); }; (inside main.cpp) Core core; int WINAPI WinMain(...) { ... startup code here... core.gameMode = Core.GAME_MODE.INIT; ...etc... } Basically I want to set that gameMode to the enum value of Init or something like that from my WinMain function. I want to also be able to read it from other areas. I get the error... expected primary-expression before '.' token If I try to use core.gameMode = Core::GAME_MODE.INIT;, then I get the same error. I'm not fussed about best practices, as I'm just trying to get the basic understanding of passing around variables in C++ between files. I'll be making sure variables are protected and neatly tucked away later on once I am use to the flexibility of the syntax. If I remember correctly, C# allowed me to use Enums from other classes, and all I had to do was something like Core.ENUMNAME.ENUMVALUE. I hope what I'm wanting to do is clear :\ As I have no idea what a lot of the correct terminology is.

    Read the article

  • Matlab GUI: How to Save the Results of Functions (states of application)

    - by niko
    Hi, I would like to create an animation which enables the user to go backward and forward through the steps of simulation. An animation has to simulate the iterative process of channel decoding (a receiver receives a block of bits, performs an operation and then checks if the block corresponds to parity rules. If the block doesn't correspond the operation is performed again and the process finally ends when the code corresponds to a given rules). I have written the functions which perform the decoding process and return a m x n x i matrix where m x n is the block of data and i is the iteration index. So if it takes 3 iterations to decode the data the function returns a m x n x 3 matrix with each step is stired. In the GUI (.fig file) I put a "decode" button which runs the method for decoding and there are buttons "back" and "forward" which have to enable the user to switch between the data of recorded steps. I have stored the "decodedData" matrix and currentStep value as a global variable so by clicking "forward" and "next" buttons the indices have to change and point to appropriate step states. When I tried to debug the application the method returned the decoded data but when I tried to click "back" and "next" the decoded data appeared not to be declared. Does anyone know how is it possible to access (or store) the results of the functions in order to enable the described logic which I want to implement in Matlab GUI?

    Read the article

  • How to understand other people's CSS architectures?

    - by John
    I am reasonably good with CSS. However, when working with someone else's CSS, it's difficult for me to see the "bigger picture" in their architecture (but i have no problem when working with a CSS sheet I wrote myself). For example, I have no problems using Firebug to isolate and fix cross browser compatibility issues, or fixing a floating issue, or changing the height on a particular element. But if I'm asked to do something drastic such as, "I want the right sidebars of pages A, B, C and D to have a red border. I want the right side bars of pages E, F and G to have a blue border if and only if the user mouses over", then it takes me time a long time to map out all the CSS inheritance rules to see the "bigger picture". For some reason, I don't encounter the same difficulty with backend code. After a quick debriefing of how a feature works, and a quick inspection of the controller and model code, I will feel comfortable with the architecture. I will think, "it's reasonable to assume that there will be an Employee class that inherits from the Person Class that's used by a Department controller". If I discover inconvenient details that aren't consistent with overall architectural style, I am confident that I can hammer things back in place. With someone else's CSS work, it's much harder for me to see the "relationships" between different classes, and when and how the classes are used. When there are many inheritance rules, I feel overwhelmed. I'm having trouble articulating my question and issues... All I want to know is, why is it so much harder for me to see the bigger picture in someone else's CSS architecture than compared to someone else's business logic layer? **Does it have any thing to do with CSS being a relatively new technology, and there aren't many popular design patterns?

    Read the article

  • SQL query error while trying to put a file in the database

    - by DaGhostman Dimitrov
    Hey Guys I have a big problem that I have no Idea why.. I have few forms that upload files to the database, all of them work fine except one.. I use the same query in all(simple insert). I think that it has something to do with the files i am trying to upload but I am not sure. Here is the code: if ($_POST['action'] == 'hndlDocs') { $ref = $_POST['reference']; // Numeric value of $doc = file_get_contents($_FILES['doc']['tmp_name']); $link = mysqli_connect('localhost','XXXXX','XXXXX','documents'); mysqli_query($link,"SET autocommit = 0"); $query = "INSERT INTO documents ({$ref}, '{$doc}', '{$_FILES['doc']['type']}') ;"; mysqli_query($link,$query); if (mysqli_error($link)) { var_dump(mysqli_error($link)); mysqli_rollback($link); } else { print("<script> window.history.back(); </script>"); mysqli_commit($link); } } The database has only these fields: DATABASE documents ( reference INT(5) NOT NULL, //it is unsigned zerofill doc LONGBLOB NOT NULL, //this should contain the binary data mime_type TEXT NOT NULL // the mime type of the file php allows only application/pdf and image/jpeg ); And the error I get is : You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '00001, '????' at line 1 I will appreciate every help. Cheers!

    Read the article

  • NVelocity (or Velocity) as a stand-alone formula evaluator

    - by dana
    I am using NVelocity in my application to generate html emails. My application has an event-driven model, where saving and/or updating of objects causes these emails to be sent out. Each event can trigger zero, one or multiple multiple emails. I want to be able to configure which emails get sent out at run-time without having to modify code. I was thinking I could leverage the NVelocity #if() directive to do this. Here is my idea... Step 1) Prior to email sending, the administrator must configure a formula for NVelocity to evaluate. For example: $User.FirstName == "Jack" Step 2) When an object is saved or created, build an NVelocity template in memory based on the input formula. For example: String formula = GetFormulaFromDB(); // $User.FirstName == "Jack" String templ = "#if( " + formula + ") 1 #else 0 #end"; Step 3) Execute the NVelocity engine in memory against the template. Check the results to see if we have to send the email: String result = VelocityMerge(templ); // utility function if( result.Trim() == "1" ) { SendEmail(); } I know this is not exactly what NVelocity was intended to do, but I think it just might work :) One of the benefits of doing things this way is that the same syntax can be used for the formula as is used inside the template. Does anybody have any words of caution or suggestions? Is there a way to execute the #if() directive without jumping through hoops like I have above? Is there a recommended way to validate the formula syntax ahead of time? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Powershell: splatting after passing hashtable by reference

    - by user1815871
    Powershell newbie ... I recently learned about splatting — very useful. I ran into a snag when I passed a hash table by reference to a function for splatting purposes. (For brevity's sake — a silly example.) Function AllMyChildren { param ( [ref]$ReferenceToHash } get-childitem @ReferenceToHash.Value # etc.etc. } $MyHash = @{ 'path' = '*' 'include' = '*.ps1' 'name' = $null } AllMyChildren ([ref]$MyHash) Result: an error ("Splatted variables cannot be used as part of a property or array expression. Assign the result of the expression to a temporary variable then splat the temporary variable instead."). Tried this afterward: $newVariable = $ReferenceToHash.Value get-childitem @NewVariable That did work and seemed right per the error message. But: is it the preferred syntax in a case like this? (An oh, look, it actually worked solution isn't always a best practice. My approach here strikes me as "Perl-minded" and perhaps in Powershell passing by value is better, though I don't yet know the syntax for it w.r.t. a hash table.)

    Read the article

  • Problem in displaying image in FireFox

    - by Param-Ganak
    Hello friends, I have a JSP page on which I have a div tag in which there is a a IMG tag. Using this IMG tag I want to show an image in it. Here the source path of an image is comes from database so I assigned a JSP variable using JSP scriplet. This JSP variable have the source path of an image. This path of image may be of different machine or of same machine i.e. images are stored on different machine or on same machine i.e. on local machine on different drive. The problem is that how to give path of image stored on different machine as well as on same machine. I have tried different ways like by giving ip address of that machine. Here is the path that of local machine where the image is stored img src= file:\localhost\D:\ScannedSheets\testproj/batch1/IMG001.jpg style="z-index:1; position:absolute; top:0; left:0; width:850; height:1099" With this syntax the image is visible in Internet Explorer but With the same syntax Its not visible in FireFox, Google Chrome etc. Please Guide me in friends. Also tell me that how to give path of the image stored on different machine which works In Internet Explorer, FireFox, Google chrome etc.

    Read the article

  • Cakephp 1.3, Weird behavior on firefox when using $this->Html->link ...

    - by ion
    Greetings, I am getting a very weird and unpredictable result in firefox when using the following syntax: $this->Html->link($this->Html->div('p-cpt',$project['Project']['name']) . $this->Html->div('p-img',$this->Html->image('/img/projects/'.$project['Project']['slug'].'/project.thumb.jpg', array('alt'=>$project['Project']['name'],'width'=>100,'height'=>380))),array('controller' => 'projects', 'action' => 'view', $project['Project']['slug']),array('title' => $project['Project']['name'], 'escape' => false),false); OK I know it is big but bear with me. The point is to get the following output: <a href="x" title="x"> <div class="p-ctp">Name</div> <div class="p-img"><img src="z width="y" height="a" alt="d" /></div> </a> I'm not sure if this validates correctly both on cakephp and html but it works everywhere else apart from firefox. You can actually see the result here: http://www.gnomonconstructions.com/projects/browser To reproduce the result use the form with different categories and press search. At some point it will happen!! Although most of the time it renders the way it should, sometimes it produces an invalid output like that: <a href="x" title="x"></a> <div class="p-cpt"> <a href="x" title="x">name</a> </div> <div class="p-img"> <a href="x" title="x"><img src="x" width="x" height="x" alt="x" /></a> </div> Looks like it repeats the link inside each element. To be honest the only reason I used this syntax was because cakephp encourages it. Any help will be much appreciated :)

    Read the article

  • IIS6 throws error for jquery.

    - by user309557
    Hi, on my master page, I have referenced jquery file. I am doing simple hover function. When mouse hover, I change the css and when hover out, change the css back to originial. Nothing fancy. but my page throws jquery error when I run in IIS6 on server 2003. When I run on IIS5.1 on local xp machine, it works perfectly fine. Any idea? I access both pages from my machine so IE settings is not the problem. I opened the both js file and the error line is nothing but the end of the file ( i.e last line of the js file) Webpage error details User Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 5.1; Trident/4.0; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.0.4506.2152; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; OfficeLiveConnector.1.4; OfficeLivePatch.1.3) Timestamp: Mon, 5 Apr 2010 21:59:18 UTC Message: Syntax error Line: 4377 Char: 2 Code: 0 URI: server-test/myapplication/Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js (removed the link because stackoverflow does not allow me to put more than one link) Message: Syntax error Line: 6183 Char: 2 Code: 0 URI: server-test/myapplication/Scripts/jquery-1.3.2-vsdoc.js (removed the link because stackoverflow does not allow me to put more than one link) Message: Object expected Line: 189 Char: 9 Code: 0 URI: http://server-test/myapplication/

    Read the article

  • Android debug mode not working waiting for device

    - by Blue42
    I'm trying to get my android phone working to run apps from inside an IDE. Got it working on windows no problem, currently working in fedora (18) a lot though so wanted to get it working with that. Got IntelliJ and android sdk installed, problem is when I try to run the default hello world app it wont work it just says waiting for device.. Ran adb devices got List of devices attached ???????????? no permissions Leads me to believe the driver isn't installed? Phone I'm using is a HTC Sensation. Does anyone know what I can do to try and resolve it? The HTC web page doesn't offer me drivers to install. Also noticed in /etc/udev/rules.d/..android.rules there is nothing about Sensation. Seems it recognises my nexus 7 though.. Edit: Tried my nexus.. got List of devices attached 901839238298923 offline So it doesn't even work with that.. confusing.. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, B

    Read the article

  • CSS Differences Between IE and FF

    - by Joe Majewski
    I hope I'm not breaking any rules by asking a question that pertains to a project I'm working on. If you view my page here and view it in Firefox and again in Internet Explorer, the width of the main content boxes differs. In Firefox, everything aligns perfectly with the advertisement at the top of the page, but in IE, the width of the content boxes seems to fall short by about 20 or so pixels. My question is obvious by now, but what is causing the width in IE to fall short, and what would a simple solution be? If I happen to be breaking the rules by asking a question that is not generic enough to benefit others, then allow me to rephrase it; what would be the best approach to solving visual differences between browsers? Should I use a separate CSS file for IE, or is there a way to define lines in my CSS file that only get rendered by a specific browser? It would be best if someone could provide me with the necessary CSS to align things properly, but I would be more than happy to learn about how to make the CSS dynamic (if that's possible). Thanks everyone. :)

    Read the article

  • "Invalid assignment" error from == operator

    - by Tom
    I was trying to write a simple method: boolean validate(MyObject o) { // propertyA && propertyB are not primitive types. return o.getPropertyA() == null && o.getPropertyB() == null; } And got a strange error on the == null part: Syntax error on token ==. Invalid assignment operator. Maybe my Java is rusty after a season in PLSQL. So I tried a simpler example: Integer i = 4; i == null; // compile error: Syntax error on token ==. Invalid assignment operator. Integer i2 = 4; if (i == null); //No problem How can this be? I'm using jdk160_05. To clarify: I'm not trying to assign anything, just do an && operation between two boolean values. I don't want to do this: if (o.propertyA() == null && o.propertyB() == null) { return true; } else { return false; }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156  | Next Page >