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JBoss Client-Cert Authentication: Hot to setup UsersRolesLoginModule in login-config.xml

- by sixtyfootersdude

I am looking that chapter 8 of the RedHat, JBoss documentation. I am trying to setup Certificate Authentication as described on this page . On the page it says that the login-config file should have this in it: <application-policy name="jmx-console"> <authentication> <login-module code="org.jboss.security.auth.spi.BaseCertLoginModule" flag="required"> <module-option name="password-stacking">useFirstPass</module-option> <module-option name="securityDomain">java:/jaas/jmx-console</module-option> </login-module> <login-module code="org.jboss.security.auth.spi.UsersRolesLoginModule" flag="required"> <module-option name="password-stacking">useFirstPass</module-option> <module-option name="usersProperties">jmx-console-users.properties</module-option> <module-option name="rolesProperties">jmx-console-roles.properties</module-option> </login-module> </authentication> </application-policy> I think that the BaseCertLoginModule chekcs the clients server and the UsersRolesloginModule assigns the client to role (using the file jmx-console-roles.properties). However I am completely bewildered as to what should be in this file: jmx-console-users.properties. Normally that file stores user/password pairs (source) but when using client-cert I don't think that there should be passwords in there. Right now I am leaving that file empty but I am getting this exception: [org.jboss.security.auth.spi.UsersRolesLoginModule.initialize:135] Failed to load users/passwords/role files java.io.IOException: No properties file: users.properties or defaults: defaultUsers.properties found ... What should be in that file? Thanks.

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How can I force a jQuery faded-in user control to remain after click events?

- by David

I have a basic page to which I'm adding an uploader control based on Bulk Uploader at c-sharpcorner.com and the control is in a jQuery-faded div based on yesdegisn The Bulk Uploader has two server side event handlers for two buttons--Add and Remove. After clicking these buttons, the fade disappears and you're back to the basic page--if the user needs to add more files, this is not desirable. The ArrayList of files added to a ListBox is maintained, but I have to click the "fade-in" link (LinkButton id="lnkDocumentUpload") to display this window again. I also need the control to POST to UploadPost.aspx, and it doesn't work either. Clicking the upload button(<asp:Button ID="btnUpload" runat="server" />) has the same behavior described above--fade disappears, data is retained, and no POST. I've surrounded the control with <form id="frmUpload" action="~/UploadPost.aspx"> ... <asp:Button ID="btnUpload" runat="server" Text="Upload"/> </form> A LinkButton activates the fade in jQuery via $("#lnkDocumentUpload").click(function() { centerPopup(); loadPopup(); });

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Why are my events being called more than once?

- by Arms

In my Flash project I have a movieclip that has 2 keyframes. Both frames contain 1 movieclip each. frame 1 - Landing frame 2 - Game The flow of the application is simple: User arrives on landing page (frame 1) User clicks "start game" button User is brought to the game page (frame 2) When the game is over, the user can press a "play again" button which brings them back to step 1 Both Landing and Game movieclips are linked to separate classes that define event listeners. The problem is that when I end up back at step 1 after playing the game, the Game event listeners fire twice for their respective event. And if I go through the process a third time, the event listeners fire three times for every event. This keeps happening, so if I loop through the application flow 7 times, the event listeners fire seven times. I don't understand why this is happening because on frame 1, the Game movieclip (and I would assume its related class instance) does not exist - but I'm clearly missing something here. I've run into this problem in other projects too, and tried fixing it by first checking if the event listeners existed and only defining them if they didn't, but I ended up with unexpected results that didn't really solve the problem. I need to ensure that the event listeners only fire once. Any advice & insight would be greatly appreciated, thanks!

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Django and json request

- by Hulk

In a template i have the following code <script> var url="/mypjt/my_timer" $.post(url, paramarr, function callbackHandler(dict) { alert('got response back'); if (dict.flag == 2) { alert('1'); $.jGrowl("Data could not be saved"); } else if(dict.ret_status == 1) { alert('2'); $.jGrowl("Data saved successfully"); window.location = "/mypjt/display/" + dict.rid; } }, "json" ); </script> In views i have the following code, def my_timer(request): dict={} try: a= timer.objects.get(pk=1) dict({'flag':1}) return HttpResponse(simplejson.dumps(dict), mimetype='application/javascript') except: dict({'flag':1}) return HttpResponse(simplejson.dumps(dict), mimetype='application/javascript') My question is since we are making a json request and in the try block ,after setting the flag ,cant we return a page directly as return render_to_response('mypjt/display.html',context_instance=RequestContext(request,{'dict': dict})) instead of sending the response, because on success again in the html page we redirect the code Also if there is a exception then only can we return the json request. My only concern is that the interaction between client and server should be minimal. Thanks..

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How do I sanitize a string in PHP that contains "; Echo"? (I have a solid reason)

- by user337878

I turned this case into a simple PHP page that submits to itself. My issue is that I am submitting track meet results and one of the girl's names is Echo...a lovely name. The problem text I'm submitting is: Pole vault - Rachel Simons, Tow, 8-6; Echo Wilson, Cit, 8-0; Molly Randall, Tow, 7-0; So you see a semicolon followed by white space followed by Echo... After submitting, it says: POST to /results/test.php not supported The end goal is to save it to a database along with some other info and have a search page to find it and simply print out the full result on the screen. I stripped out all my database stuff to get it down to this one error. I mean, I can intentionally mis-spell her name, but there's gotta be a way around this, right??? Here's the test PHP file. <html> <head> <title>title</title> </head> <body> <?php echo "<h3>Edit meet info below</h3>"; echo "<form action=\"test.php\" method=\"post\" id=\"submitForm\">"; echo "Full Results:<br/><textarea NAME=\"results\" id=\"results\" rows=\"20\" cols=\"80\" MAXLENGTH=\"8191\"></textarea><br/><br/>"; echo "<input type=\"submit\" name=\"submitMeet\" value=\"Submit\">"; echo "</form>"; ?> </body> </html>

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Should I write more SQL to be more efficient, or less SQL to be less buggy?

- by RenderIn

I've been writing a lot of one-off SQL queries to return exactly what a certain page needs and no more. I could reuse existing queries and issue a number of SQL requests linear to the number of records on the page. As an example, I have a query to return People and a query to return Job Details for a person. To return a list of people with their job details I could query once for people and then once for each person to retrieve their job details. I've found that in most cases that solution returns things in a reasonable amount of time, but I don't know how well it will scale in my environment. Instead I've been writing queries to join people + job details, or people + salary history, etc. I'm looking at my models and I see how I could shave off maybe 30% of my code if I were to re-use existing queries. This is a big temptation. Is it a bad thing to go for reuse over efficiency in general or does it all come down to the specific situation? Should I first do it the easy way and then optimize later, or is it best to get the code knocked out while everything is fresh in my mind? Thoughts, experiences?

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jQuery update not replacing js files in Drupal 6.16.

- by vr3690

Hi, I am using jquery update in drupal 6.16 along with a lot of other modules. I am trying to use jquery ui 1.7.2 to render tabs. But unfortunately they don't work properly since jquery update is not replacing the jquery file (jquery 1.3.2). I checked the version using $.fn.jquery (in firebug) and got 1.2.6 (not 1.3.2 as required) as the result - and as expected the aggregated js file was using the 1.2.6 version of jquery (see source). earlier I had just replaced the core script files in /misc with the js files in sites/default/modules/jquery_update/replace folder (like you'd do in 5.x) and got the necessary result (i also renamed jquery.min.js to jquery.js ). now suddenly that stopped working after i upgraded to 6.x-2.0-alpha1 and also installed the mollom module. disabling/uninstalling mollom or down-grading jQuery update does not seem to help. the problem only occurs on the front page though. other content pages have jQuery 1.3.2 the problem can be seen here. So, basically, for some reason, jquery update is not replacing the jquery files (as it is supposed to) on the front page. and i cannot figure out why that happens. any ideas?

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UriMapper Problem

- by jsop

I have the following xaml (nonessential markup removed in the interest of brevity): <navigation:Frame x:Name="ContentFrame" > <navigation:Frame.UriMapper> <uriMapper:UriMapper> <uriMapper:UriMapping Uri="/{pageName}" MappedUri="/Views/{pageName}.xaml"/> <uriMapper:UriMapping Uri="/FMChart/{metricID}/{orgID}" MappedUri="/Views/FMChart.xaml?metricID={metricID}&orgID={orgID}"/> </navigation:Frame.UriMapper> </navigation:Frame.UriMapper> </navigation:Frame> I'm creating the HyperLinkButton objects dynamically (in code), like so: int metricID = 1; int orgID = 1; HyperlinkButton button = new HyperlinkButton(); button.Name = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); button.TargetName = "ContentFrame"; // this string doesn't work string url = string.Format("/FMChart/{0}/{1}", metricID, orgID); button.NavigateUri = new Uri(url, UriKind.Relative); When I click the bbutton, the browser renders a blank page, and eventually presents me with a REALLY long stack trace (InvalidOperation exception). If I take the parameters out of th indicated line: string url = "/FMChart"; ...it works as expected (brings up the desired page). I've also tried the following strings: /FMChart/{0}&{1} /FMChart/{0}& amp;{1} What am I doing wrong?

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Payment gateways and XSS

- by Rowan Parker

Hi all, I'm working on a website which takes payment from a customer. I'm using Kohana 2.3.4 and have created a library to handle the payment gateway I use (www.eway.com.au). Basically I'm just using their sample code, copied into it's own class. Anyway, the code works fine and I can make payments, etc. The issue I have is when the payment gateway is returning the user to my site. The payment gateway uses HTTPS so that is secure, and it is sending the user back to a HTTPS page on my site. However I have the NoScript plugin installed in Firefox, and when I get sent back to the page on my website (which also handles storing the transaction data) I get an error message saying that NoScript has blocked a potential XSS attack. Now I understand why it's unsecure (POST data being sent across two different domains) but what should I be doing instead? Obviously during my testing here I temporarily disable NoScript and it all works fine, but I can't rely on that for the end users. What's the best practice here?

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django: How to make one form from multiple models containing foreignkeys

- by Tim

I am trying to make a form on one page that uses multiple models. The models reference each other. I am having trouble getting the form to validate because I cant figure out how to get the id of two of the models used in the form into the form to validate it. I used a hidden key in the template but I cant figure out how to make it work in the views My code is below: views: def the_view(request, a_id,): if request.method == 'POST': b_form= BForm(request.POST) c_form =CForm(request.POST) print "post" if b_form.is_valid() and c_form.is_valid(): print "valid" b_form.save() c_form.save() return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse('myproj.pro.views.this_page')) else: b_form= BForm() c_form = CForm() b_ide = B.objects.get(pk=request.b_id) id_of_a = A.objects.get(pk=a_id) return render_to_response('myproj/a/c.html', {'b_form':b_form, 'c_form':c_form, 'id_of_a':id_of_a, 'b_id':b_ide }) models class A(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) classe = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) def __str__(self): return self.name class B(models.Model): aid = models.ForeignKey(A, null=True, blank=True) number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) other_number = models.IntegerField(max_length=1000) class C(models.Model): bid = models.ForeignKey(B, null=False, blank=False) field_name = models.CharField(max_length=15) field_value = models.CharField(max_length=256, null=True, blank=True) forms from mappamundi.mappa.models import A, B, C class BForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = B exclude = ('aid',) class CForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = C exclude = ('bid',) B has a foreign key reference to A, C has a foreign key reference to B. Since the models are related, I want to have the forms for them on one page, 1 submit button. Since I need to fill out fields for the forms for B and C & I dont want to select the id of B from a drop down list, I need to somehow get the id of the B form into the form so it will validate. I have a hidden field in the template, I just need to figure how to do it in the views

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Limit iPhone in-app purchase by user's country

- by Ryan

Hello everyone. I'm a product manager who works for a small internet company that is developing an iPhone application for a social network. We monetize by offering limited and premium memberships to users (premium members get additional features not available to limited members). For billing on the web, we use a 3rd-party payment gateway that is nearing retirement, and will be replaced by an in-house solution. The business wants a global launch for our iPhone app using iTunes + in-app purchasing as a payment gateway. The problem with going global using this payment method is that for our web service membership level, available features, and subscription costs are defined by country. For example, in the US premium/limited memberships are available at 5 pricing tiers; in France premium/limited memberships are available at 5 different pricing tiers from the US; and in Chile the service is available for free and all features are available to users. Is it possible then to have the server-side, based on the user's country of registration, control the level of access, features, and payment options for users on the iPhone? I'd also note that since iTunes Connect does not allow variable pricing by currency and country, each "region" would need 5 in app purchase options. I argued for a US-only launch for iPhone using iTunes in app purchase until an in-house payment gateway is available. But you know...

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embed dll in html <object>

- by Raynos

I've come across some old code <object id="foo" classid="/location/bar.dll#ProjectName.ClassName" viewastext></object> It doesn't currently work and used to work in older versions of IE. I've never come across embedding a dll in a web page like this. It appears to be a windows .NET application written in C#. This is used on our intranet. And ClassName is of type System.Windows.Forms.UserControl It also seems I can call the C# methods of the UserControl directly through javascript. Does anyone have any documentation on how this works and whether its possible to hack it into firefox. Rewriting the windows control as a web application would be a nightmare. [Edit] It appears to be some kind of activeX / COM thing where in IE you could just port a windows application directly into a html file. It's supposed to be able to run locally if you set up various correctly. If anyone has an idea of what needs to be set up for this to work, that would be nice.

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Why can't I make an http request to the ASP.NET development server on localhost?

- by Chris Farmer

I have an ASP.NET project (VS2008 on Windows 7 with either webforms, MVC1, or MVC2 -- all the same result for me) which is just the File-New hello world web project. It's using the default ASP.NET development server, and when I start the server with F5, the browser never connects and I get a timeout. I tried to debug this by telnetting to the development server's port while it was running, and I got the same result: C:\Users\farmercs>telnet localhost 54752 Connecting To localhost...Could not open connection to the host, on port 54752: Connect failed I can see in the system tray that the server thinks it's running, and a netstat -s -n command shows that there is indeed an active TCP listener on that port. This worked in the not-too-distant past, and I could work on web projects using the development server. One thing that has changed since then was that I installed the Microsoft Loopback Adapter to accommodate a local development Oracle installation. I'm not sure this is the problem, but it seems a likely culprit. So, what could be blocking me from connecting? And if it's the loopback, then what is a good way for me to retain my ability to connect to my development Oracle server while still being able to use the ASP.NET development server?

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Set HttpContext.Current.User from Thread.CurrentPrincipal

- by Argons

I have a security manager in my application that works for both windows and web, the process is simple, just takes the user and pwd and authenticates them against a database then sets the Thread.CurrentPrincipal with a custom principal. For windows applications this works fine, but I have problems with web applications. After the process of authentication, when I'm trying to set the Current.User to the custom principal from Thread.CurrentPrincipal this last one contains a GenericPrincipal. Am I doing something wrong? This is my code: Login.aspx protected void btnAuthenticate_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Authenticate("user","pwd"); FormsAuthenticationTicket authenticationTicket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, "user", DateTime.Now, DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(30), false, ""); string ticket = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(authenticationTicket); HttpCookie authenticationCookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, ticket); Response.Cookies.Add(authenticationCookie); Response.Redirect(FormsAuthentication.GetRedirectUrl("user", false)); } Global.asax (This is where the problem appears) protected void Application_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { HttpCookie authCookie = Context.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; if (authCookie == null) return; if (HttpContext.Current.User != null && HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated && HttpContext.Current.User.Identity is FormsIdentity) { HttpContext.Current.User = System.Threading.Thread.CurrentPrincipal; //Here the value is GenericPrincipal } Thanks in advance for any help. }

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jQuery arrays - newbie needs a kick start

- by Jonny Wood

I've only really started using this site and alredy I am very impressed by the community here! This is my third question in less than three days. Hopefully I'll be able to start answering questions soon instead of just asking them! I'm fairly new to jQuery and can't find a decent tutorial on Arrays. I'd like to be able to create an array that targets several ID's on my page and performs the same effect for each. For example I have tabs set up with the following: $('.tabs div.tab').hide(); $('.tabs div:first').show(); $('.tabs ul li:first a').addClass('current'); $('.tabs ul li a').click(function(){ $('.tabs ul li a').removeClass('current'); $(this).addClass('current'); var currentTab = $(this).attr('href'); $('.tabs div.tab').hide(); $(currentTab).show(); return false; }); I've used the class .tag to target the tabs as there are several sets on the same page, but I've heard jQuery works much faster when targetting ID's How would I add an array to the above code to target 4 different ID's? I've looked at var myArray = new Array('#id1', 'id2', 'id3', 'id4'); And also var myValues = [ '#id1', 'id2', 'id3', 'id4' ]; Which is correct and how do I then use the array in the code for my tabs...?

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JAVASCRIPT ENABLED [closed]

- by kirchoffs415

HI, I hope somebody can help, i keep getting the following message when i log on-- Your Javascript is disabled. Limited functionality is available. it will stay for maybe a day sometimes two.I have uninstalled javascript and reinstalled but still the same. Iam using chrome. any help would be gratefull many thanks Dominic p.s. my system spec is as follows System InformationOS Name Microsoft® Windows Vista™ Home Premium Version 6.0.6002 Service Pack 2 Build 6002 Other OS Description Not Available OS Manufacturer Microsoft Corporation System Name DOM-PC System Manufacturer Dell Inc. System Model Inspiron 1545 System Type X86-based PC Processor Pentium(R) Dual-Core CPU T4200 @ 2.00GHz, 2000 Mhz, 2 Core(s), 2 Logical Processor(s) BIOS Version/Date Dell Inc. A05, 25/02/2009 SMBIOS Version 2.4 Windows Directory C:\Windows System Directory C:\Windows\system32 Boot Device \Device\HarddiskVolume3 Locale United Kingdom Hardware Abstraction Layer Version = "6.0.6002.18005" User Name DOM-PC\DOM Time Zone GMT Standard Time Installed Physical Memory (RAM) 3.00 GB Total Physical Memory 2.96 GB Available Physical Memory 1.38 GB Total Virtual Memory 5.89 GB Available Virtual Memory 4.25 GB Page File Space 3.00 GB Page File C:\pagefile.sys My System Specs

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JQuery load help

- by mtwallet

Hi. I am trying to use load() to place some html into a div on a page. I have a bunch of links like this: <div id="slideshow"> <div id="slides"> <div class="projects"> <a href="work/mobus.html" title="Mobus Fabrics Website"> <img src="images/work/mobus.jpg" alt="Mobus Fabrics Website" width="280" height="100" /> </a> <a href="work/eglin.html" title="Eglin Ltd Website"> <img src="images/work/eglin.jpg" alt="Eglin Ltd Website" width="280" height="100" /> </a> <a href="work/first-brands.html" title="First Brands Website"> <img src="images/work/first-brands.jpg" alt="First Brands Website" width="280" height="100" /> </a> </div> <a id="prev"></a> <a id="next"></a> </div> and my jquery code looks like this: $('.projects a').click(function() { $('#work').load(this.href); }); The problem is when clicked the html is placed in the #work div the html is loaded in another page. Please can anyone help?

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How to create a "Shell IDList Array" to support drag-and-drop of virtual files from C# to Windows Ex

- by JustABill

I started trying to implement drag-and-drop of virtual files (from a C# 4/WPF app) with this codeplex tutorial. After spending some time trying to figure out a DV_E_FORMATETC error, I figured out I need to support the "Shell IDList Array" data format. But there seems to be next to zero documentation on what this format actually does. After some searching, I found this page on advanced data transfer which said that a Shell IDList Array was a pointer to a CIDA structure. This CIDA structure then contains the number of PIDLs, and a list of offsets to them. So what the hell is a PIDL? After some more searching, this page sort of implies it's a pointer to an ITEMIDLIST, which itself contains a single member that is a list of SHITEMIDs. My next idea was to try dragging a file from another application with virtual files. I just got a MemoryStream back for this format. At least I know what class to provide for the thing, but that doesn't help at all for explaining what to put in it. So now that that's explained, I still have no idea how to create one of these things so that it's valid. There's two real questions here: What is a valid "abID" member for a SHITEMID? These virtual files only exist with my program; will the thing they are dragged to pass the "abID" back later when it executes GetData? Do they have to be system-unique? Why are there two levels of lists; a list of PIDLs and each PIDL has a list of SHITEMIDs? I'm assuming one of them is one for each file, but what's the other one for? Multiple IDs for the same file? Any help or even links that explain what I should be doing would be greatly appreciated.

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How to convert Unicode strings (\u00e2, etc) into NSString for display?

- by karlbecker_com

I am trying to support arbitrary unicode from a variety of international users. They have already put a bunch of data into sqlite databases on their iPhones, and now I want to capture the data into a database, then send it back to their device. Right now I am using a php page that is sending data back to from an internet mysql database. The data is saved in the mysql database properly, but when it's sent back it comes out as unicode text, such as Frank\u00e2\u0080\u0099s iPad instead of just Frank's iPad where the apostrophe should really be a curly apostrophe. The answer posted to another question indicates that there is no built-in Cocoa methods to convert the "\u00e2\u0080\u0099" portion of the unicode string from the webserver to an NSString object. Is this correct? That seems really surprising (and scarily disappointing), since Cocoa definitely allows input from many different Unicode characters, and I need to support any arbitrary language that I have never heard of, and all of the possible characters. I save them to and from the local sqlite database just fine now, but once I send it to a web server, then perhaps pull down different data, I want to ensure the data pulled from the web server is correctly formatted.

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Extract a specific string from a curl'd result

- by allentown

Given this curl command: curl --user-agent "fogent" --silent -o page.html "http://www.google.com/search?q=insansiate" * Spelling is intentionally incorrect. I want to grab the suggestion as my result. I want to be able to either grep into the page.html file perhaps with grep -oE or pipe it right from curl and never store a file. The result should be: 'instantiate' I need only the word 'instantiate', or the phrase, whatever google is auto correcting, is what I am after. Here is the basic html that is returned: <span class=spell style="color:#cc0000">Did you mean: </span><a href="/search?hl=en&ie=UTF-8&&sa=X&ei=VEMUTMDqGoOINraK3NwL&ved=0CB0QBSgA&q=instantiate&spell=1"class=spell><b><i>instantiate</i></b></a>  <span class=std>Top 2 results shown</span> So perhaps from/to of the string below, which I hope is unique enough to cover all my bases. class=spell><b><i>instantiate</i></b></a>   I keep running into issues with greedy grep; perhaps I should run it though an html prettify tool first to get a line break or 50 in there. I don't know of any simple way to do so in bash, which is what I would ideally like this to be in. I really don't want to deal with firing up perl, and making sure I have the correct module. Any suggestions, thank you?

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Dynamically adding radio buttons using JQUERY and then hooking up the jquery change event to the gen

- by Barry

i am adding collection of radio buttons to my page using jquery below $(document).ready(function() { $("#Search").click(function() { var keyword = $('#keyWord').val(); var EntityType = $("#lstEntityTypes :selected").text(); var postData = { type: EntityType, keyWord: keyword }; // alert(postData.VehicleType); $.post('/EntityLink/GetJsonEntitySearchResults', postData, function(GRdata) { var grid = '<table><tr><td>ID</td><td>Name</td><td></td>'; for (var i = 0; i < GRdata.length; i++) { grid += '<tr><td>'; grid += GRdata[i].ID; grid += '</td><td>'; grid += GRdata[i].EntityName; grid += '</td><td>'; grid += '<input type="radio" name="EntitiesRadio" value="' + GRdata[i].ID + '" />'; grid += '</td></tr>'; } grid += '</table>'; alert(grid); $("#EntitySearchResults").html(grid); $("EntitiesRadio").change(function() { alert($("EntitiesRadio :checked").val()); $("EntityID").val($("EntitiesRadio :checked").val()); alert($("EntityID").val()); $("EntityName").val($("#lstEntityTypes :selected").text()); }); }); }); // }); so when page loads there is not EntitiesRadio name range, so i tried to register the entitiesRadio change function inside the same search click method but it isnt registering. how do i get the change event to fire to update my hidden inputs

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IE not rendering div contents

- by The.Anti.9

I've written an app using HTML 5 and I wan't to show an error box instead of the page when someone visits from IE. When it detects navigator.appName as Microsoft Internet Explorer it hides everything and shows the error div that started out hidden. The div is as follows: <div id='ieerror' style='display:none;width:500px;height:500px;border:3px solid #ff0000;position:absolute;top:50%;left:50%;margin-top:-250px;margin-left:-250px;'> <center> <h1 style='font-size: 30px;'>Internet Explorer is not supported by Aud!</h1><br /><br /> <p>Internet Explorer does not support HTML 5 and therefore this application cannot run.<br /> Please upgrade your browser. We suggest <a href='http://www.google.com/chrome'>Google Chrome</a>!</p> </center> </div> The problem is that when I visit the page in IE, the div pops up with the border, but it has no contents. Nothing is inside of it. I went to view->source and looked at it, and the code is still there, but none of it is rendered. How do I fix this?

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Getting my head around object oriented programing

- by nLL

I am entry level .Net developer and using it to develop web sites. I started with classic asp and last year jumped on the ship with a short C# book. As I developed I learned more and started to see that coming from classic asp I always used C# like scripting language. For example in my last project I needed to encode video on the webserver and wrote a code like public class Encoder { Public static bool Encode(string videopath) { ...snip... return true; } } While searching samples related to my project I’ve seen people doing this public class Encoder { Public static Encode(string videopath) { EncodedVideo encoded = new EncodedVideo(); ...snip... encoded.EncodedVideoPath = outputFile; encoded.Success = true; ...snip... } } public class EncodedVideo { public string EncodedVideoPath { get; set; } public bool Success { get; set; } } As I understand second example is more object oriented but I don’t see the point of using EncodedVideo object. Am I doing something wrong? Does it really necessary to use this sort of code in a web app?

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Postback not working with ASP.NET Routing (Validation of viewstate MAC failed)

- by Robert

Hi. I'm using the ASP.NET 3.5 SP1 System.Web.Routing with classic WebForms, as described in http://chriscavanagh.wordpress.com/2008/04/25/systemwebrouting-with-webforms-sample/ All works fine, I have custom SEO urls and even the postback works. But there is a case where the postback always fails and I get a: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. Here is the scenario to reproduce the error: Create a standard webform mypage.aspx with a button Create a Route that maps "a/b/{id}" to "~/mypage.aspx" When you execute the site, you can navigate http://localhost:XXXX/a/b/something the page works. But when you press the button you get the error. The error doen't happen when the Route is just "a/{id}". It seems to be related to the number of sub-paths in the url. If there are at least 2 sub-paths the viewstate validation fails. You get the error even with EnableViewStateMac="false". Any ideas? Is it a bug? Thanks

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bin-deploying DLLs banned in leiu of GAC on shared IIS 6 servers

- by craigmoliver

I need to solicit feedback about a recent security policy change at an organization I work with. They have recently banned the bin-deployment of DLLs to shared IIS 6 application servers. These servers host many isolated web application pools. The new rules require all DLLs to be installed in GAC. The is a problem for me because I bin-deploy several dlls including the ASP.NET MVC Framework, HTML Agility Pack, ELMAH, and my own shared class libraries. I do this because: Eliminates web application server dependencies to the Global Assembly Cache. Allows me (the developer) to have control of what goes on inside my application. Enables the application to deployed as a "package". Removes application deployment burden from the server administrators. Now, here are my questions. From a security perspective what are the advantages to using the GAC vs. bin-deployment? Is it possible to host multiple versions of the same DLL in the GAC? Has anyone run into similar restrictions?

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