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• jeditable not updating browser display - leaves "click to edit..." after succesful edit

  - by Enoch

  I am using jeditable fairly simply and it all works fine, updates the database, etc. The only problem I have is after the user types the new value data and hits enter it doesn't update the field in the browser to show the new value - instead it puts "Click to edit..." in place of it. Am I missing something like a return value from my php file? the php fucntion just takes the args and updates the database - and it works fine. Enoch the jquery\jeditable code $('.edit').editable('update.php',{ id: 'field', name: 'val', indicator: 'Saving...', tooltip: 'Click to edit...', select : true, submitdata : { db : "pers", kn : "key", rec : "?php echo $rec; ?" } }); the div <div class="edit" id="svc_ad1"><?php echo $row-svc_ad1; ?>< /div> i also have a css class for pEdit edit{ float:left; width:200px; height:15px; margin-bottom:5px; border-bottom:1px solid #aaaaaa; }

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• Flex special characters not embedding

  - by Hanpan

  Hi, I am using the following code to embed Arial into my application: [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='regular', unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT:Class; [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial Bold.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='bold', unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT_BOLD:Class; [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial Italic.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='regular',fontStyle="italic", unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT_ITALIC:Class; [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial Bold Italic.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='bold',fontStyle="italic", unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT_ITALIC_BOLD:Class; [Embed(source='../assets/fonts/Arial Unicode.ttf',fontFamily='CustomFont',fontWeight='regular', unicodeRange='U+0020-U+0040,U+0041-U+005A,U+005B-U+0060,U+0061-U+007A,U+007B-U+007E,U+0080-U+00FF,U+0100-U+017F,U+0400-U+04FF,U+0370-U+03FF,U+1E00-U+1EFF,U+2022,U+2219,U+20AC-U+21AC', mimeType='application/x-font-truetype' )] public static var MY_FONT_UNICODE:Class; It's working fine for foreign characters, but no special characters (copyright, trademark, euro sign etc) are working. Can anyone help? I've checked my unicode ranges, they should work fine!

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• OpenGL behaving strangely

  - by Mk12

  OpenGL is acting very strangely for some reason. In my subclass of NSOpenGLView, I have the following code in -prepareOpenGL: - (void)prepareOpenGL { GLfloat lightAmbient[] = { 0.5f, 0.5f, 0.5f, 1.0f }; GLfloat lightDiffuse[] = { 1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f }; GLfloat lightPosition[] = { 0.0f, 0.0f, 2.0f }; quality = 0; zCoord = -6; [self loadTextures]; glEnable(GL_LIGHTING); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glShadeModel(GL_SMOOTH); glClearColor(0.2f, 0.2f, 0.2f, 0.0f); glClearDepth(1.0f); glEnable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); glDepthFunc(GL_LEQUAL); glHint(GL_PERSPECTIVE_CORRECTION_HINT, GL_NICEST); glLightfv(GL_LIGHT1, GL_AMBIENT, lightAmbient); glLightfv(GL_LIGHT1, GL_DIFFUSE, lightDiffuse); glLightfv(GL_LIGHT1, GL_POSITION, lightPosition); glEnable(GL_LIGHT1); gameState = kGameStateRunning; int i = 0; // HERE ******** [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.03f target:self selector:@selector(processKeys) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; // Synchronize buffer swaps with vertical refresh rate GLint swapInt = 1; [[self openGLContext] setValues:&swapInt forParameter:NSOpenGLCPSwapInterval]; // Setup and start displayLink [self setupDisplayLink]; } I wanted to assign the timer that processes key input to an ivar so that I could invalidate it when the game is paused (and reinstantiate it on resume), however when I did that (as apposed to leaving it at [NSTimer scheduledTimer…), OpenGL doesn't display the cube I draw. When I take it away, it's fine. So i tried just adding a harmless statement, int i = 0; (maked // HERE *******), and that makes the lighting not work! When I take it away, everything is fine, but when I put it back, everything is dark. Can someone come up with a rational explanation for this? Thanks.

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• CLLocationDistance NaN

  - by Kaspa

  Hi, I'm trying to calculate a distance between two sets of coordinate points in an iPhone application on the fly using - (CLLocationDistance)getDistanceFrom:(const CLLocation *)location I saw that I started getting NaN's in strange places, thus investigated the matter up close, with the following hardcoded values. CLLocationDistance testDistance; placeLocation = [[CLLocation alloc] initWithLatitude:12.236533 longitude:11.011419]; userLocation = [[CLLocation alloc] initWithLatitude:12.236533 longitude:11.011419]; testDistance = [userLocation getDistanceFrom:placeLocation]; if(isnan(testDistance)) NSLog(@"ISNaN!"); [placeLocation release]; [userLocation release]; The above gets called multiple times, and in some situations the testDistance is NaN. I fear I'm missing something very simple here. Anyone have any idea? UPDATE 1: Ok, so I've moved the above code into a new project (put everything in the app delegate), looped it for 100 times and all is fine. This thus suggests that the problem is project related, but this helps very little... since all the variables are in the scope of 1 function. THE SOLUTION: OK, this seems to be a simulator bug. The same code build runs perfectly fine on the device. Case solved.

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• My Rails app is returning HTTP 500 for all its URLs, but nothing shows up in the log file. How can I

  - by mipadi

  I have a Rails app that is running on a production server with Apache and Phusion Passenger. The app works fine locally when using Mongrel, but whenever I try to load a URL on the production server, it returns HTTP 500. I know the server is working properly, because I can get the static elements of the application (e.g., JavaScript files, stylesheets, images) just fine. I've also checked the Passenger status and it is loading the app (it must be, since the app's 500 Internal Server Error page is returned, not just the default Apache one). Also, when I load the app via script/console production and do something like app.get("/"), 500 is also returned. The problem is that there is nothing in the log files to indicate the problem. production.log is empty. The Apache error logs show no problems with Apache, either. I'm stumped as to what's going on and I'm not sure how to diagnose the problem. I know I may have been a bit vague, but can anyone give a suggestion on what the problem may be? Or at least a way I can go about diagnosing it?

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• Applescript from Mac App says "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."

  - by Rasmus Styrk

  I am trying to perform a copy/paste for my to the the last active app, here's my code: NSString *appleScriptSource = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"\ntell application \"%@\" to activate\ntell application \"System Events\" to tell process \"%@\"\nkeystroke \"v\" using command down\nend tell", [lastApp localizedName], [lastApp localizedName]]; NSDictionary *error; NSAppleScript *aScript = [[NSAppleScript alloc] initWithSource:appleScriptSource]; NSAppleEventDescriptor *aDescriptor = [aScript executeAndReturnError:&error]; The problem is that on some computers it works just fine, but on others it fails. My error output from error that is returned by executeAndReturnError is: 2012-06-13 17:43:19.875 Mini Translator[1206:303] (null) (error: { NSAppleScriptErrorBriefMessage = "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."; NSAppleScriptErrorMessage = "Expected end of line but found \U201c\"\U201d."; NSAppleScriptErrorNumber = "-2741"; NSAppleScriptErrorRange = "NSRange: {95, 1}"; }) I can't seem to figure out what it means or why it happens. We tried copying the generated apple-script code into the Apple Script editor, and here it works just fine. My App is sandboxed - i have added the bundle identifiers for the key "com.apple.security.temporary-exception.apple-events" for the apps i want to support. Any suggestions?

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• Outlook 2010 Retrieving and restricting appointments programmatically causing recurrences to be incl

  - by Mike Dearing

  I wrote a winforms app that uses Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook to retrieve and restrict appointments based upon the date range entered by a user. This worked fine with Outlook 2007 installed, however now that some users have updated to Outlook 2010 the appointment retrieval is pulling back incorrect appointments along with the correct ones falling within the specified date range. The additional incorrect appointments being retrieved always appear to be recurring appointments. I was wondering if this is a known bug and if so what exactly is happening that is causing these additional recurring appointments to come in? I'd rather not have to throw in a workaround where I step through the items after they have been restricted and remove the extra ones, when this functionality works fine with 2007. Note: I've not recompiled or updated any code when experiencing this issue, just running the old program. This is the spot in my code where appointments are being restricted. This is similar to the way advised in the following msdn link: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb611267.aspx Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.Items outlookItems = outlookMapiFolder.Items.Restrict( "[Start] >= '" + outlookImport.startDay.ToString("g") + "' AND [Start] <= '" + outlookImport.endDay.ToString("g") + "'"); outlookItems.Sort("[Start]", Type.Missing); outlookItems.IncludeRecurrences = true;

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• How to access empty ASP.NET ListView.ListViewItem to apply a style after all databinding is done?

  - by Caroline S.

  We're using a ListView with a GroupTemplate to create a three-column navigation menu with six items in each column, filling in two non-data-bound rows in the last column with an EmptyItemTemplate that contains an empty HTML list item. That part works fine, but I also need to programmatically add a CSS class to the sixth (last) item in each column. That part is also working fine for the first two columns because I'm assigning the CSS class in the DataBound event, where I can iterate through the ListView.Items collection and access the sixth item in the first two columns by using a modulus operator and counter. The problem comes in the last column, where the EmptyItemTemplate has correctly filled in two empty list items, to the last of which I also need to add this CSS class. The empty items are not included in the ListView.Items collection (that's just ListViewDataItems, and the empty items are ListViewItems). I cannot find a way to access the entire collection of ListViewItems after binding. Am I missing something? I know I can access the empty items during ItemCreated, but I can't figure out how to determine where the item I'm creating falls in the flow, and whether it's the last one. Any help would be appreciated, if this can even be done -- I'm a bit stuck.

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• Clarification needed: How does .NET runtime resolve assembly references from parent folder?

  - by aoven

  I have the following output structure of executables in my solution: %ProgramFiles% | +-[MyAppName] | +-[Client] | | | +-(EXE & several DLL assemblies) | +-[Common] | | | +-[Schema Assemblies] | | | | | +-(several DLL assemblies) | | | +-(several DLL assemblies) | +-[Server] | +-(EXE & several DLL assemblies) Each project in solution references different DLL assemblies, some of which are outputs from other projects in solution, and others are plain 3rd-party assemblies. For example, [Client] EXE might reference an assembly in [Common], which is in a different directory branch. All references have "Copy Local" set to false, to mirror the layout of the files in the final installed application. Now, if I take a look at reference properties in the Visual Studio IDE, I see that "Path" of every reference is absolute and that it corresponds to the actual output location of the assembly. That's understandable and correct. As expected, solution compiles and runs just fine. What I don't understand is, why everything seems to work even when I close the IDE, rename the [MyAppName] directory and run the [Client] EXE manually? How does the runtime find the assemblies if the reference paths aren't the same as they were at the time of linking? To be clear - this is actually exactly what I'm after: a semi-dispersed set of application files that run fine regardless of where the [MyAppName] directory is located or even what it's named. I'd just like to know, how and why this works without any specific path resolution on my part. I've read the answers to this similar question, but I still don't get it. Help much appreciated!

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• WPF, C# - Making Intellisense/Autocomplete list, fastest way to filter list of strings

  - by user559548

  Hello everyone, I'm writing an Intellisense/Autocomplete like the one you find in Visual Studio. It's all fine up until when the list contains probably 2000+ items. I'm using a simple LINQ statement for doing the filtering: var filterCollection = from s in listCollection where s.FilterValue.IndexOf(currentWord, StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase) >= 0 orderby s.FilterValue select s; I then assign this collection to a WPF Listbox's ItemSource, and that's the end of it, works fine. Noting that, the Listbox is also virtualised as well, so there will only be at most 7-8 visual elements in memory and in the visual tree. However the caveat right now is that, when the user types extremely fast in the richtextbox, and on every key up I execute the filtering + binding, there's this semi-race condition, or out of sync filtering, like the first key stroke's filtering could still be doing it's filtering or binding work, while the fourth key stroke is also doing the same. I know I could put in a delay before applying the filter, but I'm trying to achieve a seamless filtering much like the one in Visual Studio. I'm not sure where my problem exactly lies, so I'm also attributing it to IndexOf's string operation, or perhaps my list of string's could be optimised in some kind of index, that could speed up searching. Any suggestions of code samples are much welcomed. Thanks.

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• Emulate domready event with a custom event (mootools)

  - by Rob

  I need to fire a one time only custom event that functions like the domready event, in that if new events are added after the event has occurred they are fired immediately. This is for some code that cannot execute until certain data and resources are initialized, so I want to do something like this: // I am including a script (loadResources.js) to load data and other resources, // when loadResources.js is done doing it's thing it will fire resourcesAreLoaded with: window.fireEvent('resourcesAreLoaded'); window.addEvent('resourcesAreLoaded', function() { // this is fine }); $('mybutton').addEvent('click', function() { window.addEvent('resourcesAreLoaded', function() { // this is not fine, because resourcesAreLoaded has already fired // by the time the button is clicked }); }); If possible I would like resourcesAreLoaded to function like domready, and execute the code immediately if the event has already fired: window.addEvent('testIsReady', function() { alert('firing test'); }); window.fireEvent('testIsReady'); window.addEvent('test', function() { // this will never execute unless I call fireEvent('testIsReady') again alert('test 2'); }); window.addEvent('domready', function() { alert('domready is firing'); }); window.addEvent('domready', function() { setTimeout(function() { alert('domready has already fired, so this is executed immediately'); }, 500); });

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• unable to place breakpoints in eclipse

  - by anjanb

  I am using eclipse europa (3.5) on windows vista home premium 64-bit using JDK 1.6.0_18 (32 BIT). Normally, I am able to put breakpoints just fine; However, for a particular class which is NOT part of the project (this class is inside a .JAR file (.JAR file is part of the project) ), although I have attached a source directory to this .JAR file, I am unable to place a breakpoint in this class. If I double-click on the breakpoint pane(left border), I notice that a class breakpoint is placed. I was wondering if there was NO debug info; However, found that this particular class was compiled using ant/javac task using debug="true" and debuglevel="lines,vars,source". I even ran jad on this class to confirm that it indeed contained the debug info. So, why is eclipse preventing me from placing a breakpoint ? EDIT : Just so everyone understands the context, this is a webapp running under tomcat 6.0. I am remote debugging the application from eclipse after having started tomcat outside. The application is working just fine. I am trying to understand the behavior of the above class which I'm unable to do since eclipse is not letting me set a BP. P.S : I saw a few threads here talking about BPs not being hit but in my case, I am unable to place the BP! P.P.S : I tried JDK 1.6.0_16 before trying out 1.6.0_18. Thanks for any pointers.

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• 32 bit dllimport generating incorrect format error (0x8007000b) on win7 x64 platform

  - by DFP

  Hello, I'm trying to install and run a 32 bit application on a Win7 x64 machine. The application is built as a Win32 app. It runs fine on 32 bit platforms. On the x64 machine it installs correctly in the Programs(x86) directory and runs fine until I make a call into a 32 bit dll. At that time I get the incorrect format error (0x8007000b) indicating it is trying to load the dll of the wrong bitness. Indeed it is trying to load the 64 bit dll from the System32 directory rather than the 32 bit version in the SystemWOW64 directory. Another 32 bit application provided by the dll vendor runs correctly and it does load the 32 bit dll from the SystemWOW64 directory. I do not have source to their application to see how they are accessing the DLL. I'm using the DllImport function as shown below to access the dll. Is there a way to decorate the DllImport calls to force it to load the 32 bit version? Any thoughts appreciated. Thanks, DP public static class Micronas { [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern short UacBuildDeviceList(uint uFlags); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern short UacGetNumberOfDevices(); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacGetFirstDevice(); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacGetNextDevice(uint handle); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public static extern uint UacSetXDFP(uint handle, short adr, uint data); [DllImport(@"UAC2.DLL")] public unsafe static extern uint UacGetXDFP(uint handle, short adr, IntPtr data); }

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• Web Servicet Client in JBOSS 5.1 with JDK6

  - by dcp

  This is a continuation of the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435286/jboss-does-app-have-to-be-compiled-under-same-jdk-as-jboss-is-running-under It's different enough though that it required a new question. I am trying to use jdk6 to run JBOSS 5.1, and I downloaded the JDK6 version of JBOSS 5.1. This works fine and my EAR application deploys fine. However, when I want to run a web service client with code like this: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("creating the web service client..."); TestClient client = new TestClient("http://localhost:8080/tc_test_project-tc_test_project/TestBean?wsdl"); Test service = client.getTestPort(); System.out.println("calling service.retrieveAll() using the service client"); List<TestEntity> list = service.retrieveAll(); System.out.println("the number of elements in list retrieved using the client is " + list.size()); } I get the following exception: javax.xml.ws.WebServiceException: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: setProperty must be overridden by all subclasses of SOAPMessage at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.handleRemoteException(ClientImpl.java:396) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.invoke(ClientImpl.java:302) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:170) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:150) Now, here's the really interesting part. If I change the JDK that my the code above is running under from JDK6 to JDK5, the exception above goes away! It's really strange. The only way I found for the code above to run under JDK6 was to take the JBOSS_HOME/lib/endorsed folder and copy it to JDK6_HOME/lib. This seems like it shouldn't be necessary, but it is. Is there any other way to make this work other than using the workaround I just described?

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• Passing data to a non-static listBox, by calling function from another class

  - by Andrew A

  I have a simple forms program that I have been fighting with for a while now. I simply want to be able to call a method from a different class file (when a certain step is triggered in the code in that class file) in order to insert a string in the listBox. Here is my main method, pretty standard: class Program { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new MainForm()); } } Here is the function which resides in my MainForm.cs file, which I can call just fine from that class file (via 'TextToBox(myString);'): public partial class MainForm : Form { ... // Function to output results to main Listbox window public void TextToBox(string aString) { // Place messages in Main Display list box window this.listBox1.Items.Insert(0, aString); } ... } But my problem is when I am in another class and I want to call 'TextToBox(myString);'. If I create another object reference of the MainForm, the code compiles fine but nothing will show up in the listBox. How do I do this? I cannot simply make TextToBox() static. I know I must create the object reference but I can't figure out how to reference the ORIGINAL MainForm, the one that was created in the Main method. Thanks in advance...

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• Why can't I Bind a viewmodel property to a dependency property of a custom control

  - by Robert

  I want to use a color picker in my wpf application and I saw a nice looking one on this codeproject page. The control works fine until I want to connect the control to a viewmodel. I created a small test program with this viewmodel: public class ColorViewModel : ViewModelBase { public ColorViewModel() { LineColor = Brushes.Yellow; } SolidColorBrush _brushColor; public SolidColorBrush LineColor { get { return _brushColor; } set { _brushColor = value; RaisePropertyChanged(() => LineColor); } } } The test program has a textbox and the colorpicker controls: <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="Please Select a Color" FontWeight="Bold" Margin="10" Foreground="{Binding Path=LineColor, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}"/> <vw:ColorPickerControlView x:Name="ForeColorPicker" Margin="10" CurrentColor="{Binding Path=LineColor, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged }"/> </StackPanel> In the loaded event of the window I set the viewmodel to the datacontext like this: DataContext = new ColorViewModel(); The problem is that I can't seem to bind the LineColor property of the viewmodel to the CurrentColor property of the ColorPickerControlView. The CurrentControl property of the ColorPickerControlView seems to be fine. The constructor looks like this: public ColorPickerControlView() { this.DataContext = this; InitializeComponent(); CommandBindings.Add(new CommandBinding(SelectColorCommand, SelectColorCommandExecute)); } In the constructor of the UserControl there is the line this.DataContext = this; I read that is is necessary to bind the dependency properties. Do I override this line when I set my viewmodel to the datacontext and is that why I can't bind to the CurrentColor property? Is there any workaround? Or did I make another mistake?

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• Forwarding first responder to UIScrollView unsuccessful

  - by Winston

  Hello, I am trying to create an image cropping bpx whereby the underlying image can be zoomed an scrolled while the cropping "maskview" layer stays the same and the corners can be dragged in any direction. To achieve this, the ImageView is added to a UIScrollView, and this is added to the SelectionViewController.view . I then add the cropping "maskview" layer to the SelectionViewController.view. I did this instead of adding to the scrollview so that the cropping maskview won't be expanded when the underlying image expands. @interface SelectionViewController : UIViewController <UIScrollViewDelegate> { UIImageView *photoview; // Added to self.scrollview MaskedView *maskedview; // Added to self.view UIScrollView *scrollview; // Added to self.view } The maskview has first responder status and responds accordingly. However, the only event I am interested in the maskview is if any of the corners are dragged (this works fine). The problem I want to try to solve is two-fold: If it is a pinch or zoom gesture, I am trying to forward the responder to the UIScrollview using: [self.nextResponder touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; The scrollview does not seem to respond. I have confirmed that the self.nextResponder after the maskedview is the SelectionViewController's view itself. From there, it doesn't seem like the UIScrollview responds. It does respond fine if I remove the cropping maskedview. If I zoom in on the underlying image and the cropping maskview rectangle is still the same, I want to now crop the actual zoomed image. Let's say for the upper left hand corner of the crop box, how can I find what the coordinates translates to in the underlying UIImageView now that the image has been zoomed? Any insight into either of these questions would be appreciated. Thank you, Winston

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• instantiate python object within a c function called via ctypes

  - by gwk

  My embedded Python 3.3 program segfaults when I instantiate python objects from a c function called by ctypes. After setting up the interpreter, I can successfully instantiate a python Int (as well as a custom c extension type) from c main: #import <Python/Python.h> #define LOGPY(x) \ { fprintf(stderr, "%s: ", #x); PyObject_Print((PyObject*)(x), stderr, 0); fputc('\n', stderr); } // c function to be called from python script via ctypes. void instantiate() { PyObject* instance = PyObject_CallObject((PyObject*)&PyLong_Type, NULL); LOGPY(instance); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Py_Initialize(); instantiate(); // works fine // run a script that calls instantiate() via ctypes. FILE* scriptFile = fopen("emb.py", "r"); if (!scriptFile) { fprintf(stderr, "ERROR: cannot open script file\n"); return 1; } PyRun_SimpleFileEx(scriptFile, scriptPath, 1); // close on completion return 0; } I then run a python script using PyRun_SimpleFileEx. It appears to run just fine, but when it calls instantiate() via ctypes, the program segfaults inside PyObject_CallObject: import ctypes as ct dy = ct.CDLL('./emb') dy.instantiate() # segfaults lldb output: instance: 0 Process 52068 stopped * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 Python`PyObject_Call + 69: -> 0x10000d3f5: movl 24(%rax), %edx 0x10000d3f8: incl %edx 0x10000d3fa: movl %edx, 24(%rax) 0x10000d3fd: leaq 2069148(%rip), %rax ; _Py_CheckRecursionLimit (lldb) bt * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 frame #1: 0x00000001000d5197 Python`PyEval_CallObjectWithKeywords + 87 frame #2: 0x0000000201100d8e emb`instantiate + 30 at emb.c:9 Why does the call to instantiate() fail from ctypes only? The function only crashes when it calls into the python lib, so perhaps some interpreter state is getting munged by the ctypes FFI call?

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• CorePlot linker errors after upgrading iOS SDK

  - by JustinXXVII

  This seems like it's happened before but somehow ended up working itself out. It's happened again and I can't seem to get this fixed. I use the CorePlot Cocoa Touch framework. Everything was fine until I upgraded to the new 4.3 beta. Now my project won't compile, and is giving me linker errors for unknown symbols having to do with CorePlot. I've become a pro at adding the framework to my project, and I've checked and rechecked the instructions trying to do it again. Is there a button I can click or anything to just make this work again? I've used these instructions to try to re-add the framework, to no avail EDIT: By the way, this compiles just fine for simulator and runs graphs no problem. Compiling for the device gives me the linker errors, as follows: "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPPlotRange", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPXYGraph", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPTextStyle", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPLineStyle", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPScatterPlot", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPAxisLabel", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPPlotSymbol", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPColor", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPFill", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_CPDecimalFromFloat", referenced from: -[GraphStatsWindow setNewGraph] in GraphStatsWindow.o -[iPadGraphView viewDidLoad] in iPadGraphView.o -[GraphTrendView setNewGraph] in GraphTrendView.o "_kCPPlainWhiteTheme", referenced from: -[GraphStatsWindow setNewGraph] in GraphStatsWindow.o -[iPadGraphView viewDidLoad] in iPadGraphView.o -[GraphTrendView setNewGraph] in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPTheme", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o ld: symbol(s) not found for architecture armv7

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• Timer a usage in msp430 in high compiler optimization mode

  - by Vishal

  Hi, I have used timer A in MSP430 with high compiler optimization, but found that my timer code is failing when high compiler optimization used. When none optimization is used code works fine. This code is used to achieve 1 ms timer tick. timeOutCNT is increamented in interrupt. Following is the code, //Disable interrupt and clear CCR0 TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0; // timer interrupt flag disabled CCTL0 = CCIE; // CCR0 interrupt enabled CCR0 = 500; TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIE; //enable timer interrupt TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIFG; //enable timer interrupt TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL + MC_1 + ID_3; // SMCLK, upmode timeOutCNT = 0; //timeOutCNT is increased in timer interrupt while(timeOutCNT <= 1); //delay of 1 milisecond TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0x00; // timer interrupt flag disabled Can anybody help me here to resolve this issue? Is there any other way we can use timer A so it works fine in optimization modes? Or do I have used is wrongly to achieve 1 ms interrupt? Thanks in advanced. Vishal N

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• Update Related Entity Of Detached Entity

  - by Hemslingo

  I'm having an issue updating an entity with multiple related entities. I've got a very simple model which consists of an article entity and a list of categories the article can be related to. You can choose from a check box list which of these categories are associated to it...which works fine. The problem crops up when I actually come to update an existing entity using the dbContext. As I am updating this entity, I have already detached it from the context ready to re-attach it later so the update can execute properly. I can see that after I posting the model, the category(s) are being added to the article entity just fine and it looks like it updates in the repository with no errors occurring. When I look in the database the article has updated as normal but the category(s) have not. Here is my (simplified) update code... public virtual bool Attach(T entity) { _dbContext.Entry(entity).State = EntityState.Modified; _dbSet.Attach(entity); return this.Commit(); } Any help will be much appreciated.

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• csc.exe not found error

  - by pokrate

  I have installed a fresh copy of windows xp 2002 with SP2, and then VS.net 2008 enterprise edition. I am trying to build a simplest possible web application, and its not compiling giving error csc.exe not found. I googled a lot, and spot the problem in the following section in web.config : <system.codedom> <compilers> <compiler language="c#;cs;csharp" extension=".cs" warningLevel="4" type="Microsoft.CSharp.CSharpCodeProvider, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"> <providerOption name="CompilerVersion" value="v3.5"/> <providerOption name="WarnAsError" value="false"/> </compiler> <compiler language="vb;vbs;visualbasic;vbscript" extension=".vb" warningLevel="4" type="Microsoft.VisualBasic.VBCodeProvider, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"> <providerOption name="CompilerVersion" value="v3.5"/> <providerOption name="OptionInfer" value="true"/> <providerOption name="WarnAsError" value="false"/> </compiler> </compilers> </system.codedom> But if i remove the csharp compiler section , and then compile, it compiles fine with vb compiler section. And if I change the value from v3.5 to v2.0 in the of csharp section, then also it compiles fine. But then all my Linq Queries are not recognized by the compiler. But System.Linq and all classes present in it are accessible in the code. Please help in this weird behavior.

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• What is default javac source mode (assert as identifier compilation)?

  - by waste

  According to Orcale's Java7 assert guide: source mode 1.3 (default) — the compiler accepts programs that use assert as an identifier, but issues warnings. In this mode, programs are not permitted to use the assert statement. source mode 1.4 — the compiler generates an error message if the program uses assert as an identifier. In this mode, programs are permitted to use the assert statement. I wrote such class: package mm; public class ClassTest { public static void main(String[] arg) { int assert = 1; System.out.println(assert); } } It should compile fine if Oracle's info right (1.3 is default source mode). But I got errors like this: $ javac -version javac 1.7.0_04 $ javac -d bin src/mm/* src\mm\ClassTest.java:5: error: as of release 1.4, 'assert' is a keyword, and may not be used as an identifier int assert = 1; ^ (use -source 1.3 or lower to use 'assert' as an identifier) src\mm\ClassTest.java:6: error: as of release 1.4, 'assert' is a keyword, and may not be used as an identifier System.out.println(assert); ^ (use -source 1.3 or lower to use 'assert' as an identifier) 2 errors I added manually -source 1.3 and it issued warnings but compiled fine. It seems that Oracle's information is wrong and 1.3 is not default source mode. Which one is it then?

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• Is 1/0 a legal Java expression?

  - by polygenelubricants

  The following compiles fine in my Eclipse: final int j = 1/0; // compiles fine!!! // throws ArithmeticException: / by zero at run-time Java prevents many "dumb code" from even compiling in the first place (e.g. "Five" instanceof Number doesn't compile!), so the fact this didn't even generate as much as a warning was very surprising to me. The intrigue deepens when you consider the fact that constant expressions are allowed to be optimized at compile time: public class Div0 { public static void main(String[] args) { final int i = 2+3; final int j = 1/0; final int k = 9/2; } } Compiled in Eclipse, the above snippet generates the following bytecode (javap -c Div0) Compiled from "Div0.java" public class Div0 extends java.lang.Object{ public Div0(); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokespecial #8; //Method java/lang/Object."<init>":()V 4: return public static void main(java.lang.String[]); Code: 0: iconst_5 1: istore_1 // "i = 5;" 2: iconst_1 3: iconst_0 4: idiv 5: istore_2 // "j = 1/0;" 6: iconst_4 7: istore_3 // "k = 4;" 8: return } As you can see, the i and k assignments are optimized as compile-time constants, but the division by 0 (which must've been detectable at compile-time) is simply compiled as is. javac 1.6.0_17 behaves even more strangely, compiling silently but excising the assignments to i and k completely out of the bytecode (probably because it determined that they're not used anywhere) but leaving the 1/0 intact (since removing it would cause an entirely different program semantics). So the questions are: Is 1/0 actually a legal Java expression that should compile anytime anywhere? What does JLS say about it? If this is legal, is there a good reason for it? What good could this possibly serve?

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• file upload working in one and not the other help

  - by rod

  Hi All, I have a web application which has 2 different versions deployed. 1 is a ASP.Net web forms version and the other is an ASP.Net MVC version I have a File Upload page which dynamically creates a directory folder for the target location of the file to be uploaded to. The application is using Forms Authentication for outside users and Integrated Windows Authentication for inside the network users. I have an issue where a user can upload a file in the ASP.Net Web Forms version fine. But when the same user tries to upload the file in the MVC version the user gets a File.IO permission error. Here's a kicker: I can upload the same file in both versions. The user is in a remote location but I believe they're still inside the network because they can work on the other parts of the application just fine. Possible clues: In the event log there's an info that says Event code:4005 Forms authentication failed for the request. Reason: Ticket supplied was invalid. What would be your initial thoughts on why this is happening? Thanks, Rod.

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