Search Results

Search found 4689 results on 188 pages for 'weak references'.

Page 158/188 | < Previous Page | 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165  | Next Page >

• Web Project for F#

  - by mfeingold

  I am building a project system for Visual Studio MVC web projects with controllers written in F#. It comes along pretty cool. I can build and run the apps, but I have a problem with FSharp Language Service. In the editor it shows the syntax colorization and diagnostic as it should. With one problem - it does not pick up project references. Even though during build it picks them up and successfully builds the project, on the screen it shows the objects/namespaces from the referenced assemblies/projects as unresolved. If somebody out here has some knowledge about integrating with F# Language service - please help me make it work In response to Tomas: The code for F# controllers is in the project file and as I already mentioned I can compile and run it. Originally we kept the F# code in a separate project and desire to get rid of this extra complexity is what prompted this project. It is not a ASP.MVC though it is Bistro MVC. Edit BistroMVC now solves this problem in the latest version of the Bistro Designer which is based on the F# project extender

  Read the article

• symfony + doctrine + inheritance, how to make them work?

  - by imac

  I am beginning to work with Symfony, I've found some documentation about inheritance. But also found this discouraging article, which make me doubt if Doctrine handles inheritance any good at all... Has anyone find a smart solution for inheritance in Symfony+Doctrine? As an example, I have already structured the database something like this: CREATE TABLE `poster` ( `poster_id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `user_name` varchar(50) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`poster_id`), UNIQUE KEY `id` (`poster_id`), ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=3 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; CREATE TABLE `user` ( `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `real_name` varchar(50) DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`user_id`), UNIQUE KEY `user_id` (`user_id`), CONSTRAINT `user_fk` FOREIGN KEY (`user_id`) REFERENCES `poster` (`poster_id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; From that, Doctrine generated this "schema.yml": Poster: connection: doctrine tableName: poster columns: poster_id: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: true user_name: type: string(50) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: true autoincrement: false relations: Post: local: poster_id foreign: poster_id type: many User: local: poster_id foreign: user_id type: many Version: local: poster_id foreign: poster_id type: many User: connection: doctrine tableName: user columns: user_id: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: false real_name: type: string(50) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: false autoincrement: false relations: Poster: local: user_id foreign: poster_id type: one User creation for this structure with Doctrine auto-generated forms does not work. Any clue will be appreciated.

  Read the article

• How to Set up Virtual Static Subdomain

  - by Chip D

  Given current rewrite rules at http://www.example.com/: Options +FollowSymlinks +Includes RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\.example\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^$ RewriteRule ^/?(.*) http://www.example.com/$1 [L,R,NE] # Remove all "index.html"s. RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} \ /(.+/)?index\.html(\?.*)?\ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+/)?index\.html$ /%1 [R=301,L] # Remove all "index.php"s. RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} \ /(.+/)?index\.php(\?.*)?\ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.+/)?index\.php$ /%1 [R=301,L] I'm attempting to serve some site assets (.png|.ico|.jpg|.gif|.css|.js) from a static subdomain like http://static.example.com which my Apache 1.3 shared host (GoDaddy) has mapped to a subdirectory for file management (http://www.example.com/static/). Currently these assets live in same-site subdirectories such as images/, js/, css/, etc. (1) Something...maybe the "+www" rewrite rule?...is not letting me access the subdomain. Is this likely caused by my rewrite rules above, or do I need to set up DNS changes with the host to enable access to the subdirectory, in addition to changing the rewrite rules? (2) Do I have to move those assets to that subdirectory and change all references sitewide? Would that perform the fastest? (3) Or can .htaccess make this much easier? (4) Should my first rewrite rule above include L,R=301,NE instead of [L,R,NE]?

  Read the article

• C++ - Need to learn some basics in a short while

  - by Rubys

  For reasons I will spare you, I have two weeks to learn some C++. I can learn alone just fine, but I need a good source. I don't think I have time to go through an entire book, and so I need some cliff notes, or possibly specific chapters/specialized resources I need to look up. I know my Asm/C/C# well, and so anything inherited from C, or any OOP is not needed. What I do need is some sources on the following subjects(I have a page that specifies what is needed, this is basically it, but I trimmed what I know): new/delete in C++ (as opposed to C#). Overloading cin/cout. Constructor, Destructor and MIL. Embedded Objects. References. Templates. If you feel some basic C++ concept that is not shared with C/C# is not included on this list, feel free to enter those as well. But the above subjects are the ones I'm supposed to roughly know in two week's time. Any help would be appreciated, thanks.

  Read the article

• What is the standard way to bundle OSGi dependent libraries?

  - by Chris

  Hi, I have a project that references a number of open source libraries, some new, some not so new. That said, they are all stable and I wish to stick with my chosen versions until I have time to migrate to the newer versions (I tested hsqldb 2.0 yesterday and it contains many api changes). One of the libraries I have wish to embed is Jasper Reports, but as you all surely know, it comes with a mountain of supporting jar files and I have only need a subset of the mountain (known) therefore I am planning to custom bundle all of my dependant libraries. So: Does everyone custom-make their own OSGi bundles for open-source libraries they are using or is there a master source of OSGi versions of common libraries? Also, I was thinking that it would be far simpler for each of my bundles simply to embed their dependent jars within the bundle itself. Is this possible? If I choose to embed the 3rd party foc libraries within a bundle, I assume I will need to produce 2 jar files, one without the embedded libraries (for libraries to be loaded via the classpath via standard classloader), and one osgi version that includes the embedded libraryy, therefore should I choose a bundle name like this <<myprojectname>>-<<subproject>>-osgi-.1.0.0.jar ? If I cannot embed the open source libraries and choose to custom bundle the open source libraries (via bnd), should I choose a unique bundle name to avoid conflict with a possible official bundle? e.g. <<myprojectname>>-<<3rdpartylibname>>-<<3rdpartylibversion>>.jar ? My non-OSGi enabled project currently scans for custom plugins via scanning the META-INF folders in my various plugin jars via Service.providers(...). If I go OSGi, will this mechanism still work?

  Read the article

• Accomodating Multiple DLL Versions

  - by shadeseeker

  I have an application that uses a Microsoft DLL (Microsoft.ComponentStudio.ComponentPlatformImplementation.dll) which is used for OS deployment and accessing the catalog files. Version 6.0.0.0 is specific to the Windows Server 2008 catalog files. The newer version 6.1.0.0 is specific to Windows Server 2008 R2 catalog files. Attempting to access a catalog file with the incorrect version results in an exception. My application (VB.NET using VS2005) needs to be able to access either version of these catalogs - I'd be happy with two executables (one for each catalog version) but obviously I don't want to maintain two sets of source code for each. Specifying both sets of DLLs in the project reference is not possible as the DLL names are identical. I'd rather not have to manually add and remove the DLL references each time I want to a build. As far as I know the interfaces etc are effectively identical between the two. I've read a few articles here and elsewhere about bindingRedirect, Assembly.Load etc but none seem to be bearing fruit. Any guidance on the best path to follow would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

  Read the article

• ReflectionTypeLoadException when I try to run Enable-Migrations with Entity Framework 5.0

  - by Eric Anastas

  I'm trying to use Entity Framework for the first time on one of my projects. I'm using the code first workflow to automatically create my database. Intitaly setting up the database worked fine. Now I'm trying to migrate changes in my classes into the database. The tutorial I'm reading says I need to run "Enable-Migrations" in the package manager console. Yet when I do this I get the following error PM> Enable-Migrations System.Reflection.ReflectionTypeLoadException: Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes(RuntimeModule module) at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes() at System.Reflection.Assembly.GetTypes() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.FindType[TBase](String typeName, Func`2 filter, Func`2 noType, Func`3 multipleTypes, Func`3 noTypeWithName, Func`3 multipleTypesWithName) at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.GetContextTypeRunner.RunCore() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.Run() Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. What am I doing wrong? How do I retrieve the loader exceptions property? Also NuGet says I have EF 5.0, but Version property of the EntityFramework item in my project references says 4.4.0.0. I'm not sure if this is related.

  Read the article

• Avoid using InetAddress - Getting a raw IP address in network byte order

  - by Mylo

  Hey, I am trying to use the MaxMind GeoLite Country database on the Google App Engine. However, I am having difficulty getting the Java API to work as it relies on the InetAddress class which is not available to use on the App Engine. However, I am not sure if there is a simple workaround as it appears it only uses the InetAddress class to determine the IP of a given hostname. In my case, the hostname is always an IP anyway. What I need is a way to convert an IP address represented as a String into a byte array of network byte order (which the addr.getAddress() method of the InetAddress class provides). This is the code the current API uses, I need to find a way of removing all references to InetAddress whilst ensuring it still works! Thanks for your time. /** * Returns the country the IP address is in. * * @param ipAddress String version of an IP address, i.e. "127.0.0.1" * @return the country the IP address is from. */ public Country getCountry(String ipAddress) { InetAddress addr; try { addr = InetAddress.getByName(ipAddress); } catch (UnknownHostException e) { return UNKNOWN_COUNTRY; } return getCountry(bytesToLong(addr.getAddress())); }

  Read the article

• How do I determine whether calculation was completed, or detect interrupted calculation?

  - by BenTobin

  I have a rather large workbook that takes a really long time to calculate. It used to be quite a challenge to get it to calculate all the way, since Excel is so eager to silently abort calculation if you so much as look at it. To help alleviate the problem, I created some VBA code to initiate the the calculation, which is initiated by a form, and the result is that it is not quite as easy to interrupt the calculation process, but it is still possible. (I can easily do this by clicking the close X on the form, but I imagine there are other ways) Rather than taking more steps to try and make it harder to interrupt calculation, I'd like to have the code detect whether calculation is complete, so it can notify the user rather than just blindly forging on into the rest of the steps in my code. So far, I can't find any way to do that. I've seen references to Application.CalculationState, but the value is xlDone after I interrupt calculation, even if I interrupt the calculation after a few seconds (it normally takes around an hour). I can't think of a way to do this by checking the value of cells, since I don't know which one is calculated last. I see that there is a way to mark cells as "dirty" but I haven't been able to find a way to check the dirtiness of a cell. And I don't know if that's even the right path to take, since I'd likely have to check every cell in every sheet. The act of interrupting calculation does not raise an error, so my ON ERROR doesn't get triggered. Is there anything I'm missing? Any ideas? Any ideas?

  Read the article

• access properties of current model in has_many declaration

  - by seth.vargo

  Hello, I didn't exactly know how to pose this question other than through example... I have a class we will call Foo. Foo :has_many Bar. Foo has a boolean attribute called randomize that determines the order of the the Bars in the :has_many relationship: class CreateFoo < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :foos do |t| t.string :name t.boolean :randomize, :default => false end end end   class CreateBar < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :bars do |t| t.string :name t.references :foo end end end   class Bar < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :foo end   class Foo < ActiveRecord::Base # this is the line that doesn't work has_many :bars, :order => self.randomize ? 'RAND()' : 'id' end How do I access properties of self in the has_many declaration? Things I've tried and failed: creating a method of Foo that returns the correct string creating a lambda function crying Is this possible? UPDATE The problem seems to be that the class in :has_many ISN'T of type Foo: undefined method `randomize' for #<Class:0x1076fbf78> is one of the errors I get. Note that its a general Class, not a Foo object... Why??

  Read the article

• How to deal with a Java serialized object whose package changed?

  - by Alex

  I have a Java class that is stored in an HttpSession object that's serialized and transfered between servers in a cluster environment. For the purpose of this explanation, lets call this class "Person". While in the process of improving the code, this class was moved from "com.acme.Person" to "com.acme.entity.Person". Internally, the class remains exactly the same (same fields, same methods, same everything). The problem is that we have two sets of servers running the old code and the new code at the same time. The servers with the old code have serialized HttpSession object and when the new code unserializes it, it throws a ClassNotFoundException because it can't find the old reference to com.acme.Person. At this point, it's easy to deal with this because we can just recreate the object using the new package. The problem then becomes that the HttpSession in the new servers, will serialize the object with the new reference to com.acme.entity.Person, and when this is unserialized in the servers running the old code, another exception will be thrown. At this point, we can't deal with this exception anymore. What's the best strategy to follow for this kind of cases? Is there a way to tell the new servers to serialize the object with the reference to the old package and unserialize references to the old package to the new one? How would we transition to using the new package and forgetting about the old one once all servers run the new code?

  Read the article

• JPA / Hibernate checks conditions in merge()

  - by bert

  Working with JPA / Hibernate in an OSIV Web environment is driving me mad ;) Following scenario: I have an entity A that is loaded via JPA and has a collection of B entities. Those B entities have a required field. When the user adds a new B to A by pressing a link in the webapp, that required field is not set (since there is no sensible default value). Upon the next http request, the OSIV filter tries to merge the A entity, but this fails as Hibernate complains that the new B has a required field is not set. javax.persistence.PersistenceException: org.hibernate.PropertyValueException: not-null property references a null or transient value Reading the JPA spec, i see no sign that those checks are required in the merge phase (i have no transaction active) I can't keep the collection of B's outside of A and only add them to A when the user presses 'save' (aka entitymanager.persist()) as the place where the save button is does not know about the B's, only about A. Also A and B are only examples, i have similar stuff all over the place .. Any ideas? Do other JPA implementaions behave the same here? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Converting to MVC3 - some views still want 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0,

  - by justSteve

  I've used the directions from the release notes and have been able to navigate most pages - my unit tests are not comprehensive but most all pass. However...when I attempt to edit an existing or create a new user I'm getting the error pasted below - notice that it's references version=1... - this project started life as a v1 and was converted to mvc2 at the RTM. I'm still working with V2 projects but no longer any v1. Am i due for a GAC cleansing? Server Error in '/' Application. Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. === Pre-bind state information === LOG: User = STUDIO11\mUser LOG: DisplayName = System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 (Fully-specified) LOG: Appbase = file:///C:/Users/C:\Users\[path to project]/ LOG: Initial PrivatePath = C:\Users\[path to project]\bin Calling assembly : App_Web_qcjylaoc, Version=0.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null. === LOG: This bind starts in default load context. LOG: Using application configuration file: C:\Users\[path to project]\web.config LOG: Using host configuration file: LOG: Using machine configuration file from C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\config\machine.config. LOG: Post-policy reference: System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35 LOG: The same bind was seen before, and was failed with hr = 0x80070002.

  Read the article

• Nested <ul><li> navigation menu using a recursive Python function

  - by Alex

  Hi. I want to render this data structure as an unordered list. menu = [ [1, 0], [2, 1], [3, 1], [4, 3], [5, 3], [6, 5], [7,1] ] [n][0] is the key [n][1] references the parent key The desired output is: <ul> <li>Node 1</li> <ul> <li>Node 2</li> <li>Node 3</li> <ul> <li>Node 4</li> <li>Node 5</li> <ul> <li>Node 6</li> </ul> </ul> <li>Node 7</li> </ul> </ul> I could probably do this without recursion but that would be no fun. Unfortunately, I am having problems putting it all together. I don't have much experience with recursion and this is proving to be very difficult for me to build and debug. What is the most efficient way to solve this problem in Python? Thanks!

  Read the article

• What are the Limitations for Connecting to an Access Query in Excel

  - by thornomad

  I have an Access 2007 database that has a number of tables, some are fairly large (100,000+ records); I have created a union query to pull some of the same types of data from multiple tables into one large query for pivot table manipulation and reporting. For example: SELECT Language FROM Table1 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table2 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table3; This works. I found, quickly, however, that a union query will not show up when connecting to the datasource from Excel 2007. So, I created a second query to reference the union query. Like so: SELECT * FROM [The Above Union Query]; This query works and it, initially, was accessible from Excel. Time passed, I've added more data. Suddenly, when I connect to my Access database from Excel my query referencing the union has disappeared. MS Access shows no signs of an issue (data displays in Access) and my other non-union queries are showing up in Excel 2007 ... but not the one that references the union. What could be going on? Why did it disappear? I noticed if I switch some of the referenced tables in the union query to a smaller table (with less rows) all of sudden the query appears in Excel again. At least, I think that's what the difference is. I really can't put my finger on why some of the union queries won't show up and some will. Am stumped and need some guidance. Thanks.

  Read the article

• algorithm to find longest non-overlapping sequences

  - by msalvadores

  I am trying to find the best way to solve the following problem. By best way I mean less complex. As an input a list of tuples (start,length) such: [(0,5),(0,1),(1,9),(5,5),(5,7),(10,1)] Each element represets a sequence by its start and length, for example (5,7) is equivalent to the sequence (5,6,7,8,9,10,11) - a list of 7 elements starting with 5. One can assume that the tuples are sorted by the start element. The output should return a non-overlapping combination of tuples that represent the longest continuos sequences(s). This means that, a solution is a subset of ranges with no overlaps and no gaps and is the longest possible - there could be more than one though. For example for the given input the solution is: [(0,5),(5,7)] equivalent to (0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11) is it backtracking the best approach to solve this problem ? I'm interested in any different approaches that people could suggest. Also if anyone knows a formal reference of this problem or another one that is similar I'd like to get references. BTW - this is not homework. Edit Just to avoid some mistakes this is another example of expected behaviour for an input like [(0,1),(1,7),(3,20),(8,5)] the right answer is [(3,20)] equivalent to (3,4,5,..,22) with length 20. Some of the answers received would give [(0,1),(1,7),(8,5)] equivalent to (0,1,2,...,11,12) as right answer. But this last answer is not correct because is shorter than [(3,20)].

  Read the article

• iPhone - Using sql database - insert statement failing

  - by Satyam svv

  Hi, I'm using sqlite database in my iphone app. I've a table which has 3 integer columns. I'm using following code to write to that database table. -(BOOL)insertTestResult { NSArray* paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString* documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString* dataBasePath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"test21.sqlite3"]; BOOL success = NO; sqlite3* database = 0; if(sqlite3_open([dataBasePath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { BOOL res = (insertResultStatement == nil) ? createStatement(insertResult, &insertResultStatement, database) : YES; if(res) { int i = 1; sqlite3_bind_int(insertResultStatement, 0, i); sqlite3_bind_int(insertResultStatement, 1, i); sqlite3_bind_int(insertResultStatement, 2, i); int err = sqlite3_step(insertResultStatement); if(SQLITE_ERROR == err) { NSAssert1(0, @"Error while inserting Result. '%s'", sqlite3_errmsg(database)); success = NO; } else { success = YES; } sqlite3_finalize(insertResultStatement); insertResultStatement = nil; } } sqlite3_close(database); return success;} The command sqlite3_step is always giving err as 19. I'm not able to understand where's the issue. Tables are created using following queries: CREATE TABLE [Patient] (PID integer NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT UNIQUE,PFirstName text NOT NULL,PLastName text,PSex text NOT NULL,PDOB text NOT NULL,PEducation text NOT NULL,PHandedness text,PType text) CREATE TABLE PatientResult(PID INTEGER,PFreeScore INTEGER NOT NULL,PForcedScore INTEGER NOT NULL,FOREIGN KEY (PID) REFERENCES Patient(PID)) I've only one entry in Patient table with PID = 1 BOOL createStatement(const char* query, sqlite3_stmt** stmt, sqlite3* database){ BOOL res = (sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, query, -1, stmt, NULL) == SQLITE_OK); if(!res) NSLog( @"Error while creating %s => '%s'", query, sqlite3_errmsg(database)); return res;}

  Read the article

• Using resources with the same name in Xcode

  - by Roberto

  Is there a way to add multiple resources with the same name to an Xcode project and have 1 of them take priority over the others? Example: I added 2 files, both called icon.png, to an Xcode project. They are on different folders in the file system (Folder1/icon.png and Folder2/icon.png) and on different groups in Xcode. Is there a way to tell Xcode to have Folder2/icon.png take priority over Folder1/icon.png? And if only 1 icon.png exists, then use that one. Thanks. EDIT (2010-12-23): You can have multiple files with the same name in an Xcode project even if they are not in separate folder references, but they are in separate groups. Once compiled, the app bundle (which will be flat with no folders in it), will only have one copy of the file (icon.png). How do you pick which copy of the file to use? I was told that you can do this for BlackBerry. It works something like this: The compiler will go down the list of files in the project and start adding them to the app bundle. If it sees a duplicate, it will overwrite it (or not), so the files at the bottom (or at the top) will have higher precedence and will be the final bundle.

  Read the article

• Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

  - by Coding Gorilla

  I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

  Read the article

• Fluent NHibernate Mappings ClassMap<Entities>....

  - by Pandiya Chendur

  I was going through fluent hibernate getting started tutorial.... In my asp.net mvc web application i have created Entities and Mapping folder as they stated... I created an entity class and i tried to map it my mapping class using this, using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using FluentNhibernateMVC.Entities; namespace FluentNhibernateMVC.Mappings { public class ClientMap : ClassMap<Client> { } } I cant able to find a ClassMap keyword in my autosuggest list why? This is my entity class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace FluentNhibernateMVC.Entities { public class Client { public int ClientId { get; set; } public string ClientName { get; set; } public string ClientMobNo { get; set; } public string ClientAddress { get; set; } public DateTime CreatedDate { get; set; } public byte IsDeleted { get; set; } public int CreatedBy { get; set; } } } I have added all references to my project...Am i missing some thing...

  Read the article

• What new Unicode functions are there in C++0x?

  - by luiscubal

  It has been mentioned in several sources that C++0x will include better language-level support for Unicode(including types and literals). If the language is going to add these new features, it's only natural to assume that the standard library will as well. However, I am currently unable to find any references to the new standard library. I expected to find out the answer for these answers: Does the new library provide standard methods to convert UTF-8 to UTF-16, etc.? Does the new library allowing writing UTF-8 to files, to the console (or from files, from the console). If so, can we use cout or will we need something else? Does the new library include "basic" functionality such as: discovering the byte count and length of a UTF-8 string, converting to upper-case/lower-case(does this consider the influence of locales?) Finally, are any of these functions are available in any popular compilers such as GCC or Visual Studio? I have tried to look for information, but I can't seem to find anything? I am actually starting to think that maybe these things aren't even decided yet(I am aware that C++0x is a work in progress).

  Read the article

• Getting Google repositories to work with apt-get on Ubuntu Hardy

  - by Justin

  I've installed Google Chrome on Hardy via the .deb file and would like to configure apt-get for automatic updates. [I have another machine running Ubuntu Karmic where this works fine; apt-get knows the package as 'google-chrome'; I'm now using a Dell Mini 10 with Ubuntu 8.04 LTS installed] As part of the .deb install, two entries have been added to the third- party software sources tab: http://dl.google.com/linux/deb stable main http://dl.google.com/linux/deb stable non-free main However if I check for updates with either of these clicked, I get the following error: Failed to fetch http://dl.google.com/linux/deb/dists/stable/Release Unable to find expected entry main/binary-lpia/Packages in Meta-index file (malformed Release file?) There is a thread here which indicates others have had the same problem: http://www.google.co.uk/support/forum/p/Chrome/thread?tid=097d103f87b49abe&hl=en This references a further thread: http://code.google.com/p/chromium/issues/detail?id=38608 which suggests the problem has been fixed. Despite this I remain unable to get it to work, and none of the suggested workarounds seem to work either. Ideas ? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Context problem while loading Assemblies via Structuremap

  - by Zebi

  I want to load plugins in a smiliar way as shown here however the loaded assemblies seem not to share the same context. Trying to solve the problem I just build a tiny spike containing two assemblies. One console app and one library. The console app contains the IPlugin interface and has no references to the Plugin dll. I am scanning the plugin dir using a custom Registration convention: ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => x.Scan(s => { s.AssembliesFromPath(@"..\Plugin"); s.With(new PluginScanner()); })); public void Process(Type type, Registry registry) { if (!type.Name.StartsWith("P")) return; var instance = ObjectFactory.GetInstance(type); registry.For<IPlugin>().Add((IPlugin)instance); } Which thows an invalid cast exception saying he can not convert the plugin Type to IPlugin. public class P1 : IPlugin { public void Start() { Console.WriteLine("Hello from P1"); } } Further if I just construct the instance (which works fine by the way) and try to access ObjectFactory in the plugin ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() shows that they don't even share the same container instance. Experimenting around with MEF, Structuremap and loading the assembly manually whith Assembly.Load("Plugin") shows if loaded with Assembly.Load it works fine. Any ideas how I can fix this to work with StructureMaps assembly scanning?

  Read the article

• Anyone Experiencing Slow Builds With VS2010?

  - by MrKWatkins

  Hi, We've recently upgraded to the final release of VS2010 and are experiencing very slow build times compared to the same code under 2008. I was wondering if anyone else is experiencing the same so I can work out whether it's just our environment or not? A few details: Using VS2010 Ultimate on Windows 7 with fairly beefy machines, talking to TFS 2010. The solution has been upgraded from VS2008 but still builds against .NET 3.5 and ASP.NET MVC 1.0. It doesn't seem to be the compilation itself taking long but something else in the build process. This is because even projects that are up to date and don't need compiling are taking a few seconds or so to process. It's not due to an Visual Studio addin because a couple guys in the team haven't installed any. The first build after loading VS2010 is pretty quick, then they seem to slow down over time. For example on of the projects in my solution just took 00:00:00.08 to process after a restart. (The project was up to date and didn't need compiling) I then immediately hit rebuild and it jumps to 00:00:01.33. We're also experiencing the problem with another solution that uses .NET 4.0 that was building perfectly fine under VS2010 RC. There are no build events or anything like that I can blame, just straightforward assembly builds. The IDE is not very responsive during the slow builds. Anyone else has similar problems? Update: It looks like the resolving assembly references is taking a long time. Looking at the MSBuild diagnostic output or the example above the first build has 30ms for ResolveAssemblyReferences, the second build has 800ms. Subsequent builds seem to be taking longer copying stuff around, e.g. CopyFilesToOutputDirectory jumps from 1ms to 27ms.

  Read the article

• Updating iOS application content which include images

  - by azamsharp

  I am working on a Vegetable gardening application. Apart from the vegetable name and description I also have vegetable image. Currently, I have all the images in the Supported Files folder in the Xcode project. But later on I want to update the application dynamically without having the user download a new version. When the user updates the application or downloads new data from the server that data will include the images. Can I store those images in the supporting file folder or somewhere where they can be references by just the name. RELATED QUESTION: I will also allow the user to take pictures of their vegetables and then write notes about the vegetables like "just planted", "about to harvest" etc. What is the recommended approach for storing pictures/photos. I can always store them in the user's photo library and then store the reference in the local database and then fetch and display the picture using the reference. The problem with that approach might be that if the user accidentally deletes the picture from the library then it will no longer be displayed in my application. The only way I see if to store the picture in the app local database as a BLOB.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165  | Next Page >