Search Results

Search found 4313 results on 173 pages for 'mod rewrite'.

Page 158/173 | < Previous Page | 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165  | Next Page >

  • Where can a self-teacher learn general good programming habits and conventions?

    - by lucid
    A few mistakes and general childishness in early adulthood have left me in a situation where I work a menial job, with no possibility (in the near future) of attending school. I aspire to one day work in the programming field (gaming specifically), after proving myself on the indie end of things. I've gotten very confident in C++, java, and python, and I find I'm able to solve any problem I want either from previous experience, or from scouring the web for help. The solutions work, and with each attempt they become more readable, maintainable, and extensible. But this is because I'm learning from mistakes and bad programming and design habits I feel I might have avoided with actual schooling. General tips like: "if it's hard to read or getting long, or you're writing it twice, it should be in one or more functions." or "design all your classes before you start coding, so you don't have to rewrite classes later when you discover an unforeseen dependency" Is there a good book or website for learning general good programming practices and design habits? Also, naming and format conventions. I realize sometimes development houses have their own conventions, but things like "Classes in python usually have the first letter of each word capitalized". I'd like to be able to show some source code to a potential employer, and be prepared when for what's expected on a team. Is there some central database of naming and formatting conventions somewhere? Also, feel free to give any thoughts on whether or not the self-teach, garner some indie sales, use them as your resume' route is realistic

    Read the article

  • How to implement conditional render in JS?

    - by mare
    Below is the JS (jQuery) code of autocomplete's result function. You can see there's some lines where I print out <li>s containing some data properties (that come in as a result of automcomplete's AJAX call). How could I rewrite this so that <li> would be conditionally rendered based on whether the property contains any value being either int or string (not empty string or whitespace) or something else that can be represented as string? $(".clients-dropdown").result(function (event, data, formatted) { if (data) { // set the hidden input that we need for Client entity rematerialize $(".client-id").val(data.client_id); if (data.ClientName && data.Address1 && data.postalcode && data.postname) { $(".client-address").html( "<li>" + data.ClientName + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Address1 + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.postalcode + " " + data.postname + "</li>" ); $(".client-details").html( "<li>" + data.PrettyId + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.VatNo + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Phone + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Mobile + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Email1 + "</li>" + "<li>" + data.Contact + "</li>" ); } } Also, for the AJAX call, should my server side action return null when there's a null for a property in the database or empty string?

    Read the article

  • Which languages support class replacement?

    - by Alix
    Hi, I'm writing my master thesis, which deals with AOP in .NET, among other things, and I mention the lack of support for replacing classes at load time as an important factor in the fact that there are currently no .NET AOP frameworks that perform true dynamic weaving -- not without imposing the requirement that woven classes must extend ContextBoundObject or MarshalByRefObject or expose all their semantics on an interface. You can however do this in Java thanks to ClassFileTransformer: You extend ClassFileTransformer. You subscribe to the class load event. On class load, you rewrite the class and replace it. All this is very well, but my project director has asked me, quite in the last minute, to give him a list of languages that do / do not support class replacement. I really have no time to look for this now: I wouldn't feel comfortable just doing a superficial research and potentially putting erroneous information in my thesis. So I ask you, oh almighty programming community, can you help out? Of course, I'm not asking you to research this yourselves. Simply, if you know for sure that a particular language supports / doesn't support this, leave it as an answer. If you're not sure please don't forget to point it out. Thanks so much!

    Read the article

  • Why are compilers so stupid?

    - by martinus
    I always wonder why compilers can't figure out simple things that are obvious to the human eye. They do lots of simple optimizations, but never something even a little bit complex. For example, this code takes about 6 seconds on my computer to print the value zero (using java 1.6): int x = 0; for (int i = 0; i < 100 * 1000 * 1000 * 1000; ++i) { x += x + x + x + x + x; } System.out.println(x); It is totally obvious that x is never changed so no matter how often you add 0 to itself it stays zero. So the compiler could in theory replace this with System.out.println(0). Or even better, this takes 23 seconds: public int slow() { String s = "x"; for (int i = 0; i < 100000; ++i) { s += "x"; } return 10; } First the compiler could notice that I am actually creating a string s of 100000 "x" so it could automatically use s StringBuilder instead, or even better directly replace it with the resulting string as it is always the same. Second, It does not recognize that I do not actually use the string at all, so the whole loop could be discarded! Why, after so much manpower is going into fast compilers, are they still so relatively dumb? EDIT: Of course these are stupid examples that should never be used anywhere. But whenever I have to rewrite a beautiful and very readable code into something unreadable so that the compiler is happy and produces fast code, I wonder why compilers or some other automated tool can't do this work for me.

    Read the article

  • Need help with strange Class#getResource() issue

    - by Andreas_D
    I have some legacy code that reads a configuration file from an existing jar, like: URL url = SomeClass.class.getResource("/configuration.properties"); // some more code here using url variable InputStream in = url.openStream(); Obviously it worked before but when I execute this code, the URL is valid but I get an IOException on the third line, saying it can't find the file. The url is something like "file:jar:c:/path/to/jar/somejar.jar!configuration.properties" so it doesn't look like a classpath issue - java knows pretty well where the file can be found.. The above code is part of an ant task and it fails while the task is executed. Strange enough - I copied the code and the jar file into a separate class and it works as expected, the properties file is readable. At some point I changed the code of the ant task to URL url = SomeClass.class.getResource("/configuration.properties"); // some more code here using url variable InputStream in = SomeClass.class.getResourceAsStream("/configuration.properties"); and now it works - just until it crashes in another class where a similiar access pattern is implemented.. Why could it have worked before, why does it fail now? The only difference I see at the moment is, that the old build was done with java 1.4 while I'm trying it with Java 6 now. Workaround Today I installed Java 1.4.2_19 on the build server and made ant to use it. To my totally frustrating surprise: The problem is gone. It looks to me, that java 1.4.2 can handle URLs of this type while Java 1.6 can't (at least in my context/environment). I'm still hoping for an explanation although I'm facing the work to rewrite parts of the code to use Class#getRessourceAsStream which behaved much more stable...

    Read the article

  • How to get the Entire Function from a file

    - by SoLoGHoST
    Ok, I'm reading through a file now, line by line. I know each functions name in the file, since it is defined elsewhere in an XML document. That is what should be this: function function_name Where function_name is the name of the function. I get all of the function definitions from an XML document that I already have put into an array of function names, and I need to grab just those functions from the php file. And rebuild that php file so that it only has those functions in it. That is to say, if a php file has more functions than what is defined in the XML tag, than I need to strip out those functions, and rewrite the .php file with only the functions that the user specified in the XML file. So, the dilemma I face is how to determine the END of a function reading line by line, and I'm aware that functions can have function within them. So I don't want to remove the functions within them. Just functions that are standalone and aren't defined within the accompanying XML file. Any ideas on how to do this?? Thanks :)

    Read the article

  • Index an array expression directly in PostgreSQL

    - by wich
    I'm trying to insert data into a table from a template table. I need to rewrite one of the columns for which I wanted to use a directly indexed array expression, but I can't seem to find how to do this, if it is even possible. The scenario: create table template ( id integer, index integer, foo integer); insert into template values (0, 1, 23), (0, 2, 18), (0, 3, 16), (0, 4, 7), (1, 1, 17), (1, 2, 26), (1, 3, 11), (1, 4, 3); create table data ( data_id integer, foo integer); Now what I'd like to do is the following: insert into data select (array[3,7,5,2])[index], foo from template where id = 1; But this doesn't work, the (array[3,7,5,2])[index] syntax isn't valid. I tried a few variants, but was unable to get anything working and wasn't able to find the correct syntax in the docs, nor even whether this is at all possible or not. As a current workaround I've devised the following, but it is less than ideal, from an elegance perspective at least, but it may also be a performance hit, I haven't looked into that yet. insert into data select arr[index], foo from template, (select array[3,7,5,2] as arr) as q where id = 1; If anyone could suggest a (better) alternative to accomplish this I'd like to hear that as well.

    Read the article

  • How to insert array into mysql using PDO and bindParam?

    - by moomoochoo
    I'm using the following code. The code works, but I want to change it so that it uses bindparam try { $dbh = new PDO("mysql:host=$hostname;dbname=$dbname", $username, $password); $stqid=array(); for ($i=0; $i<$array_count; $i++){ $stqid[$i][0]=$lastInsertValue; $stqid[$i][1]=$qid[$i][0]; $stqid[$i][2]=$qid[$i][1]; } $values = array(); foreach ($stqid as $rowValues) { foreach ($rowValues as $key => $rowValue) { $rowValues[$key] = $rowValues[$key]; } $values[] = "(" . implode(', ', $rowValues) . ")"; } $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO qresults(instance, qid, result) VALUES ".implode (', ', $values)); $dbh = null; } catch(PDOException $e){ echo $e->getMessage(); } I replaced the following $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO qresults(instance, qid, result) VALUES ".implode (', ', $values)); with $sql = "INSERT INTO qresults (instance, qid, result) VALUES (:an_array)"; $stmt = $dbh->prepare($sql); $stmt->bindParam(':an_array', implode(',', $values),PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); but the insert doesn't work anymore (I didn't get any error messages though). QUESTION: What am I doing wrong? How can I rewrite the code to use bindParam?

    Read the article

  • Unit testing, mocking - simple case: Service - Repository

    - by rafek
    Consider a following chunk of service: public class ProductService : IProductService { private IProductRepository _productRepository; // Some initlization stuff public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { return _productRepository.GetProduct(id); } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } } Let's consider a simple unit test: [Test] public void GetProduct_return_the_same_product_as_getProduct_on_productRepository() { var product = EntityGenerator.Product(); _productRepositoryMock.Setup(pr => pr.GetProduct(product.Id)).Returns(product); Product returnedProduct = _productService.GetProduct(product.Id); Assert.AreEqual(product, returnedProduct); _productRepositoryMock.VerifyAll(); } At first it seems that this test is ok. But let's change our service method a little bit: public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { var product = _productRepository.GetProduct(id); product.Owner = "totallyDifferentOwner"; return product; } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } How to rewrite a given test that it'd pass with the first service method and fail with a second one? How do you handle this kind of simple scenarios? HINT: A given test is bad coz product and returnedProduct is actually the same reference.

    Read the article

  • Validation on ManyToManyField before Save in Models.py

    - by Heyl1
    I have the following models: class Application(models.Model): users = models.ManyToManyField(User, through='Permission') folder = models.ForeignKey(Folder) class Folder(models.Model): company = models.ManyToManyField(Compnay) class UserProfile(models.Model): user = models.OneToOneField(User, related_name='profile') company = models.ManyToManyField(Company) What I would like to do is to check whether one of the users of the Application has the same company as the Application (via Folder). If this is the case the Application instance should not be saved. The problem is that the ManyToManyFields aren't updated until after the 'post-save' signal. The only option seems to be the new m2m_changed signal. But I'm not sure how I then roll back the save that has already happened. Another option would be to rewrite the save function (in models.py, because I'm talking about the admin here), but I'm not sure how I could access the manytomanyfield content. Finally I've read something about rewriting the save function in the admin of the model in admin.py, however I still wouldn't know how you would access the manytomanyfield content. I have been searching for this everywhere but nothing I come across seems to work for me. If anything is unclear, please tell me. Thanks for your help! Heleen

    Read the article

  • Which frameworks (and associated languages) support class replacement?

    - by Alix
    Hi, I'm writing my master thesis, which deals with AOP in .NET, among other things, and I mention the lack of support for replacing classes at load time as an important factor in the fact that there are currently no .NET AOP frameworks that perform true dynamic weaving -- not without imposing the requirement that woven classes must extend ContextBoundObject or MarshalByRefObject or expose all their semantics on an interface. You can however do this with the JVM thanks to ClassFileTransformer: You extend ClassFileTransformer. You subscribe to the class load event. On class load, you rewrite the class and replace it. All this is very well, but my project director has asked me, quite in the last minute, to give him a list of frameworks (and associated languages) that do / do not support class replacement. I really have no time to look for this now: I wouldn't feel comfortable just doing a superficial research and potentially putting erroneous information in my thesis. So I ask you, oh almighty programming community, can you help out? Of course, I'm not asking you to research this yourselves. Simply, if you know for sure that a particular framework supports / doesn't support this, leave it as an answer. If you're not sure please don't forget to point it out. Thanks so much!

    Read the article

  • Custom permalinks switching function. Please check this logic...

    - by Scott B
    I've got a setting in my theme options panel to allow the user to switch the permalinks setting to support friendly URLs. I'm only allowing /%postname%/ and /%postname%.html as options. I don't want to be triggering an htaccess rewrite everytime someone accesses a page on the site or views theme options, so I'm trying to code this to avoid that. I've got an input field in theme options that's called $myTheme_permalinks. The default value for this is "/%postname%/" but the user can also change it to "/%postname%.html" Here's the code at the top of theme options to handle this setting. Does this look sound? if(get_option('myTheme_permalinks') =="/%postname%/" && get_option('permalink_structure') !== "/%postname%/" || !get_option('myTheme_permalinks')) { require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/misc.php'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/file.php'); global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->set_permalink_structure('/%postname%/'); $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); update_option('permalink_structure','/%postname%/'); update_option('myTheme_permalinks','/%postname%/'); } else if (get_option('myTheme_permalinks') =="/%postname%.html" && get_option('permalink_structure') !== "/%postname%.html" && ) { require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/misc.php'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/file.php'); global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->set_permalink_structure('/%postname%.html'); $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); update_option('permalink_structure','/%postname%.html'); }

    Read the article

  • Django url rewrites and passing a parameter from Javascript

    - by William T Wild
    As a bit of a followup question to my previous , I need to pass a parameter to a view. This parameter is not known until the JS executes. In my URLConf: url(r'^person/device/program/oneday/(?P<meter_id>\d+)/(?P<day_of_the_week>\w+)/$', therm_control.Get_One_Day_Of_Current_Thermostat_Schedule.as_view(), name="one-day-url"), I can pass it this URL and it works great! ( thanks to you guys). http://127.0.0.1:8000/personview/person/device/program/oneday/149778/Monday/ In My template I have this: var one_day_url = "{% url personview:one-day-url meter_id=meter_id day_of_the_week='Monday' %}"; In my javascript: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: one_day_url , dataType: "json", timeout: 30000, beforeSend: beforeSendCallback, success: successCallback, error: errorCallback, complete: completeCallback }); When this triggers it works fine except I dont necessarily want Monday all the time. If I change the javascript to this: var one_day_url = "{% url personview:one-day-url meter_id=meter_id %}"; and then $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: one_day_url + '/Monday/', dataType: "json", timeout: 30000, beforeSend: beforeSendCallback, success: successCallback, error: errorCallback, complete: completeCallback }); I get the Caught NoReverseMatch while rendering error. I assume because the URLconf still wants to rewrite to include the ?P\w+) . I seems like if I change the URL conf that breaks the abailty to find the view , and if I do what I do above it gives me the NoREverseMatch error. Any guidance would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to retain similar character encoding

    - by Mystere Man
    I have a logfile that contains the half character ½, I need to process this log file and rewrite certain lines to a new file, which contain that character. However, when I write out the file the characters appear in notepad incorrectly. I know this is some kind of encoding issue, and i'm not sure if it's just that the files i'm writing don't contain the correct bom or what. I've tried reading and writing the file with all the available encoding options in the Encoding enumeration. I'm using this code: string line; // Note i've used every version of the Encoding enumeration using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(file, Encoding.Unicode)) using (StreamWRiter sw = new StreamWriter(newfile, false, Encoding.Unicode)) { while ((line = sr.ReadLine()) != null) { // process code, I do not alter the lines, they are copied verbatim // but i do not write every line that i read. sw.WriteLine(line); } } When I view the original log in notepad, the half character displays correctly. When I view the new file, it does not. Can anyone help me to solve this?

    Read the article

  • Rewriting jQuery to plain old javascript - are the performance gains worth it?

    - by Swader
    Since jQuery is an incredibly easy and banal library, I've developed a rather complex project fairly quickly with it. The entire interface is jQuery based, and memory is cleaned regularly to maintain optimum performance. Everything works very well in Firefox, and exceptionally so in Chrome (other browsers are of no concern for me as this is not a commercial or publicly available product). What I'm wondering now is - since pure plain old javascript is really not a complicated language to master, would it be performance enhancing to rewrite the whole thing in plain old JS, and if so, how much of a boost would you expect to get from it? If the answers prove positive enough, I'll go ahead and do it, run a benchmark and report back with the precise findings. Cheers Edit: Thanks guys, valuable insight. The purpose was not to "re-invent the wheel" - it was just for experience and personal improvement. Just because something exists, doesn't mean you shouldn't explore it into greater detail, know how it works or try to recreate it. This is the same reason I seldom use frameworks, I would much rather use my own code and iron it out and gain massive experience doing it, than start off by using someone else's code, regardless of how ironed out it is. Anyway, won't be doing it, thanks for saving me the effort :)

    Read the article

  • HTML relative links on various domains

    - by Adam Kiss
    I have quickie: When you code/develop themes, how do you link to various files in your html/css code? Example: We at our firm use mostly <base target="http://whatever"> in our main template and then just <img src="./images/file.png"> in our html, "/category/page" as links and something alike in our css. However, when testing on different machines, we use ip address rather than localhost on main dev station of coder, so all base links don't work (because localhost goes to viewing machine, not coder's, in our network). Same thing happens when updating pages - on dev server, we have to edit base target, so browsing site won't take us to live site - this part is actually rather simple PHP (if ... echo else echo something else), but it still not solve problem of more coding-testing problems. So, my question is, how do YOU solve it? How do you use relative links, which basically don't care for what domain is the page on and don't care for url rewrite? (because ../images/ is different for / and different for /something/somethingElse/page)?

    Read the article

  • Detect a USB drive being inserted - Windows Service

    - by Tom Bell
    I am trying to detect a USB disk drive being inserted within a Windows Service, I have done this as a normal Windows application. The problem is the following code doesn't work for volumes. Registering the device notification: DEV_BROADCAST_DEVICEINTERFACE notificationFilter; HDEVNOTIFY hDeviceNotify = NULL; ::ZeroMemory(&notificationFilter, sizeof(notificationFilter)); notificationFilter.dbcc_size = sizeof(DEV_BROADCAST_DEVICEINTERFACE); notificationFilter.dbcc_devicetype = DBT_DEVTYP_DEVICEINTERFACE; notificationFilter.dbcc_classguid = ::GUID_DEVINTERFACE_VOLUME; hDeviceNotify = ::RegisterDeviceNotification(g_serviceStatusHandle, &notificationFilter, DEVICE_NOTIFY_SERVICE_HANDLE); The code from the ServiceControlHandlerEx function: case SERVICE_CONTROL_DEVICEEVENT: PDEV_BROADCAST_HDR pBroadcastHdr = (PDEV_BROADCAST_HDR)lpEventData; switch (dwEventType) { case DBT_DEVICEARRIVAL: ::MessageBox(NULL, "A Device has been plugged in.", "Pounce", MB_OK | MB_ICONINFORMATION); switch (pBroadcastHdr->dbch_devicetype) { case DBT_DEVTYP_DEVICEINTERFACE: PDEV_BROADCAST_DEVICEINTERFACE pDevInt = (PDEV_BROADCAST_DEVICEINTERFACE)pBroadcastHdr; if (::IsEqualGUID(pDevInt->dbcc_classguid, GUID_DEVINTERFACE_VOLUME)) { PDEV_BROADCAST_VOLUME pVol = (PDEV_BROADCAST_VOLUME)pDevInt; char szMsg[80]; char cDriveLetter = ::GetDriveLetter(pVol->dbcv_unitmask); ::wsprintfA(szMsg, "USB disk drive with the drive letter '%c:' has been inserted.", cDriveLetter); ::MessageBoxA(NULL, szMsg, "Pounce", MB_OK | MB_ICONINFORMATION); } } return NO_ERROR; } In a Windows application I am able to get the DBT_DEVTYP_VOLUME in dbch_devicetype, however this isn't present in a Windows Service implementation. Has anyone seen or heard of a solution to this problem, without the obvious, rewrite as a Windows application?

    Read the article

  • redirecting the root domain - SEO and other issues, need some guidance!

    - by Jim Sp
    I'm not familiar with some of these forwarding methods and I need help. My issue is this: I have a site hosted on discountasp.net. My domain was registered through 1&1 and I redirected the DNS to what discountasp.net wanted. So when a user types www.mydomain.com, he/she sees the ASP.NET site hosted on discountasp.net, which is all fine My main page is Index.aspx, I really suck at html page design and I don't have time or the talent to fiddle with it (or money to get it done by a pro). The rest of the pages are fine. I want to use a good theme from tumblr or bloggr - one of the blog sites and create a page that I want to use as the first page - directly on blogger or tumblr - say yyy.blogspot.com (I have many reasons, so for now please don't bash my decision - let's just say that's what I want). That means when a user types www.mydomain.com, it should redirect it to the blogger or tumblr page. Everything else stays the sme - the links on the blogger page will say www.mydomain.com/xxxx and show up what's on the hosted website. I have setup the IIS rewrite rules etc. etc. so that all works just fine The bottom line is I want to show an external site's web page as my root page. I suppose I'm struggling to even explain what I want! I can of course do a response.redirect on the Index.aspx page - which is the simplest way to manage this, but the big question is will this hurt SEO in some way? If not, that would be what I do and leave the rest of the infrastructure intact (I have already done this to test and it works fine) Thank you very much j

    Read the article

  • alternatyve in php (from java)

    - by Valdas
    I have some problem have class in java. But now need have in php. it's possible rewrite? Code: public class RealityStream { public RealityStream(byte abyte0[]) { m_dstream = null; m_dstream = new DataInputStream(new ByteArrayInputStream(abyte0)); } public int available() throws IOException { return m_dstream.available(); } public float readFloat() throws IOException { byte byte0 = m_dstream.readByte(); byte byte1 = m_dstream.readByte(); byte byte2 = m_dstream.readByte(); byte byte3 = m_dstream.readByte(); int i = (byte3 & 0xff) << 24 | (byte2 & 0xff) << 16 | (byte1 & 0xff) << 8 | byte0 & 0xff; return Float.intBitsToFloat(i); } public int readInt() throws IOException { byte byte0 = m_dstream.readByte(); byte byte1 = m_dstream.readByte(); byte byte2 = m_dstream.readByte(); byte byte3 = m_dstream.readByte(); return (byte3 & 0xff) << 24 | (byte2 & 0xff) << 16 | (byte1 & 0xff) << 8 | byte0 & 0xff; } public int readShort() throws IOException { byte byte0 = m_dstream.readByte(); byte byte1 = m_dstream.readByte(); return byte1 << 8 | byte0 & 0xff; } public int readUnsignedChar() throws IOException { return m_dstream.readUnsignedByte(); } private DataInputStream m_dstream; } very need. very thaks.

    Read the article

  • How do I deliver mail for wildcard addresses to a particular user/alias/program?

    - by David M
    I need to configure sendmail so that mail delivered for wildcard addresses is accepted for delivery and then delivered to a user, alias, or directly to a script. I can rewrite the envelope/headers any number of ways, but I don't know how to accept the wildcard address when it's provided in RCPT TO: Everything I've tried so far winds up with a 550 user unknown error. So here's a specific example: I want to be able to handle any address that consists of a series of digits followed by a dot followed by a word, then pipe that to a script. If the headers get rewritten, that's OK, but I need the envelope to contain the actual Delivered-To address. Here's the sort of SMTP session I need: 220 blah.foo.com ESMTP server ready; Thu, 22 Apr 2010 20:41:08 -0700 (PDT) HELO blort.foo.com 250 blah.foo.com Hello blort.foo.com [10.1.2.3], pleased to meet you MAIL FROM: <[email protected]> 250 2.1.0 <[email protected]>... Sender ok RCPT TO: <[email protected]> 250 2.1.5 <[email protected]>... Recipient ok I tried some stuff with regex maps, but I never got past 550 user unknown.

    Read the article

  • OpenCV. cvFnName() works, but cv::FunName() doesn't work

    - by Innuendo
    I'm using OpenCV to write a plugin for a simulator. I've made an OpenCV project (single - not a plugin) and it works fine. When I added OpenCV libs to the plugin project, I added all libs required. Visual Studio 2010 doesn't highlight any code line with red. All looks fine and compiles fine. But in execution, the program halts with a Runtime Error on any cv::function. For example: cv::imread, or cv::imwrite. But if I replace them with cvLoadImage() and cvSaveImage(), it works fine. Why does this happen? I don't want to rewrite the whole script in old-api-style (cvFnName). It means I should change all Mat objects to IplImages, and so on. UPDATE: // preparing template ifstream ifile(tmplfilename); if ( !FILE_LOADED && ifile ) { // loading template file Mat tmpl = cv::imread(tmplfilename, 1); // << here occurs error FILE_LOADED = true; } Mat src; Bmp2Mat(hDC, hBitmap, src); TargetDetector detector(src, tmpl); detector.detectTarget(); If I change to: if ( !FILE_LOADED && ifile ) { IplImage* tmpl = 0; tmpl = cvLoadImage(tmplfilename, 1); // no error occurs } And then no error occurs. Early it displayed some Runtime Error. Now, I wanted to copy exact message and it just crashes the application (simulator, what I am pluginning). It displays window error - to kill process or no. (I can't show exact message, because I'm using russian windows now)

    Read the article

  • Interface Builder vs Cocos 2D - how choice the best for your app.

    - by baDa
    Hello everyone! I was a flash developer for 3 years, and in the last 5 months, i begin the iphone development, i do 2 applications with interface builder for clients, and now i really want to do a little game, is quite simple, one match 3! I made the engine in interface builder, and seens good to me! But after i read some posts, i really want to try it in the cocos2D! So, in 2 days i rewrite all my first engine for cocos2D, very annoying upsidedown coordinates but ok, i really do! But the performance side by side with interface builder version is really scare! Many Many slow downs at the cocos2d side! And the animation seens bugged to me! I really scare! I really don't know what is the best choice for a simple game. And i want some opinions: Using cocos2d when need some physics? When we have many objects at screen? What is the performance boost i have with cocos2D? I have how to share this 2 applications with you guys?! Without your UID?!

    Read the article

  • How is this Perl code selecting two different elements from an array?

    - by Mike
    I have inherited some code from a guy whose favorite past time was to shorten every line to its absolute minimum (and sometimes only to make it look cool). His code is hard to understand but I managed to understand (and rewrite) most of it. Now I have stumbled on a piece of code which, no matter how hard I try, I cannot understand. my @heads = grep {s/\.txt$//} OSA::Fast::IO::Ls->ls($SysKey,'fo','osr/tiparlo',qr{^\d+\.txt$}) || (); my @selected_heads = (); for my $i (0..1) { $selected_heads[$i] = int rand scalar @heads; for my $j (0..@heads-1) { last if (!grep $j eq $_, @selected_heads[0..$i-1]); $selected_heads[$i] = ($selected_heads[$i] + 1) % @heads; #WTF? } my $head_nr = sprintf "%04d", $i; OSA::Fast::IO::Cp->cp($SysKey,'',"osr/tiparlo/$heads[$selected_heads[$i]].txt","$recdir/heads/$head_nr.txt"); OSA::Fast::IO::Cp->cp($SysKey,'',"osr/tiparlo/$heads[$selected_heads[$i]].cache","$recdir/heads/$head_nr.cache"); } From what I can understand, this is supposed to be some kind of randomizer, but I never saw a more complex way to achieve randomness. Or are my assumptions wrong? At least, that's what this code is supposed to do. Select 2 random files and copy them. === NOTES === The OSA Framework is a Framework of our own. They are named after their UNIX counterparts and do some basic testing so that the application does not need to bother with that.

    Read the article

  • C# -Fluent interface implementation Help

    - by nettguy
    I am implementing the following piece of code using Fluent Interface design in C# 3.0. The code is working fine. public interface ITrainable { ITrainable AddSkill(string _skill); } public interface ISearchSkill { ISearchSkill SearchSkill(SoftwareEngineer emp,string[] _skills); } public abstract class Person { public Person(){} protected string Name { get; set; } } public class SoftwareEngineer:Person,ITrainable { protected internal List<string> skillSet { get; set; } public SoftwareEngineer() { } public SoftwareEngineer(string name) { Name=name; skillSet = new List<string>(); } public ITrainable AddSkill(string _skill) { skillSet.Add(_skill); return this; } } public class HRExecutive :Person,ISearchSkill { SoftwareEngineer _employee; public HRExecutive() { _employee=new SoftwareEngineer(); } public ISearchSkill SearchSkill(SoftwareEngineer _employee,string[] skills) { this._employee= _employee; foreach (string _skill in skills) { if (_employee.skillSet.Contains(_skill)) { Console.WriteLine(Name + " is trained on " + _skill); } else { Console.WriteLine(Name + " is not trained on " + _skill); } } return this; } } Execution SoftwareEngineer emp1 = new SoftwareEngineer("JonSkeet"); emp1.AddSkill("java").AddSkill("C#").AddSkill("F#"); HRExecutive hr = new HRExecutive(); hr.SearchSkill(emp1, new string[] { "java", "C#" }). SearchSkill(emp1, new string[] { "Oracle", "F#" }); Question : I don't want the skillSet of SoftwareEngineer being accessed by some XXX class.It could be accessed by limited classes.But protected internal List<string> skillSet { get; set; } is the only option (i think) i can declare in order to access the skillSet from HRExecutive.If i do so other XXX class can still access it. How to rewrite the code to prevent it?

    Read the article

  • Oracle 10.1 and 11.2 produce different XML using the same statement

    - by MindFyer
    I am migrating a database from Oracle 10.1 to 11.2 and I have the following problem. The statement SELECT '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?>' || (Xml).getClobVal() AS XmlClob FROM ( SELECT XmlElement( "Element1", ( SELECT XmlAgg(tpx.Xml) FROM ( SELECT XmlElement("Element3",XmlForest('content' as Element4)) AS Xml FROM dual ) tpx ) AS "Element2" ) AS Xml FROM dual ) On the original 10.1 database produces XML like this... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Element1> <Element2> <Element3> <ELEMENT4>content</ELEMENT4> </Element3> </Element2> </Element1> On the new 11.2 system it looks like this... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Element1> <Element3> <ELEMENT4>content</ELEMENT4> </Element3> </Element1> Is there some environmental variable I am missing that tells Oracle how to format its XML. There are hundreds of thousands of lines of PL/SQL in the database; it would be a mammoth task to rewrite if it turned out they had changed they way Oracle formats XML between versions. Hopefully someone has come accross this before. Thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165  | Next Page >