Search Results

Search found 5109 results on 205 pages for 'specify'.

Page 157/205 | < Previous Page | 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164  | Next Page >

  • Problem locating file in a classpath

    - by Gandalf StormCrow
    I'm trying to read in file content, ex : public void myMethod(){ FileInputStream fstream = new FileInputStream(fileLocation); // Get the object of DataInputStream DataInputStream in = new DataInputStream(fstream); BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); String strLine; while ((strLine = br.readLine()) != null) { .... .... ..... end while end method And I have at the begining of the class body private String fileLocation; and at the end of a class I have a getter and setter for it. Now I'm trying inject this file location from spring inside bean from this class and I specify the init-method of this class. But I get error cannot find the specified file as if its not on a classpath but it is inside war file? I'm building the project with maven and I put file in src/main/resources This is the error I get when trying to read file : Error: src\main\resources\ids.txt (The system cannot find the path specified) That is when I tried this : FileInputStream fstream = new FileInputStream("src\\main\\resources\\ids.txt"); how to reference the properly from the classpath? EDIT When I edit my code according to @BalusC solution , here is how it looks but I still get null error : ClassLoader classLoader = Thread.currentThread().getContextClassLoader(); InputStream input = classLoader.getResourceAsStream("src/main/resources/ids.txt"); // Get the object of DataInputStream BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(input)); String strLine; while ((strLine = br.readLine()) != null) { .... .... ..... end while end method

    Read the article

  • Why does trying to unit test with two .NET 4.0 assemblies under NUnit 2.5.4 fail?

    - by GiddyUpHorsey
    I have an MSBuild script that uses NUnit to run tests in two assemblies. These were on .NET Framework 3.5 and it worked perfectly for a long time. The command line was: (actual paths & names simplified) nunit-console tests1\bin\debug\tests1.dll tests2\bin\tests2.dll I've upgraded to VS2010 and have now made the two test assemblies target .NET 4.0. I've also upgraded to NUnit 2.5.4. I can unit test a single assembly with the following: nunit-console tests1\bin\debug\tests1.dll /framework=4.0.30319 It works fine with either tests1.dll or tests2.dll. If I try to specify both like before, it now fails. nunit-console tests1\bin\debug\tests1.dll tests2\bin\debug\tests2.dll /framework=4.0.30319 The error is: Could not load file or assembly 'tests2' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. I've had a look in fuslogvw and it shows tests2 being searched for in the tests1\bin\debug and nunit-console folders. It never searches tests2\bin\debug even though it's specified on the command line. What's up with that?

    Read the article

  • Broadcasting an intent to a specific component.

    - by Nic Strong
    I have an activity that is starting a background operation in another service. This activity receives various notifications from this service. As part of the intent I use to initiate the background operation I pass extra data with the context of my activity so the background service can broadcast intents back to me (the download service is a good example of this usage). So in the activity I use the following to attach the context: intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_PACKAGE, IntentTestActivity.this.getPackageName()); intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_CLASS, IntentTestActivity.class.getCanonicalName()); intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_EXTRAS, myContext); I register for the notifications in the activity: IntentFilter intentFilter = new IntentFilter(); intentFilter.addAction(Intents.ACTION_NOTIFICATION); intentFilter.addCategory(Intents.CATEGORY_COMPLETION); intentFilter.addCategory(Intents.CATEGORY_PROGRESSS); Intent intent = registerReceiver(receiver, intentFilter); In the background service I send notifications with the following code: void broadcastNotification(String action, String category, String packageName, String className, String extras, int operationResult) { Intent intent = new Intent(action); intent.addCategory(category); intent.setClassName(packageName, className); if (extras != null) { intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_NOTIFICATION_EXTRAS, extras); } intent.putExtra(Intents.EXTRA_OPERATION_RESULT, operationResult); context.sendBroadcast(intent); } My problem is that the above broadcast will never be received. If however I comment out the line intent.setClassName(packageName, className); Then the broadcast is received. Is it a problem with my filter? Do I have to specify intents intended for a specific component? Or cannot I not use such fine grain control over the delivery of broadcasts. Thanks, Nic

    Read the article

  • Draw Rectangle with XNA

    - by mazzzzz
    Hey guys, I was working on game, and wanted to highlight a spot on the screen when something happens, I created a class to do this for me, and found a bit of code to draw the rectangle static private Texture2D CreateRectangle(int width, int height, Color colori) { Texture2D rectangleTexture = new Texture2D(game.GraphicsDevice, width, height, 1, TextureUsage.None, SurfaceFormat.Color);// create the rectangle texture, ,but it will have no color! lets fix that Color[] color = new Color[width * height];//set the color to the amount of pixels in the textures for (int i = 0; i < color.Length; i++)//loop through all the colors setting them to whatever values we want { color[i] = colori; } rectangleTexture.SetData(color);//set the color data on the texture return rectangleTexture;//return the texture } Problem is that the code above is called every update, (60 times a second), and it was not written with optimization in mind, I have no clue how else to write a code to do this though. It needs to be extremely fast (the code above freezes the game, which has only skeleton code right now).. Any suggestions. Note: Any new code would be great (WireFrame/Fill are both fine). I would like to be able to specify color. Something to point in the right direction would be great, Thanks, Max

    Read the article

  • Easiest way to support multiple orientations? How do I load a custom NIB when the application is in

    - by Peter Hajas
    Hi there, I have an application in which I would like to support multiple orientations. I have two .xib files that I want to use, myViewController.xib and myViewControllerLandscape.xib. myViewController.xib exists in project/Resources and myViewControllerLandscape.xib exists in the root project directory. What I want to do is use a separate NIB (myViewControllerLandscape.xib) for my rotations. I try detecting rotation in viewDidLoad like this: if((self.interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft) || (self.interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight)) { NSLog(@"Landscape detected!"); [self initWithNibName:@"myViewControllerLandscape" bundle:nil]; } But I can see in gdb that this isn't executed when the app is started with the device in landscape. The NSLog message doesn't fire. Why is this? What have I done wrong? Also, if I explicitly put the initWithNibName function call in the viewDidLoad method, that nib is not loaded, and it continues with the myViewController.xib file. What's wrong with my call? Should I specify a bundle? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • parameter for xcodebuild for using latest sdk.

    - by Maciek Sawicki
    I using ant exec task to execute xcodebuild to build some iOS projects hudson. I would like to be able to crate script that way that allows not to specify sdk version, because after updating sdk on hudson slave or my iOS projects all my projects failing.... There is is nice option in xcode since sdk 4.2 in target setup Base SDK - Latest iOS and I don't have to provide -sdk param in xcodebuild command, but then (i think) it's taken from xcode project and it's bad because then some one can change target from simulator to device accidentally during commit. I need something that is constant. I will prefer not to use env variable because I would like to be able to run this ant task also on dev machines and would like not have to renember about setting it on all machines. Unfortunately xcodebuild -showsdk gives only: Mac OS X SDKs: Mac OS X 10.4 -sdk macosx10.4 Mac OS X 10.5 -sdk macosx10.5 Mac OS X 10.6 -sdk macosx10.6 iOS SDKs: iOS 4.2 -sdk iphoneos4.2 iOS Simulator SDKs: Simulator - iOS 3.2 -sdk iphonesimulator3.2 Simulator - iOS 4.0 -sdk iphonesimulator4.0 Simulator - iOS 4.1 -sdk iphonesimulator4.1 Simulator - iOS 4.2 -sdk iphonesimulator4.2 I need something like -sdk iphoneosLatest. My only idea is to pare output of xcodebuild -showsdk with some script, but I don't like this idea.

    Read the article

  • Unknown error when submit a REST request to Liferay json API

    - by r.rodriguez
    I'm writing an script in Python to automatically update the structures in my Liferay portal and I want to do it via the json REST API. I make a request to get an structure (method getStructure), and it worked. But when I try to do an structure update in the portal it shows me the following error: ValueError: Content-Length should be specified for iterable data of type class 'dict' {'serviceContext': "{'prueba'}", 'serviceClassName': 'com.liferay.portlet.journal.service.JournalStructureServiceUtil', 'name': 'FOO', 'xsd': '... THE XSD OBTAINED VIA JSON ...', 'serviceParameters': '[groupId,structureId,parentStructureId,name,description,xsd,serviceContext]', 'description': 'FOO Structure', 'serviceMethodName': 'updateStructure', 'groupId': '10133'} What I'm doing is the next: urllib.request.Request(url = URL, data = data_update, headers = headers) URL is http://localhost:8080/tunnel-web/secure/json The headers are configured with basic authentication (it works, it is tested with the getStructure method). Data is: data_update = { "serviceClassName" : "com.liferay.portlet.journal.service.JournalStructureServiceUtil", "serviceMethodName" : "updateStructure", "serviceParameters" : "[groupId,structureId,parentStructureId,name,description,xsd,serviceContext]", "groupId" : 10133, "name" : FOO, "description" : FOO Structure, "xsd" : ... THE XSD OBTAINED VIA JSON ..., "serviceContext" : "{}" } Does anybody know the solution? Have I to specify the length for the dictionary and how? Or this is a bug?

    Read the article

  • WiX: Forcefully launch uninstall previous using CustomAction

    - by leiflundgren
    I'm writing a new major upgrade of our product. In my installer I start by finding configuration settings of the previous version, then I'd like to uninstall the previous version. I have found several guides telling me how one should make a MSI suitable for such upgrades. However, the previous was not an MSI. It was not according to best practices. It does, however, in registry HKLM\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Uninstall{GUID} specify an UninstallString. Using a RegistrySearch I can easy find the command below, which I store in UNINSTALL_CMD. RunDll32 C:\PROGRA~1\COMMON~1\INSTAL~1\PROFES~1\RunTime\10\01\Intel32\Ctor.dll,LaunchSetup "C:\Program Files\InstallShield Installation Information\{GUID}\setup.exe" -l0x9 -removeonly 4: I cannot get the hang of the CustomAction needed to perform the actual uninstall. <CustomAction Id="ca.UninstPrev" Property="UNINSTALL_CMD" ExeCommand="" /> The MSI logs says: Info 1721. There is a problem with this Windows Installer package. A program required for this install to complete could not be run. Contact your support personnel or package vendor. Action: ca.UninstallPrevious, location: RunDll32 C:\PROGRA~1\COMMON~1\INSTAL~1\PROFES~1\RunTime\10\01\Intel32\Ctor.dll,LaunchSetup "C:\Program Files\InstallShield Installation Information{GUID}\setup.exe" -l0x9 -removeonly, command: Anyone seeing what I am doing wrong here? Regards Leif

    Read the article

  • Capture *all* display-characters in JavaScript?

    - by Jean-Charles
    I was given an unusual request recently that I'm having the most difficult time addressing that involves capturing all display-characters when typed into a text box. The set up is as follows: I have a text box that has a maxlength of 10 characters. When the user attempts to type more than 10 characters, I need to notify the user that they're typing beyond the character count limit. The simplest solution would be to specify a maxlength of 11, test the length on every keyup, and truncate back down to 10 characters but this solution seems a bit kludgy. What I'd prefer to do is capture the character before keyup and, depending on whether or not it is a display-character, present the notification to the user and prevent the default action. A white-list would be challenging since we handle a lot of international data. I've played around with every combination of keydown, keypress, and keyup, reading event.keyCode, event.charCode, and event.which, but I can't find a single combination that works across all browsers. The best I could manage is the following that works properly in =IE6, Chrome5, FF3.6, but fails in Opera: NOTE: The following code utilizes jQuery. $(function(){ $('#textbox').keypress(function(e){ var $this = $(this); var key = ('undefined'==typeof e.which?e.keyCode:e.which); if ($this.val().length==($this.attr('maxlength')||10)) { switch(key){ case 13: //return case 9: //tab case 27: //escape case 8: //backspace case 0: //other non-alphanumeric break; default: alert('no - '+e.charCode+' - '+e.which+' - '+e.keyCode); return false; }; } }); }); I'll grant that what I'm doing is likely over-engineering the solution but now that I'm invested in it, I'd like to know of a solution. Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • Bad crypto error in .NET 4.0

    - by Andrey
    Today I moved my web application to .net 4.0 and Forms Auth just stopped working. After several hours of digging into my SqlMembershipProvider (simplified version of built-in SqlMembershipProvider), I found that HMACSHA256 hash is not consistent. This is the encryption method: internal string EncodePassword(string pass, int passwordFormat, string salt) { if (passwordFormat == 0) // MembershipPasswordFormat.Clear return pass; byte[] bIn = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(pass); byte[] bSalt = Convert.FromBase64String(salt); byte[] bAll = new byte[bSalt.Length + bIn.Length]; byte[] bRet = null; Buffer.BlockCopy(bSalt, 0, bAll, 0, bSalt.Length); Buffer.BlockCopy(bIn, 0, bAll, bSalt.Length, bIn.Length); if (passwordFormat == 1) { // MembershipPasswordFormat.Hashed HashAlgorithm s = HashAlgorithm.Create( Membership.HashAlgorithmType ); bRet = s.ComputeHash(bAll); } else { bRet = EncryptPassword( bAll ); } return Convert.ToBase64String(bRet); } Passing the same password and salt twice returns different results!!! It was working perfectly in .NET 3.5 Anyone aware of any breaking changes, or is it a known bug? UPDATE: When I specify SHA512 as hashing algorithm, everything works fine, so I do believe it's a bug in .NET 4.0 crypto Thanks! Andrey

    Read the article

  • how to limit the number of datas in pdf

    - by udaya
    Hi I am exporting data from php page to word,, there i get 'n' number of datas in each page .... How to set the maximum number of data that a word page can contain ,,,, I want only 20 datas in a single page This is the coding i use to export the data to pdf In mysql_table.php the table for the pdf document is be generated <?php require('mysql_table.php'); class PDF extends PDF_MySQL_Table { function Header() { //Title $this->SetFont('Arial','',18); $this->Cell(0,6,'Country details',0,1,'C'); $this->Ln(10); parent::Header(); } } //Connect to database mysql_connect('localhost','root',''); mysql_select_db('cms'); $pdf=new PDF(); $pdf->AddPage(); //First table: put all columns automatically $pdf->Table("SELECT (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM tblentercountry t2 WHERE t2.dbName <= t1.dbName and dbIsDelete='0') AS SLNO ,dbName as Namee,t3.dbCountry as Country,t4.dbState as State,t5.dbTown as Town FROM tblentercountry t1 join tablecountry as t3, tablestate as t4, tabletown as t5 where t1.dbIsDelete='0' and t1.dbCountryId=t3.dbCountryId and t1.dbStateId=t4.dbStateId and t1.dbTownId=t5.dbTownId order by dbName"); $pdf->AddPage(); //Second table: specify 3 columns $pdf->AddCol('rank',20,'','C'); $pdf->AddCol('name',20,'tablecountry'); $pdf->AddCol('pop',20,'Pop (2001)','R'); $prop=array('HeaderColor'=>array(255,150,100), 'color1'=>array(210,245,255), 'color2'=>array(255,255,210), 'padding'=>2); //$pdf->Table('select dbCountry,dbCountryId from tablecountry limit 0,10',$prop); $pdf->Output(); ?> How to limit the number of datas in a page

    Read the article

  • implementing a download manager that supports resuming

    - by Idan K
    hi, I intend on writing a small download manager in C++ that supports resuming (and multiple connections per download). From the info I gathered so far, when sending the http request I need to add a header field with a key of "Range" and the value "bytes=startoff-endoff". Then the server returns a http response with the data between those offsets. So roughly what I have in mind is to split the file to the number of allowed connections per file and send a http request per splitted part with the appropriate "Range". So if I have a 4mb file and 4 allowed connections, I'd split the file to 4 and have 4 http requests going, each with the appropriate "Range" field. Implementing the resume feature would involve remembering which offsets are already downloaded and simply not request those. Is this the right way to do this? What if the web server doesn't support resuming? (my guess is it will ignore the "Range" and just send the entire file) When sending the http requests, should I specify in the range the entire splitted size? Or maybe ask smaller pieces, say 1024k per request? When reading the data, should I write it immediately to the file or do some kind of buffering? I guess it could be wasteful to write small chunks. Should I use a memory mapped file? If I remember correctly, it's recommended for frequent reads rather than writes (I could be wrong). Is it memory wise? What if I have several downloads simultaneously? If I'm not using a memory mapped file, should I open the file per allowed connection? Or when needing to write to the file simply seek? (if I did use a memory mapped file this would be really easy, since I could simply have several pointers). Note: I'll probably be using Qt, but this is a general question so I left code out of it.

    Read the article

  • Using of Templated Helpers in MVC 2.0 : How can use the name of the property that I'm rendering insi

    - by Andrey Tagaew
    Hi. I'm reviewing new features of ASP.NET MVC 2.0. During the review i found really interesting using Templated Helpers. As they described it, the primary reason of using them is to provide common way of how some datatypes should be rendered. Now i want to use this way in my project for DateTime datatype My project was written for the MVC 1.0 so generating of editbox is looking like this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", Model.BirthDate, new { maxlength = 10, size = 10, @class = "BirthDate-date" })%> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".BirthDate-date").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=Url.Content("~/images/i_calendar.gif") %>', buttonImageOnly: true }); }); </script> Now i want to use Template Helper, so i want to have above code once i type next sentence: <%=Html.EditorFor(f=>f.BirthDate) %> According to the manual I create DataTime.ascx partial view inside Shared/EditorTemplates folder. I put there above code and stacked with the problem. How can i pass the name of the property that I'm rendering with template helper? As you can see from my example, i really need it, since I'm using the name of the property to specify data value and parameter name that will be send during the POST requsest. Also, I'm using it to generate class name for JS calendar building. I tried to remove my partial class for template helper and made MVC to generate its default behavior. Here what it generated for me: <input type="text" value="04/29/2010" name="LoanApplicationDays" id="LoanApplicationDays" class="text-box single-line"> As you can see, it used the name of the property for "name" and "id" attributes. This example let me to presume that Template Helper knows about the name of the property. So, there should be some way of how to use it in custom implementation. Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • cakephp secure link using html helper link method..

    - by Aaron
    What's the best way in cakephp to extend the html-link function so that I can tell it to output a secure(https) link? Right now, I've added my own secure_link function to app_helpers that's basically a copy of the link function but adding a https to the beginning. But it seems like there should be a better way of overriding the html-link method so that I can specify a secure option. http://groups.google.com/group/cake-php/browse%5Fthread/thread/e801b31cd3db809a I also started a thread on the google groups and someone suggested doing something like $html->link('my account', array('base' => 'https://', 'controller' => 'users')); but I couldn't get that working. Just to add, this is what is outputted when I have the above code. <a href="/users/index/base:https:/">my account</a> I think there's a bug in the cake/libs/router.php on line 850. There's a keyword 'bare' and I think it should be 'base' Though changing it to base doesn't seem to fix it. From what I gather, it's telling it to exclude those keys that are passed in so that they don't get included as parameters. But I'm puzzled as to why it's a 'bare' keyword and the only reason I can come up with is that it's a type.

    Read the article

  • Mysqli query only works on localhost, not webserver

    - by whamo
    Hello. I have changed some of my old queries to the Mysqli framework to improve performance. Everything works fine on localhost but when i upload it to the webserver it outputs nothing. After connecting I check for errors and there are none. I also checked the php modules installed and mysqli is enabled. I am certain that it creates a connection to the database as no errors are displayed. (when i changed the database name string it gave the error) There is no output from the query on the webserver, which looks like this: $mysqli = new mysqli("server", "user", "password"); if (mysqli_connect_errno()) { printf("Can't connect Errorcode: %s\n", mysqli_connect_error()); exit; } // Query used $query = "SELECT name FROM users WHERE id = ?"; if ($stmt = $mysqli->prepare("$query")) { // Specify parameters to replace '?' $stmt->bind_param("d", $id); $stmt->execute(); // bind variables to prepared statement $stmt->bind_result($_userName); while ($stmt->fetch()) { echo $_userName; } $stmt-close(); } } //close connection $mysqli-close(); As I said this code works perfectly on my localserver just not online. Checked the error logs and there is nothing so everything points to a good connection. All the tables exists as well etc. Anyone any ideas because this one has me stuck! Also, if i get this working, will all my other queries still work? Or will i need to make them use the mysqli framework as well? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • jQuery Equal Height Divs

    - by griegs
    If i have the following harkup; <div> <div> <div id='sameHeight'>One<br>two<br>three</div> <div id='sameHeight'>four</div> <div id='sameHeight'>five</div> <div> <div> <div id='sameHeight'>four</div> <div id='sameHeight'>six</div> <div id='sameHeight'>seven<br>eight</div> <div> </div> How can I ensure that all divs marked as "sameHeight" are the same height as their counterparts in the other div? I had a look at equalHeights plugin but that assumes all divs side by side are in the same parent. I need one that can either traverse parents or allow me to specify parents. Is there such a thing or do I need to write it?

    Read the article

  • MVC Paging and Sorting Patterns: How to Page or Sort Re-Using Form Criteria

    - by CRice
    What is the best ASP.NET MVC pattern for paging data when the data is filtered by form criteria? This question is similar to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1425000/preserve-data-in-net-mvc but surely there is a better answer? Currently, when I click the search button this action is called: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Search(MemberSearchForm formSp, int? pageIndex, string sortExpression) {} That is perfect for the initial display of the results in the table. But I want to have page number links or sort expression links re-post the current form data (the user entered it the first time - persisted because it is returned as viewdata), along with extra route params 'pageIndex' or 'sortExpression', Can an ActionLink or RouteLink (which I would use for page numbers) post the form to the url they specify? <%= Html.RouteLink("page 2", "MemberSearch", new { pageIndex = 1 })%> At the moment they just do a basic redirect and do not post the form values so the search page loads fresh. In regular old web forms I used to persist the search params (MemberSearchForm) in the ViewState and have a GridView paging or sorting event reuse it.

    Read the article

  • How to include a child object's child object in Entity Framework 5

    - by Brendan Vogt
    I am using Entity Framework 5 code first and ASP.NET MVC 3. I am struggling to get a child object's child object to populate. Below are my classes.. Application class; public class Application { // Partial list of properties public virtual ICollection<Child> Children { get; set; } } Child class: public class Child { // Partial list of properties public int ChildRelationshipTypeId { get; set; } public virtual ChildRelationshipType ChildRelationshipType { get; set; } } ChildRelationshipType class: public class ChildRelationshipType { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Part of GetAll method in the repository to return all the applications: return DatabaseContext.Applications .Include("Children"); The Child class contains a reference to the ChildRelationshipType class. To work with an application's children I would have something like this: foreach (Child child in application.Children) { string childName = child.ChildRelationshipType.Name; } I get an error here that the object context is already closed. How do I specify that each child object must include the ChildRelationshipType object like what I did above?

    Read the article

  • WPF not applying default styles defined in MergedDictionaries?

    - by Burgberger
    In a WPF application I defined default control styles in separate resource dictionaries (e.g. "ButtonStyle.xaml"), and added them as merged dictionaries to a resource dictionary named "ResDictionary.xaml". If I refer this "ResDictionary.xaml" as merged dictionary in my App.xaml, the default styles are not applied. However, if I refer the "ButtonStyle.xaml", it works correctly. If I recompile the same code in .NET 3.5 or 3.0, it recognizes and applies the default styles referred in "App.xaml" through "ResDictionary.xaml", but not in .NET 4.0. At runtime if I check the Application.Current.Resources dictionary, the default styles are there, but they are not applied, only if I specify the Style property explicitly in the Button control. Are there any solutions to refer a resource dictionary (containig default styles) this way in .NET 4.0? App.xaml: <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Styles/ResDictionary.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> ResDictionary.xaml: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Default/ButtonStyle.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> ButtonStyle.xaml: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Style TargetType="Button"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Yellow"/> </Style> </ResourceDictionary>

    Read the article

  • How to connect remote EJB module from application client

    - by Zeck
    Hi guys, I have a EJB module in remote Glassfish server and application client in my computer. I want to connect from the application client to the remote EJB. Here is the my EJB interface: @Remote public interface BookEJBRemote { public String getTitle(); } Here is the my ejb: @Stateless public class BookEJB implements BookEJBRemote { @Override public String getTitle() { return "Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea"; } } I have several questions : Can I use Dependency Injection in the remote application client to connect to the ejb? If so what can i do to achieve this. Do i need to configure in the sun-ejb-jar.xml and sun-application-client.xml? In other words, if i use DI like @EJB MyEJBRemote ejb; How application client container know what ejb to be injected? Where should i specify the information? How can i run the application client? I tried to run package-appclient in the glassfish server to get appclient.jar and copy it to my computer. Then i type appclient.jar -client myAppClient.jar . It didn't work. How do i point the target server? if i cannot use DI in the client then i guess i have to use JNDI lookup. Do i need to configure jndi name in sun-ejb-jar.xml or in the sun-application-client.xml? No matter how i try i never manage to run application client ? Can you guys put some working example? And thank you for every advises and examples?

    Read the article

  • WPF image cropping

    - by Califer
    I'm loading layers of images to make a single image. I'm currently stacking them all onto a canvas. I've got it set up so the user can specify the final dimensions of the single image, but even when I change the size of the canvas the images retain their original sizes. I tried to modify the image size as I was loading them in, but the sizes were NaN and the Actual Sizes were 0 so I couldn't change them there. I'm starting to think that canvas might not be the way to go. Any suggestions to how I could clip images to fit a specific size? canvas1.Children.Clear(); int totalImages = Window1.GetNumberOfImages(); if (drawBackground) canvas1.Background = new SolidColorBrush(Color.FromArgb(a,r,g,b)); else canvas1.Background = new SolidColorBrush(Color.FromArgb(0, 0, 0, 0)); for (int i = 0; i < totalImages; i++) { Image image = new Image(); image.Source = Window1.GetNextImage(i); canvas1.Children.Add(image); }

    Read the article

  • Accessing Static Methods on a Generic class in c#

    - by mrlane
    Hello, I have the following situation in code, which I suspect may be a bit dodgey: I have a class: abstract class DataAccessBase<T> : IDataAccess where T : AnotherAbstractClass This class DataAccessBase also has a static factory method which creates instances of derived classes of itself using an enum value in a which statement to decide which derived type to create: static IDataAccess CreateInstance(TypeToCreateEnum) Now, the types derived from DataAccessBase<T> are themselves NOT generic, they specify a type for T: class PoLcZoneData : DataAccessBase<PoLcZone> // PoLcZone is derived from AnotherAbstractClass So far I am not sure if this is pushing the limits of good use of generics, but what I am really concerned about is how to access the static CreateInstance() method in the first place: The way I am doing this at the moment is to simply pass any type T where T : AnotherAbstractClass. In particular I am passing AnotherAbstractClass itself. This allows compilation just fine, but it does seem to me that passing any type to a generic class just to get at the statics is a bit dodgey. I have actually simplified the situation somewhat as DataAccessBase<T> is the lower level in the inheritance chain, but the static factory methods exists in a middle tier with classes such as PoLcZoneData being the most derived on the only level that is not generic. What are peoples thoughts on this arrangement?

    Read the article

  • Code Golf: Shortest Turing-complete interpreter.

    - by ilya n.
    I've just tried to create the smallest possible language interpreter. Would you like to join and try? Rules of the game: You should specify a programming language you're interpreting. If it's a language you invented, it should come with a list of commands in the comments. Your code should start with example program and data assigned to your code and data variables. Your code should end with output of your result. It's preferable that there are debug statements at every intermediate step. Your code should be runnable as written. You can assume that data are 0 and 1s (int, string or boolean, your choice) and output is a single bit. The language should be Turing-complete in the sense that for any algorithm written on a standard model, such as Turing machine, Markov chains, or similar of your choice, it's reasonably obvious (or explained) how to write a program that after being executred by your interpreter performs the algorithm. The length of the code is defined as the length of the code after removal of input part, output part, debug statements and non-necessary whitespaces. Please add the resulting code and its length to the post. You can't use functions that make compiler execute code for you, such as eval(), exec() or similar. This is a Community Wiki, meaning neither the question nor answers get the reputation points from votes. But vote anyway!

    Read the article

  • Perl, share package variable without Export

    - by Mike
    I'm creating a group of Perl scripts, and I would like to have one package store a group of constants. I don't want to export them using Exporter because there will be quite a few and I don't want to pollute the namespace. Since there will be so many, I don't want to require the user to be forced to manually specify which they will be using. I think the best way to just use the packagename::var syntax, however it doesn't seem to be working as I expect it to. I illustrate this problem in the below code This is settings.pm, the module that will hold the global settings #!/usr/bin/perl #settings.pm use strict; use warnings; package settings; our $foo="hello world"; 1; Below is the main script #!/usr/bin/perl #script.pl use strict; use warnings; use settings; print settings::$foo; It gives this error message instead or printing hello world Bad name after settings:: at ./script.pl line 8.

    Read the article

  • Getting hardware floating point with android NDK

    - by Goz
    Hi All, I've begun playing with the android NDK. One of the things I've just learnt is about creating an application.mk file to specify the armv7 abi. I'm building the san-angeles example with the following parameters. APP_MODULES := sanangeles APP_PROJECT_PATH := $(call my-dir)/../ APP_OPTIM := release APP_ABI := armeabi-v7a However this seems to run at exactly the same speed as it did before (ie badly). Am I just GL limited and not CPU limited or is something wrong here? I have noticed when I compile that I get the following command line options emitted: -march=armv7-a -mfloat-abi=softfp -mfpu=vfp -mthumb The thing that worries me there is the "softfp". There IS mention of the v7 abi, the VFP fpu stuff and I'm guessing the "thumb" refers to the "thumb-2" instructions (Though I don't know what exactly these are). However that "softfp" does concern me. Shouldn't it be "hardfp"? Anyone got any ideas on these questions? I think I'm probably about ready to start implementing some GL ES 2.0 code for my HTC Desire but I'd like to make sure I'm getting the best possible speed out of it :) Cheers in advance!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164  | Next Page >