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  • C++ ulong to class method pointer and back

    - by Simone Margaritelli
    Hi guys, I'm using a hash table (source code by Google Inc) to store some method pointers defined as: typedef Object *(Executor::*expression_delegate_t)( vframe_t *, Node * ); Where obviously "Executor" is the class. The function prototype to insert some value to the hash table is: hash_item_t *ht_insert( hash_table_t *ht, ulong key, ulong data ); So basically i'm doing the insert double casting the method pointer: ht_insert( table, ASSIGN, reinterpret_cast<ulong>( (void *)&Executor::onAssign ) ); Where table is defined as a 'hash_table_t *' inside the declaration of the Executor class, ASSIGN is an unsigned long value, and 'onAssign' is the method I have to map. Now, Executor::onAssign is stored as an unsigned long value, its address in memory I think, and I need to cast back the ulong to a method pointer. But this code: hash_item_t* item = ht_find( table, ASSIGN ); expression_delegate_t delegate = reinterpret_cast < expression_delegate_t > (item->data); Gives me the following compilation error : src/executor.cpp:45: error: invalid cast from type ‘ulong’ to type ‘Object* (Executor::*)(vframe_t*, Node*)’ I'm using GCC v4.4.3 on a x86 GNU/Linux machine. Any hints?

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  • C++ Macro Arithmetric

    - by anon
    I have to do with Macros (it's macros calling macros; so templates are out of the question). Here's what I want: foo(3, a, b1, c1) --> foo1(a, b1, c1); foo(5, a, b1, c1, b2, c2) -> foo2(a, b1, c1, b2, c2); foo(7, a, b1, c1, b2, c2, b3, c3) -> foo3(a, b1, c1, b2, c2, b3, c3); So basically, what I want is to be able to execute the "function" n - (n-1)/2 at macro expansion time. Is this possible? Thanks! [PS, if you dislike my questions; I support your right to downvote; my worst question so far is only -17, so maybe we can break that record; however, please let me know why my question is technically invalid.] Thanks EDIT: Foo takes a variable # of arguments, of the form: foo(N, a1, b1, a2, b2, ... a_N, b_N) -> foo##N(a1, b1, a2, b2, ... a_N, b_N);

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  • Fluent NHibernate - Set reference key columns to null

    - by Matt
    Hi, I have a table of Appointments and a table of AppointmentOutcomes. On my Appointments table I have an OutcomeID field which has a foreign key to AppointmentOutcomes. My Fluent NHibernate mappings look as follows; Table("Appointments"); Not.LazyLoad(); Id(c => c.ID).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(c => c.Subject); Map(c => c.StartTime); References(c => c.Outcome, "OutcomeID"); Table("AppointmentOutcomes"); Not.LazyLoad(); Id(c => c.ID).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(c => c.Description); Using NHibernate, if I delete an AppointmentOutcome an exception is thrown because the foreign key is invalid. What I would like to happen is that deleting an AppointmentOutcome would automatically set the OutcomeID of any Appointments that reference the AppointmentOutcome to NULL. Is this possible using Fluent NHibernate?

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  • Checkbox not checkable in dialog ui

    - by Sable Foste
    I am trying to solve a z-index problem with the jQuery UI Dialog, similar to question Can't select or deselect checkboxes inside jQuery UI Modal Dialog , knowing there is a bug report out there. So in trying to up the z-index as recommended, I added the following code: $('#interface').click(function(evform){ $('#interface').prop('z-index')=99999; }); where the chrome and firefox console.log states: Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment HOWEVER, despite the error, the checkbox now works (throwing the console error every time). If I remove the offending line, the checkbox becomes "unclickable". How can I properly code this? My HTML: <div id="dialog" title="Loading..."> <p id="interface">Loading...</p> </div> (by the way, I tried adding inline style to the <p>, and it didn't work: <p id="interface" style="z-index:99999">Loading...</p> And with AJAX, I replace the contents of '#interface' with valid checkbox html such as: <label for="right"> <input name="right" type="checkbox"> </label> and I have the usual jQuery/Dialog UI files included. One final note, I tried to get creative, since this wasn't working and manually switch the checkbox by: if ($(evform.target).prop('type')=="checkbox"){ $(evform.target).checked; } Thank you to anyone willing to help me figure this out!

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  • Why can't I create an abstract constructor on an abstract C# class?

    - by Anthony D
    I am creating an abstract class. I want each of my derived classes to be forced to implement a specific signature of constructor. As such, I did what I would have done has I wanted to force them to implement a method, I made an abstract one. public abstract class A { abstract A(int a, int b); } However I get a message saying the abstract modifier is invalid on this item. My goal was to force some code like this. public class B : A { public B(int a, int b) : base(a, b) { //Some other awesome code. } } This is all C# .NET code. Can anyone help me out? Update 1 I wanted to add some things. What I ended up with was this. private A() { } protected A(int a, int b) { //Code } That does what some folks are saying, default is private, and the class needs to implement a constructor. However that doesn't FORCE a constructor with the signature A(int a, int b). public abstract class A { protected abstract A(int a, int b) { } } Update 2 I should be clear, to work around this I made my default constructor private, and my other constructor protected. I am not really looking for a way to make my code work. I took care of that. I am looking to understand why C# does not let you do this.

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  • ID3DXAnimationController.RegisterAnimationSet - How exactly is this supposed to work?

    - by TrespassersW
    I have a mesh file that contains the skinned mesh that I want, and then a bunch of separate animation files that contain various AnimationSets. I'd like to have my program dynamically build the list of AnimationSets available to a mesh at run-time. I know I can combine these into one mesh file using MView, but that isn't practical for what I'm planning. I thought this would be pretty simple since ID3DXAnimationController.RegisterAnimationSet seems like it exists to do exactly this and the MView mesh viewer program can do this. But when I call RegisterAnimationSet using an animation from a different file, it fails with an unhelpful Invalid Call return value. Both the skinned mesh and the animation were exported from the same 3DS file, so I'm pretty certain that they are compatible. Here's my code: var anim : ID3DXAnimationSet; am : IDxAnimMesh; begin fAnim := ResMgr.AnimFetch('man01.x'); am := ResMgr.AnimFetch('a_rigtest.x'); DXCheck(am.Controller.GetAnimationSet(0,anim)); DXCheck(fAnim.Controller.RegisterAnimationSet(anim)); end; The file "man01.x" contains a default animation. And "a_rigtest.x" contains an animation exported from a different portion of the timeline fromt the same 3DS file. So it seems like they should be compatible. MView combines them with no trouble. Am I doing something wrong? Does anyone know how this is supposed to work? Or better yet, does anyone know where I could find the source code to MView? Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Problem in homemade function to merge objects

    - by Eric
    I'm trying to make a function that merges arrays. The reason is, I have a function that supposed to get the settings of an entity, and merge them with the global defaults. //So for example, let's say globalOptions is something like this var globalOptions={opt1:'foo',opt2:'something'}; //and this is entityOptions var entityOptions={opt1:'foofoo',opt2:null}; The only difference is it has objects in objects and objects in objects in objects, so what I made was a function that loops through all objects, thinking I would later, easily be able to loop through it all. Please ignore the array thing. That is defected, but unneeded. function loopObj(obj, call, where, objcall, array) { if ($.isArray(obj) || $.isPlainObject(obj)) { for (i in obj) { if ($.isArray(obj)) { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = i, true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'['+i+']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } else { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = parseInt(i), true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'[\''+i+'\']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } } } else { return call(obj,where); } } Then I made this program to convert it: function mergeObj(a,b) { temp.retd = new Object(); loopObj(a,function (c,d) { if (c) { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=c; } else { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=eval(d.replace('%par%','b')); } },'%par%', true); return temp.retd(); } I get the error: Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment (anonymous function)base.js:51 loopObjbase.js:40 loopObjbase.js:31 mergeObjbase.js:46 (anonymous function)base.js:72 I know what it means, the eval returns an anonomys variable (copy of the variable), so I can't set it, only get it.

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  • How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

    - by andnil
    When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

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  • How can you exclude a large number of records in a cross db query using LINQ2SQL?

    - by tap
    So here is my situation: I have a vendor supplied DB we cannot modify and a custom db that imports data from the vendor app and acts on it. Once records are imported form the vendor app, they cannot appear on the list of records to be imported. Also we only want to display the 250 most recent records that have not been imported. What I originally started with was select the list of ids that have been imported from the custom db, and then query the vendor db, using the list of ids in a .Where(x = !idList.Contains(x.Id)) clause on the remote query. This worked up until we broke 2100 records imported into the custom db, as 2100 is the limit on the number of parameters that can be passed into SQL. After finding out this was the actual problem and not the 'invalid buffer'/'severe error' ADO.Net reported, my solution was to remove the first 2000 ids in the remote query, and then remove the remaining records in the local query. Having to pull back a large number of irrelevant records, just to exclude them, so I can get the correct 250 records seems very inelegant. Is there a better way to do this, short of doing a cross db stored procedure? Thanks in advance.

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  • Refactoring Rspec specs

    - by Steve Weet
    I am trying to cleanup my specs as they are becoming extremely repetitive. I have the following spec describe "Countries API" do it "should render a country list" do co1 = Factory(:country) co2 = Factory(:country) result = invoke :GetCountryList, "empty_auth" result.should be_an_instance_of(Api::GetCountryListReply) result.status.should be_an_instance_of(Api::SoapStatus) result.status.code.should eql 0 result.status.errors.should be_an_instance_of Array result.status.errors.length.should eql 0 result.country_list.should be_an_instance_of Array result.country_list.first.should be_an_instance_of(Api::Country) result.country_list.should have(2).items end it_should_behave_like "All Web Services" it "should render a non-zero status for an invalid request" end The block of code that checks the status will appear in all of my specs for 50-60 APIs. My first thought was to move that to a method and that refactoring certainly makes things much drier as follows :- def status_should_be_valid(status) status.should be_an_instance_of(Api::SoapStatus) status.code.should eql 0 status.errors.should be_an_instance_of Array status.errors.length.should eql 0 end describe "Countries API" do it "should render a country list" do co1 = Factory(:country) co2 = Factory(:country) result = invoke :GetCountryList, "empty_auth" result.should be_an_instance_of(Api::GetCountryListReply) status_should_be_valid(result.status) result.country_list.should be_an_instance_of Array result.country_list.first.should be_an_instance_of(Api::Country) result.country_list.should have(2).items end end This works however I can not help feeling that this is not the "right" way to do it and I should be using shared specs, however looking at the method for defining shared specs I can not easily see how I would refactor this example to use a shared spec. How would I do this with shared specs and without having to re-run the relatively costly block at the beginning namely co1 = Factory(:country) co2 = Factory(:country) result = invoke :GetCountryList, "empty_auth"

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  • With lots of help, I have gotten this android class activity down to only one error. Eclipse aks for me to add ")" ,"}", and ";" why though?

    - by AndroidNewb
    package com.android.drinksonme; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.view.View.OnClickListener; import android.widget.Button; import android.widget.EditText; import android.widget.TextView; public class Screen2 extends Activity { // Declare our Views, so we can access them later private EditText etUsername; private EditText etPassword; private Button btnLogin; private Button btnSignUp; private TextView lblResult; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); // Get the EditText and Button References etUsername = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.username); etPassword = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.password); btnLogin = (Button)findViewById(R.id.login_button); btnSignUp = (Button)findViewById(R.id.signup_button); lblResult = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.result); btnLogin.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener () { String username = etUsername.getText().toString(); String password = etPassword.getText().toString(); public void onClick(View v){ if(username.equals("test") && password.equals("test")){ Intent i = new Intent(Screen2.this, DrinksTwitter.class); startActivity(i);} else lblResult.setText("Invalid username or password."); } /* final Intent k = new Intent(Screen2.this, SignUp.class); btnSignUp.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { startActivity(k); }*/ } ); } }

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  • jQuery Validation Plugin ErrorPlacement inside two different elements

    - by Andy Poquette
    I'm trying to place separate error messages in separate elements when validating a large form. The form is divided into jQueryUI tabs, then accordions. When there is an error in an element of a tab, I want to append a red exclamation point to the name of the tab, and if the error is in an accordion element, I also want to append the red exclamation point to the name of the accordion element. Subsequently, when the errors are corrected, I would like those red ! to be removed (exactly as the error message beneath the invalid field is removed. So: Tab1 Tab2 Accordion1 Accordion2 Tab3 If the elements in accordion 2 have an error, I want to append a red ! to accordion2 and tab2: Tab1 Tab2! Accordion1 Accordion2! Tab3 Then remove when the elements successfully validate. I've been trying forever, but I can't figure out how to conditionally change the errorElement (a label won't work for the tab and accordion, but is perfect for the actual element)... Hopefully this makes sense, and thanks for any input you can provide.

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  • Rails: update_attribute vs update_attributes

    - by Sam
    Object.update_attribute(:only_one_field, "Some Value") Object.update_attributes(:field1 => "value", :field2 => "value2", :field3 => "value3") Both of these will update an object without having to explicitly tell AR to update. Rails API says: for update_attribute Updates a single attribute and saves the record without going through the normal validation procedure. This is especially useful for boolean flags on existing records. The regular update_attribute method in Base is replaced with this when the validations module is mixed in, which it is by default. for update_attributes Updates all the attributes from the passed-in Hash and saves the record. If the object is invalid, the saving will fail and false will be returned. So if I don't want to have the object validated I should use update_attribute. What if I have this update on a before_save, will it stackoverflow? My question is does update_attribute also bypass the before save or just the validation. Also, what is the correct syntax to pass a hash to update_attributes... check out my example at the top.

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  • Else statement crashes when i enter a letter for a cin << int value

    - by TimothyTech
    Alright, i have a question, i veered away from using strings for selection so now i use an integer.when the user enters a number then the game progresses. if they enter a wrong character it SHOULD give the else statement, however if i enter a letter or character the system goes into an endless loop effect then crashes. is there a way to give the else statement even if the user defies the variable's type. // action variable; int c_action: if (c_action == 1){ // enemy attack and user attack with added effect buffer. /////////////////////////////////////////////////////// u_attack = userAttack(userAtk, weapons); enemyHP = enemyHP - u_attack; cout << " charging at the enemy you do " << u_attack << "damage" << endl; e_attack = enemyAttack(enemyAtk); userHP = userHP - e_attack; cout << "however he lashes back causing you to have " << userHP << "health left " << endl << endl << endl << endl; //end of ATTACK ACTION }else{ cout << "invalid actions" << endl; goto ACTIONS; }

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  • Trouble with jQuery Form Validation

    - by Sennheiser
    I'm making a form that has the following validation rules: no fields are "required", but if you enter an email, it must be valid, and if you enter a password, it must be at least 6 characters and match the confirm password field value. The form works flawlessly with no validation so I know it's not a PHP or HTML problem. Here's the jQuery code handling the form: $('#success').hide(); $('#pwerror').hide(); $('#emailError').hide(); $('#subSet').live('click',function() { //if any of the fields have a value if($("#chfn").val() != "" || $("#chln").val() != "" || $("#chpw").val() != "" || $("#chpw2").val() != "" || $("#chem").val() != "") { $ev = 1; $pv = 1; //validates an email if there is one, trips the valid variable flag if($("#chem").val() != "") { $("#profSet").validate({ rules: { chem: { email: true }, chpw: { required: false, minlength: 6 }, chpw2: { required: false, minlength: 6, equalTo: $("#chpw").val() } }, messages:{ chpw2: { equalTo: "Passwords must be the same." }, chpw: { minlength: "Password must be at least 6 characters." } } }); if(!($("#profSet").valid())) { $ev = 0; } } //if either password field is filled, start trying to validate it if($("#chpw").val() != "" || $("#chpw2").val() != "") { if(!($("#profSet").valid())) { $pv = 0; } } //if those two were valid if($pv == 1 && $ev == 1) { $.post('php/profSet.php', $('#profSet').serialize(), function(){ $('#profSet').hide(); $('#success').show(); }); } //if either was invalid, the error was already tripped, and this code exits here } }); The problem I'm having now is that the "passwords must be the same" error keeps getting triggered even if both fields are blank, or if they actually are the same. Therefore, the form cannot submit. Any help?

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  • Problem with RSA-encrypting a string in PHP and passing it to .NET service

    - by jonasaxelsson
    I need to call a web service that requires a login url containing an RSA encrypted, base_64 encoded and url-encoded login data. I don't have a formal php training, but even for me it seems like an easy task, however when calling the service I get an 'Invalid Format' response. What am I doing wrong and is there another way to come up with the encrypted string? Code example below. Thank you for your help! http://www.edsko.net/misc/ for encryption. $message = '?id=112233&param1=hello&[email protected]&name=Name'; $keyLength = '2048'; $exponent = '65537'; $modulus = '837366556729991345239927764652........'; $encryptedData = rsa_encrypt($message, $exponent, $modulus, $keyLength); $data = urlencode(base64_encode($encryptedData)); $loginurl = 'http://www.somedomain.com/LoginWB.aspx?Id=9876&Data='.$data; echo '<iframe src="'.$loginurl.'" width="570px" height="800px">'; echo '</iframe>'; ?

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  • Is safe ( documented behaviour? ) to delete the domain of an iterator in execution

    - by PoorLuzer
    I wanted to know if is safe ( documented behaviour? ) to delete the domain space of an iterator in execution in Python. Consider the code: import os import sys sampleSpace = [ x*x for x in range( 7 ) ] print sampleSpace for dx in sampleSpace: print str( dx ) if dx == 1: del sampleSpace[ 1 ] del sampleSpace[ 3 ] elif dx == 25: del sampleSpace[ -1 ] print sampleSpace 'sampleSpace' is what I call 'the domain space of an iterator' ( if there is a more appropriate word/phrase, lemme know ). What I am doing is deleting values from it while the iterator 'dx' is running through it. Here is what I expect from the code : Iteration versus element being pointed to (*): 0: [*0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36] 1: [0, *1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36] ( delete 2nd and 5th element after this iteration ) 2: [0, 4, *9, 25, 36] 3: [0, 4, 9, *25, 36] ( delete -1th element after this iteration ) 4: [0, 4, 9, 25*] ( as the iterator points to nothing/end of list, the loop terminates ) .. and here is what I get: [0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36] 0 1 9 25 [0, 4, 9, 25] As you can see - what I expect is what I get - which is contrary to the behaviour I have had from other languages in such a scenario. Hence - I wanted to ask you if there is some rule like "the iterator becomes invalid if you mutate its space during iteration" in Python? Is it safe ( documented behaviour? ) in Python to do stuff like this?

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  • How can I programmatically get the connection status of OSX network services?

    - by BigBrainz
    In the OS X System Preferences, when I click on 'Network' I see a green dot by 'Ethernet', and red dots by 'AirPort' and 'FireWire'. This is because I turned off AirPort and FireWire, as I access networks and the Internet via Ethernet. I need to programmatically determine which of these network services displayed in System Preferences have green dots and which have red dots. For Ethernet and FireWire the displayed status is 'Connected' or 'Not Connected', and for AirPort the displayed status is 'On' or 'Off'. Perhaps other network services have other status labels. I have picked through all the plist files in '/Library/Preferences/SystemConfiguration', particularly 'preferences.plist' and 'NetworkInterfaces.plist'. I can get all sorts of information there, such as the Location set, network service order, proxy information (which is also important to my task), but I cannot find how to determine whether a given network service is on or off--the equivalent of having the green dot displayed. I have also tried using System Configuration framework, specifically the SCNetworkConnectionGetStatus function, but all I get are invalid connection statuses. Does anyone know how to actually retrieve this connection status information? Thanks.

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  • Is it possible to aggregate over differing where clauses?

    - by BenAlabaster
    Is it possible to calculate multiple aggregates based on differing where clauses? For instance: Let's say I have two tables, one for Invoice and one for InvoiceLineItems. The invoice table has a total field for the invoice total, and each of the invoice line item records in the InvoiceLineItems table contains a field that denotes whether the line item is discountable or not. I want three sum totals, one where Discountable = 0 and one where Discountable = 1 and one where Discountable is irrelevant. Such that my output would be: InvoiceNumber Total DiscountableTotal NonDiscountableTotal ------------- ----- ----------------- -------------------- 1 53.27 27.27 16.00 2 38.94 4.76 34.18 3... The only way I've found so far is by using something like: Select i.InvoiceNumber, i.Total, t0.Total As DiscountableTotal, t1.Total As NonDiscountableTotal From Invoices i Left Join ( Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount), From InvoiceLineItems Where Discountable = 0 Group By InvoiceNumber ) As t0 On i.InvoiceNumber = t0.InvoiceNumber Left Join ( Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount) From InvoiceLineItems Where Discountable = 1 Group By InvoiceNumber ) As t1 On i.InvoiceNumber = t1.InvoiceNumber This seems somewhat cumbersome, it would be nice if I could do something like: Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount) Where Discountable = 1 As Discountable Sum(Amount) Where Discountable = 0 As NonDiscountable Group By InvoiceNumber I realize that SQL is completely invalid, but it logically portrays what I'm trying to do... TIA P.S. I need this to run on a SQL Server 2000 instance, but I am also interested (for future reference) if/how I would achieve this on SQL Server 2005/2008.

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  • Why does this Razor syntax gives compilation errors?

    - by dotnetN00b
    I either get a "you need a ; here" or a "best overloaded match has invalid arguments" errors. <tbody> <tr> @for (int i = 0; i < startDay; ++i) { @:<td><span></span><span></span></td> } @for (int j = startDay; j < ((numberOfDays + startDay) - 1); ++j) { <td> <span>@startCount</span> <br /> <span> @{ var todaysEvents = Model.ToList().FindAll(d => d.CalDate.Day == j); foreach(HTMLMVCCalendar.Models.CalendarModel eventsToday in todaysEvents) { foreach(HTMLMVCCalendar.Models.EventModel eventToday in eventsToday.CalEvents) { @eventToday.DayCode.ToString // error here @:<br /> @eventToday.Subject // error here @:<br /> @eventToday.EventDesc //error here } @:<br /> } } </span> </td> if ((j + 1) % 7 == 0) { @:</tr><tr> } @++startCount; } </tr> </tbody>

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  • function.array-diff problems!

    - by SKY
    Hi, im currently getting these error on my site: Warning: array_keys() [function.array-keys]: The first argument should be an array on line 43 Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() on line 44 Warning: array_diff() [function.array-diff]: Argument #1 is not an array on line 47 Warning: array_diff() [function.array-diff]: Argument #1 is not an array on line 48 And the source are: 42. $tmp = $this->network->get_user_follows($this->user->id); 43. $tmp = array_keys($tmp->followers); 44. foreach($tmp as &$v) { $v = intval($v); } 45. $tmp2 = array_keys($this->network->get_group_members($g->id)); 46. foreach($tmp2 as &$v) { $v = intval($v); } 47. $tmp = array_diff($tmp, $tmp2); 48. $tmp = array_diff($tmp, array(intval($this->user->id))); I want to know what is the problem and how i fix it. Thanks!

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  • Processing data from an AJAX request

    - by Josh K
    I have a PHP API I'm working with that outputs everything as JSON. I need to call one of the API methods and parse it out using an AJAX request. I am using jQuery (though it shouldn't matter). When I make the request it errors out with a "parsererror" as the textStatus and a "Syntax Error: invalid label" when I make the request. Simplified code: $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: "http://mydomain.com/api/get/userlist/"+mid, dataType: "json", dataFilter: function(data, type) { /* Here we assume and pray */ users = eval(data); alert(users[1].id); }, success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { alert(data.length); // Should be an array, yet is undefined. }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert(textStatus); alert(errorThrown); }, complete: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus) { alert("Done"); } }); If I leave off the eval(data) then everything works fine. Well, except for data still being undefined in success. Note that I'm taking an array of objects in PHP and then passing them out through json_encode. Would that make any difference? There has been no progress made on this. I'm willing to throw more code up if someone believes they can help. Here is the PHP side of things private function _get_user_colors($id) { $u = new User(); $u->get_where(array('id' => $id)); $bar = array(); $bar['user'] = $u->stored; foreach($user->colors as $color) { $bar['colors'][] = $color; } echo(json_encode($bar)); } I have had zero issues using this with other PHP based scripts. I don't know why Javascript would take issue with it.

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  • java script is not working in mozila

    - by Piyush
    I have added some javascript in html page for input validation.same page is working correct in IE and chrome but in mozila its not working.The problem is when user inputs invalid data its supposed to show alert msg box and when user clicks OK it should return false to form...BUT mozila is not waiting for alert box it just shows alert box for 5-6 sec and then goes to next page defined in form action="nextpage.php" function validate_form(thisform) { with (thisform) { if (validate_required(oldpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the Old Password!") == false) { changeColor("oldpassword"); return false; } else if (valid_length(newpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the New Password!!") == false) {newpassword.value=""; changeColor("newpassword"); return false; } else if (valid_length(cnfpassword, "<b>Error: </b>Please enter the Confirm Password!!") == false) {cnfpassword.value=""; changeColor("cnfpassword"); return false; } else if (document.getElementById('newpassword').value != document.getElementById('cnfpassword').value) {changeColor("newpassword");cool.error("<b>Error: </b>Passwords entered are not same!"); newpassword.value="";cnfpassword.value="";return false;} } }function validate_required(field, alerttxt) { with (field) { if (value == null || value == "") { cool.error(alerttxt);return false; } else { return true; } } } cool.error is nothing but CSS nd Js for alert box.I thing there is not any problem in my code weather problem is in some browser settings.Is it so??? because it is working fine in IE and Chrome.

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  • Array Assignment

    - by Mahesh
    Let me explain with an example - #include <iostream> void foo( int a[2], int b[2] ) // I understand that, compiler doesn't bother about the // array index and converts them to int *a, int *b { a = b ; // At this point, how ever assignment operation is valid. } int main() { int a[] = { 1,2 }; int b[] = { 3,4 }; foo( a, b ); a = b; // Why is this invalid here. return 0; } Is it because, array decays to a pointer when passed to a function foo(..), assignment operation is possible. And in main, is it because they are of type int[] which invalidates the assignment operation. Doesn't a,b in both the cases mean the same ? Thanks. Edit 1: When I do it in a function foo, it's assigning the b's starting element location to a. So, thinking in terms of it, what made the language developers not do the same in main(). Want to know the reason.

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  • Error using maven profiles

    - by user3127896
    I've added two profiles to my application and that how it looks: <profiles> <profile> <id>dev</id> <properties> <db.username>root</db.username> <db.password>root</db.password> <db.connectionURL>localhost:3306</db.connectionURL> <db.driverClass>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</db.driverClass> </properties> </profile> <profile> <id>prod</id> <properties> <db.username>prodroot</db.username> <db.password>prodpass</db.password> <db.connectionURL>localhost:3306</db.connectionURL> <db.driverClass>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</db.driverClass> </properties> </profile> </profiles> In my jdbc.properties file i changed values like this: jdbc.driverClassName=${db.driverClass} jdbc.dialect=org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect jdbc.databaseurl=jdbc:mysql://${db.connectionURL}/dbname jdbc.username=${db.username} jdbc.password=${db.password} And here's bean from spring-container.xml <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" p:driverClassName="${jdbc.driverClassName}" p:url="${jdbc.databaseurl}" p:username="${jdbc.username}" p:password="${jdbc.password}" /> When i try to deploy my application i got following error: SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'dataSource' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring-servlet.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'db.driverClass' Structure of project: Any ideas what i'm doing wrong? Thanks in advance!

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