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  • Sending files from server to client in Java

    - by Lee Jacobson
    Hi, I'm trying to find a way to send files of different file types from a server to a client. I have this code on the server to put the file into a byte array: File file = new File(resourceLocation); byte[] b = new byte[(int) file.length()]; FileInputStream fileInputStream; try { fileInputStream = new FileInputStream(file); try { fileInputStream.read(b); } catch (IOException ex) { System.out.println("Error, Can't read from file"); } for (int i = 0; i < b.length; i++) { fileData += (char)b[i]; } } catch (FileNotFoundException e) { System.out.println("Error, File Not Found."); } I then send fileData as a string to the client. This works fine for txt files but when it comes to images I find that although it creates the file fine with the data in, the image won't open. I'm not sure if I'm even going about this the right way. Thanks for the help.

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  • HTML5 audio object doesn't play on iPad (when called from a setTimeout)

    - by Dan Halliday
    I have a page with a hidden <audio> object which is being started and stopped using a custom button via javascript. (The reason being I want to customise the button, and that drawing an audio player seems to destroy rendering performance on iPad anyway). A simplified example (in coffeescript): // Works fine on all browsers constructor: (@_button, @_audio) -> @_button.on 'click', @_play // Bind button's click event with jQuery _play: (e) => @_audio[0].play() // Call play() on audio element The audio plays fine when triggered from a function bound to a click event, but I actually want an animation to complete before the file plays so I put .play() inside a setTimeout. However I just can't get this to work: // Will not play on iPad constructor: (@_button, @_audio) -> @_button.on 'click', @_play // Bind button's click event with jQuery _play: (e) => setTimeout (=> // Declare a 300ms timeout @_audio[0].play() // Call play() on audio element ), 300 I've checked that @_audio (this._audio) is in scope and that its play() method exists. Why doesn't this work on iPad?

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  • Heroku app throws "Internal Server Error"

    - by picardo
    This app works just fine on my local computer. After pushing it to Heroku, static pages appear to be working but the blog section throws an Internal Server Error. I pulled the logs by running "heroku logs" and this is what I get: ==> production.log <== /usr/ruby1.8.7/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/eventmachine-0.12.10/lib/eventmachine.rb:256:in `run' /home/slugs/215194_e5b887e_c999/mnt/.bundle/gems/gems/thin-1.2.7/lib/thin/backends/base.rb:57:in `start' /home/slugs/215194_e5b887e_c999/mnt/.bundle/gems/gems/thin-1.2.7/lib/thin/server.rb:156:in `start' /home/slugs/215194_e5b887e_c999/mnt/.bundle/gems/gems/thin-1.2.7/lib/thin/controllers/controller.rb:80:in `start' /home/slugs/215194_e5b887e_c999/mnt/.bundle/gems/gems/thin-1.2.7/lib/thin/runner.rb:177:in `send' /home/slugs/215194_e5b887e_c999/mnt/.bundle/gems/gems/thin-1.2.7/lib/thin/runner.rb:177:in `run_command' /home/slugs/215194_e5b887e_c999/mnt/.bundle/gems/gems/thin-1.2.7/lib/thin/runner.rb:143:in `run!' /home/slugs/215194_e5b887e_c999/mnt/.bundle/gems/gems/thin-1.2.7/bin/thin:6 Something wrong with the eventmachine gem, I suppose....but it works fine on my machine. So I'm not sure what's going on or how to debug it.

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  • ASP.NET - Webservice not being called from javascript

    - by Robert
    Ok I'm stumped on this one. I've got a ASMX web service up and running. I can browse to it (~/Webservice.asmx) and see the .NET generated page and test it out.. and it works fine. I've got a page with a Script Manager with the webservice registered... and i can call it in javascript (Webservice.Method(...)) just fine. However, I want to use this Webservice as part of a jQuery Autocomplete box. So I have use the url...? and the Webservice is never being called. Here's the code. [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class User : System.Web.Services.WebService { public User () { //Uncomment the following line if using designed components //InitializeComponent(); } [WebMethod] public string Autocomplete(string q) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); //doStuff return sb.ToString(); } web.config <system.web> <webServices> <protocols> <add name="HttpGet"/> <add name="HttpPost"/> </protocols> </webServices> And the HTML $(document).ready(function() { User.Autocomplete("rr", function(data) { alert(data); });//this works ("#<%=txtUserNbr.ClientID %>").autocomplete("/User.asmx/Autocomplete"); //doesn't work $.ajax({ url: "/User.asmx/Autocomplete", success: function() { alert(data); }, error: function(e) { alert(e); } }); //just to test... calls "error" function });

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  • Very strange client/browser issue

    - by Jeriko
    One of our clients has logged a very strange issue with us- We launched a preview for their website, but when it's viewed on their main PC, peculiar things start to happen... At first, the stylesheet wasn't being found, and so accessing any page resulted in one void of all styles. We sent them a direct link to the stylesheet, which was viewable from all our computers in the office - but gave a "File Not Found" error on their side. I then deleted the file, and replaced it with a new blank file, which he could then access. Copy-pasted screen.css contents into this file, and he could then view it fine, and stylesheets magically worked on the site again. Now, he can view styles, but not the referenced header images. The strange thing is that this problem doesn't exist on any other PC we've tested, or on any other site on the problem computer, but obviously we'd like our client's site to work for them. The strange thing is, they can view other sites of ours, hosted on the same server, built on top of the same CMS (and so most of the files are the same) without problem - but are getting 404s for files that most definitely do exist. Stylesheets are not turned off, nor is anything specifically deactivated on their browser (as other sites are fine) Reloading with CTRL+F5 doesn't help The client is using the latest version of firefox Any ideas here on what to try / how to narrow the problem down?

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  • CSS style refresh in IE after dynamic removal of style link

    - by rybz
    Hi! I've got a problem with the dynamic style manipulation in IE7 (IE8 is fine). Using javascript I need to add and remove the < link / node with the definition of css file. Adding and removing the node as a child of < head / works fine under Firefox. Unfortunately, after removing it in the IE, although The tag is removed properly, the page style does not refresh. In the example below a simple css (makes background green) is appended and removed. After the removal in FF the background turns default, but in IE stays green. index.html <html> <head> </head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var node; function append(){ var headID = document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0]; node = document.createElement('link'); node.type = 'text/css'; node.rel = 'stylesheet'; node.href = "s.css"; node.media = 'screen'; headID.appendChild(node); } function remove(){ var headID = document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0]; headID.removeChild(node); } </script> <body> <div onClick="append();"> add </div> <div onClick="remove();"> remove </div> </body> </html> And the style sheet: s.css body { background-color:#00CC33 } Here is the live example: http://rlab.pl/dynamic-style/ Is there a way to get it working?

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  • Android: Help with tabs view

    - by James
    So I'm trying to build a tabs view for an Android app, and for some reason I get a force close every time I try to run it on the emulator. When I run the examples, everything shows fine, so I went as far as to just about copy most of the layout from the examples(a mix of Tabs2.java and Tabs3.java), but for some reason it still wont run, any ideas? Here is my code(List1.class is a copy from the examples for testing purposes). It all compiles fine, just gets a force close the second it starts: package com.jvavrik.gcm; import android.app.TabActivity; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.TabHost; import android.widget.TextView; public class GCM extends TabActivity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); final TabHost tabHost = getTabHost(); tabHost.addTab(tabHost.newTabSpec("tab1") .setIndicator("g", getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.star_big_on)) .setContent(new Intent(this, List1.class))); tabHost.addTab(tabHost.newTabSpec("tab2") .setIndicator("C") .setContent(new Intent(this, List1.class)) ); tabHost.addTab(tabHost.newTabSpec("tab3") .setIndicator("S") .setContent(new Intent(this, List1.class)) ); tabHost.addTab(tabHost.newTabSpec("tab4") .setIndicator("A") .setContent(new Intent(this, List1.class)) ); } }

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  • Is there some formal way to update the browser detection files for ASP.Net?

    - by Deane
    I have an ASP.Net site on which we're using control adapters. We have the adapters mapped to a "refID" of "Default." These adapters are working fine on all browsers except Chrome and Safari. For those browsers, they do not execute. I've given up trying to figure out why -- I have a question here on SO that no one has been able to answer, and I've been researching it for days now. It's just inexplicable. I have tested the same code in my local environment, and it works just fine. Additionally, no one else can replicate my problem on other servers. It seems to be somehow confined to the machines at my client's site. Could they be somehow out-of-date? If this is the case, is there some way to "update" the .browser files? I'm half-tempted to just copy the .browser files out of the Framework directory from my machine over to theirs, but I'm curious is there's something more formal than this? Is there some other source of data that ASP.Net uses for browser detection other than these files?

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  • Updating entity fields in app engine development server

    - by Joey
    I recently tried updating a field in one of my entities on the app engine local dev server via the sdk console. It appeared to have updated just fine (a simple float). However, when I followed up with a query on the entity, I received an exception: "Items in the mSomeList list must all be Key instances". mSomeList is just another list field I have in that entity, not the one I modified. Is there any reason manually changing a field would adversely throw something off such that the server gets confused? Is this a known bug? I wrote an http handler to alter the field through server code and it works fine if I take that approach. Update: (adding details) I am using the python google app engine server. Basically if I go into the Google App Engine Launcher and press the SDK Console button, then go into one of my entities and edit a field that is a float (i.e. change it from 0 to 3.5, for instance), I get the "Items in the mMyList list must all be Key instance" suddenly when I query the entity like this: query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() the RegionData entity is what has the mMyList member. As mentioned previously, if I do not manually change the field but rather do so through server code, i.e. query = DataModels.RegionData.gql("WHERE mRegion = :1", region) entry = query.get() entry.mMyFloat = 3.5 entry.put() Then it works.

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  • Spring security - same page to deliver different content based on user role

    - by Ramesh
    Hello, i tried to search for any previous post related to my issue but couldnt find any. I have a scenario where in page handles 3 different scenarios and one of them not working. This page returns different content depending on if the user is authenticated or anonymous. localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=authenticatedContent - used for Scenario 1 & 2 localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=anonymousContent - used for Scenario 3 Scenario: 1) Authenticated user accesing the page url - the user gets displayed correct information. Works fine 2) Anonymous user accesing page URL with parameters that requires authentication - If anonymous, there is second level of check on the content they are accessing. for example, based on the GET parameters, there is custom logic to determine if the user has to be authenticated. In which case the page gets redirected to login page (WORKS fine). 3) Anonymous user accessing page URL with parameters that doesnt need authentication - in this case i get the SAvedRequest and redirect to the URL which is taking me to an infinite loop. Am i missing something very obvious or is there a way in AuthenticationProcessFilterEntryPoint to say "DON'T redirect to LOGIN page but process it" ? thanks.

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  • Circular Reference exception with JSON Serialisation with MVC3 and EF4 CTP5w

    - by nakchak
    Hi I'm having problems with a circular reference when i try and serialise an object returned via EF4 CTP5. Im using the code first approach and simple poco's for my model. I have added [ScriptIgnore] attributes to any properties that provide a back references to an object and annoyingly every seems to work fine if i manually instantiate the poco's, i.e. they serialise to JSON fine, and the scriptignore attribute is acknowledged. However when i try and serialise an object returned from the DAL i get the circular reference exception "A circular reference was detected while serializing an object of type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.xxxx'" I have tried several ways of retreiving the data but they all get stuck with this error: public JsonResult GetTimeSlot(int id) { TimeSlotDao tsDao = new TimeSlotDao(); TimeSlot ts = tsDao.GetById(id); return Json(ts); } The method below works slightly better as rather than the timeslot dynamic proxied object causing the circular refference its the appointment object. public JsonResult GetTimeSlot(int id) { TimeSlotDao tsDao = new TimeSlotDao(); var ts = from t in tsDao.GetQueryable() where t.Id == id select new {t.Id, t.StartTime, t.Available, t.Appointment}; return Json(ts); } Any ideas or solutions to this problem? Update I would prefer to use the out of the box serialiser if possible although Json.Net via nuget is ok as an alternative i would hope its possible to use it as I intended as well...

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  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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  • VB.Net - Launch app on Windows startup

    - by Queops
    We all now the tricky folders where your application runs when you publish your VB.NET to other people, but I won't give up on the benefits of the system (auto-update, you know). Problem is: Program is supposed to startup, or not, with Windows if the user wishes so. I'm saving program preferences into My.Settings. All fine with that. If you debug it it will save the values between sessions. The problem is after deployment. I installed the program on a testing machine. Application works okay, the settings load, if it's the user launching it by themselfs (using shortcut on desktop for example). Now upon restarting the program does indeed start up as I want it to but the My.Settings don't show up! It's like the config file has been erased. If I close program and re-open by clicking shorcut it loads the settings just fine though. So I wonder what's the problem? This is the code I use to save the registry key: regKey = Registry.CurrentUser.OpenSubKey("SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run", True) regKey.SetValue("ScapeTracker", Chr(34) & Application.ExecutablePath & Chr(34) & " startup") Does what it's supposed to. The startup parameter is needed so the program knows if it's launched on startup on not (to show up on tray and idle there until user decides to use it). So the problem is that I can't use the settings upon restart of Windows, so I'm assuming the VB.Net applications have some extra parameters when launching? How can I solve this?

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  • In a Tab Bar based app a controller release data of the other ! !

    - by Flodev03
    Hi all ! I've made a ViewBased app, in the app delegate i've set a UITabBarCotntroller, in the app i have different view Controller two of them displays text in a UITextView and labels, the other one is my "ShakeController" a UIViewController in which i've set a UIAcelerometerDelegate, in it i create a instance of UIAccelerometer, in the method which manages the shake everything works fine, in this controller i have also set a UIImageView to make a simple animation, in the view Did Load method i set my imageView.animation to an array of UIImage. My problem is : when the app is launched i use the ViewControllers and everything work fine, but when i tap the ShakeController item in the tab bar and then when i come back to the other controllers the label looks like : label and textView like : Lorem ipsum..... the text of UItextView in IB. I have noticed thaht if i comment the initialisation of my imageView to the array of image i can navigate the items (from a view controller to another) without the label change and stay what i want them to be. Notice that the two controllers are in a UINavigationController. (i use @proprety (nonnatomic, retain) then @synthesize ... then releqse in the dealloc for the labels textview and my uiimageView) Do not know what to do thanks to all

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  • Do database engines other than SQL Server behave this way?

    - by Yishai
    I have a stored procedure that goes something like this (pseudo code) storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin select * from SOME_VIEW order by somecolumn end else if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent end All ran well for a long time. Suddenly, the query started running forever if param4 was 'Y'. Changing the code to this: storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin set param2 = null set param3 = null end if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent And it runs again within expected parameters (15 seconds or so for 40,000+ records). This is with SQL Server 2005. The gist of my question is this particular "feature" specific to SQL Server, or is this a common feature among RDBMS' in general that: Queries that ran fine for two years just stop working as the data grows. The "new" execution plan destroys the ability of the database server to execute the query even though a logically equivalent alternative runs just fine? This may seem like a rant against SQL Server, and I suppose to some degree it is, but I really do want to know if others experience this kind of reality with Oracle, DB2 or any other RDBMS. Although I have some experience with others, I have only seen this kind of volume and complexity on SQL Server, so I'm curious if others with large complex databases have similar experience in other products.

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  • How to reference an embedded JCA resource adapater

    - by cg
    For our current J2EE project based on JBoss, we need to interface with a remote system using message driven beans and a JCA resource adapter provided as a RAR file by a third party. I would like to package and deploy the entire project as an EAR file to our JBoss server. Most notably, the RAR file should be embedded within the EAR file and not be deployed globally. All of this is working fine so far, but I'm not particularly happy with the way the RAR file is referenced. The jboss.xml packaged with the MDB for example, currently looks like this: <jboss> <enterprise-beans> <message-driven> <ejb-name>testBean1</ejb-name> <resource-adapter-name>test1.ear#thirdparty-1.0.rar</resource-adapter-name> </message-driven> </enterprise-beans> </jboss> While this is generally working fine, it will break when the EAR file is renamed to "test2.ear". Is there a way to reference the embedded RAR file without hard-coding the containing archive's name?

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  • Why aren't these Canvases rendering?

    - by bpapa
    I'm creating a web app that allows users to enter a number of colors, by specifying RGB values. Upon submission, the user will see a canvas with a solid rectangle drawn in the color chosen. On this page, I have 7 canvases. The first one draws just fine, but none of the rest show up. The browser is Safari. Here's the relevant code: First, the script element in the header, which defines the function I use to draw to the canvas. <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- function drawCanvas(canvasId, red, green, blue) { var theCanvas = document.getElementById("canvas" + canvasId); var context = theCanvas.getContext("2d"); context.clearRect(0,0,100,100); context.setFillColor(red,green,blue,1.0); context.fillRect(0,0,100,100); } // --> </script> Next, the HTML source, where I have my canvas tags and some embedded Javascript to call my drawCanvas function <canvas id="canvas0" width="100" height="100"> </canvas> <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- drawCanvas(0,250,0,0); // --> </script> . . //more source . <canvas id="canvas1" width="100" height="100"> </canvas> <script language="JavaScript" TYPE="text/javascript"><!-- drawCanvas(1,4,250,6); // --> </script> Also provided is a screenshot. As you can see, the "red" canvas comes up just fine, but the second one, which should be green, doesn't show up at all. Any ideas?

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  • Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

    - by Adam Pope
    I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

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  • Memory efficient collection class

    - by Joe
    I'm building an array of dictionaries (called keys) in my iphone application to hold the section names and row counts for a tableview. the code looks like this: [self.results removeAllObjects]; [self.keys removeAllObjects]; NSUInteger i,j = 0; NSString *key = [NSString string]; NSString *prevKey = [NSString string]; if ([self.allResults count] > 0) { prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:[[[self.allResults objectAtIndex:0] valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; for (NSDictionary *theDict in self.allResults) { key = [NSString stringWithString:[[theDict valueForKey:@"name"] substringToIndex:1]]; if (![key isEqualToString:prevKey]) { NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; prevKey = [NSString stringWithString:key]; i = 1; } else { i++; } j++; } NSDictionary *newDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: [NSNumber numberWithInt:i],@"count", prevKey,@"section", [NSNumber numberWithInt:j], @"total",nil]; [self.keys addObject:newDictionary]; } [self.tableview reloadData]; The code works fine first time through but I sometimes have to rebuild the entire table so I redo this code which orks fine on the simulator, but on my device the program bombs when I execute the reloadData line : malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug malloc: *** mmap(size=3772944384) failed (error code=12) *** error: can't allocate region *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. If I remove the reloadData line the code works on the device. I'm wondering if this is something to do with the way I've built the keys array (ie using autoreleased strings and dictionaries).

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  • Address family not supported by protocol exception

    - by srg
    I'm trying to send a couple of values from an android application to a web service which I've setup. I'm using Http Post to send them but when I run the application I get the error- request time failed java.net.SocketException: Address family not supported by protocol. I get this while debugging with both the emulator as well as a device connected by wifi. I've already added the internet permission using: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> This is the code i'm using to send the values void insertData(String name, String number) throws Exception { String url = "http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/"; HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost post = new HttpPost(url); try { List<NameValuePair> params = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("a", name)); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("b", number)); post.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(params)); HttpResponse response = client.execute(post); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } Also I know that my web service work fine because when I send the values from an html page it works fine - <form name="form1" action="http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/" method="post"> <input type="text" name="a"/> <input type="text" name="b"/> <input type="submit"/> I've seen questions of similar problems but haven't really found a solution. Thanks

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  • Template compilation error in Sun Studio 12

    - by Jagannath
    We are migrating to Sun Studio 12.1 and with the new compiler [ CC: Sun C++ 5.10 SunOS_sparc 2009/06/03 ]. I am getting compilation error while compiling a code that compiled fine with earlier version of Sun Compiler [ CC: Sun WorkShop 6 update 2 C++ 5.3 2001/05/15 ]. This is the compilation error I get. "Sample.cc": Error: Could not find a match for LoopThrough(int[2]) needed in main(). 1 Error(s) detected. * Error code 1. CODE: #include <iostream> #define PRINT_TRACE(STR) \ std::cout << __FILE__ << ":" << __LINE__ << ":" << STR << "\n"; template<size_t SZ> void LoopThrough(const int(&Item)[SZ]) { PRINT_TRACE("Specialized version"); for (size_t index = 0; index < SZ; ++index) { std::cout << Item[index] << "\n"; } } /* template<typename Type, size_t SZ> void LoopThrough(const Type(&Item)[SZ]) { PRINT_TRACE("Generic version"); } */ int main() { { int arr[] = { 1, 2 }; LoopThrough(arr); } } If I uncomment the code with Generic version, the code compiles fine and the generic version is called. I don't see this problem with MSVC 2010 with extensions disabled and the same case with ideone here. The specialized version of the function is called. Now the question is, is this a bug in Sun Compiler ? If yes, how could we file a bug report ?

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  • Problem with impersonating a specific user in WCF service

    - by aJ
    I am having a WCF service hosted in IIS on WindowsServer 2008. This service needs to write to a shared folder present on another machine(Windows XP). The shared folder has write permissions for a particular user say "X" which is present on both the machines .i.e on the server where the service is running as well as the machine where the shared folder is present. The service runs under the NETWORK SERVICE account. For the service to access the shared folder I have added code to impersonate the user "X"in the service so that it gets the permission to write to the shared folder. Since I want to impersonate user "X" only when I run a particular section of code I have used the sample code. Even after the impersonation the service fails to write to the shared folder sometimes. It works sporadically. Whereas if I add tag in the Web.config file it works perfectly fine. <identity impersonate="true" userName="accountname" password="password" /> But the above is not desirable since it impersonates a specific user for all the requests. What I need is to impersonate a specific user only when I run a particular section of code. Also, the impersonation code works absolutely fine when the shared folder is present on another WindowsServer 2008. Could anyone give me ideas on what's going wrong here.

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  • edmx - The operation could not be completed - When adding Inheritance

    - by vdh_ant
    Hey guys I have an edmx model which I have draged 2 tables onto - One called 'File' and the other 'ApplicaitonFile'. These two tables have a 1 to 1 relationship in the database. If I stop here everything works fine. But in my model, I want 'ApplicaitonFile' to inherit from 'File'. So I delete the 1 to 1 relationship then configure 'ApplicaitonFile' from 'File' and then remove the FileId from 'ApplicaitonFile' which was the primary key. (Note I am following the instructions from here). If I leave the model open at this point everything is fine, but as soon as I close it, if I try and reopen it again I get the following error "The operation could not be completed". I have been searching for a solution and found this - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/944050/entity-model-does-not-load but as far as I can tell I don't have a duplicate InheritanceConnectors (although I don't know exactly what I'm looking for but I can't see anything out of the ordinary - like 2 connectors with the same name) and the relationship I originally have is a 1 to 1 not a 1 to 0..1 Any ideas??? this is driving me crazy...

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  • Adobe Air update error "file version doesn't match" but it's the same!...

    - by baroquedub
    I'm using Claus Wahlers' AIR Remote Updater class (codeazur.com.br/lab/airremoteupdater/). All works fine and an update is triggered if the remote version is newer. The newer file is downloaded and the update starts. However I then get "an error has occured" message: "This application cannot be installed because this installer has been mis-configured" (The same file will update without errors when run manually "Would you like to replace the currently installed version?" Choosing 'replace' works fine) I have enabled Air Application Installer logging and I can see that both the app id and the pub id match - this seems to be a common reason for this problem (forums.adobe.com/thread/243421?tstart=60) The error given in the log file is as follows: AIR file version doesn't match Requested version: ; AIR file version: 1.0.2 But if I unzip the new app file and look at META-INF\AIR\application.xml the version designator shows <version>1.0.2</version> As requested! The log file is also showing me where the newer file is being downloaded and unpacked. If I look at the application.xml file in that directory: Unpackaging to C:\Documents and Settings\myusername\Local Settings\Temp\fla893D.tmp the version designator also shows <version>1.0.2</version> I don't get it?! The log tells me that the requested file version doesn't match but it's exactly the same as what's shown in the version designator of the downloaded update package... This is driving me crazy. Can anyone help?

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  • iPodMusicPlayer playbackState inaccurate after odd conditions

    - by Shane Costello
    I have a simple music player app that runs into a really weird problem. First of all, while playing music and in the locked state, I allow the user to double click the Home button and use the locked iPod music controls. I did notice however that while in the locked state, my app doesn't receive any of its registered notifications. For the most part, this is fine anyway. But, if the user is playing music for at least 15 minutes (I'm not sure why but any less and this problem doesn't occur) while in the locked state, and using some kind of headphone or aux jack, then unplugs the headphone/aux jack while the device is still playing music, the iPodMusicPlayer will auto-pause. Which is exactly what I would want it to do, but after this happens, when the user unlocks their device and gives focus to the app again, the iPodMusicPlayer's playbackState is inaccurate. - (IBAction)playPause:(id)sender { if ([musicPlayer playbackState] == MPMusicPlaybackStatePlaying) { [musicPlayer pause]; } else { [musicPlayer play]; } } where musicPlayer = [MPMusicPlayerController iPodMusicPlayer]. Under normal circumstances, this runs perfectly fine. But after these conditions, my breakpoint will hit the condition for MPMusicPlaybackStatePlaying while the music is paused, and vice versa. The only way I've been able to fix this is to either make a new selection of music or to terminate the app and reopen. I've tried tons of a workarounds to fix this problem programmatically, but nothing turns out a 100% bug free fix. Does anyone have any clue as to why this happens in the first place?

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