Search Results

Search found 43474 results on 1739 pages for 'configuration database'.

Page 1607/1739 | < Previous Page | 1603 1604 1605 1606 1607 1608 1609 1610 1611 1612 1613 1614  | Next Page >

• In IIS6, how to provide authenticated access to static files on remote server

  - by frankadelic

  We have a library of ZIP files that we would like to make available for download at an ASP.NET site. The files are sitting on a NAS device that is accessible from out web farm. Here is our initial strategy: Map an IIS virtual directory to the shared drive at path /zipfiles Users can download the zip files when given the URL However, if users share links to the files, anyone can download them. We would instead like to make use of the ASP.NET forms authentication in our site to validate users' requests before initiating the file transfer. A few problems: A request for a zip file is handled by IIS, not ASP.NET. So it is not subject to forms authentication. In addition, we don't want ASP.NET to handle the request, because it uses up an ASP.NET thread and is not scalable for download of large files. So, configuring the asp.net dll to handle *.zip requests is not an option. Any ideas on this? One idea we've tossed around is this: Initial request for download will be for an ashx handler. This handler will, after authentication, generate a download token which is saved to a database. Then, the user is redirected to the file with token appended in QueryString (e.g. /files/xyz.zip?token=123456789). An ISAPI plugin will be used to check the token. Also, the token will expire after x amount of time. Any thoughts on this? I have not implemented an ISAPI plugin so I'm not sure if this will even work. I would like to avoid custom coding since security is an issue and I'd prefer to use a time-tested solution.

  Read the article

• Visual Studio 2008 project file does not load because of an unexpected encoding change.

  - by Xenan

  In our team we have a database project in visual Studio 2008 which is under source control by Team Foundation Server. Every two weeks or so, after one co-worker checks in, the project file won't load on the other developers machines. The error message is: The project file could not be loaded. Data at the root level is invalid. Line 1, position 1. When I look at the project file in Notepad++, the file looks like this: ??<NUL?NULxNULmNULlNUL NULvNULeNULrNULsNULiNULoNULnNUL ... and so on (you can see <?xml version in this) whereas an normal project file looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> ... So probably something is wrong with the encoding of the file. This is a problem for us because it turns out to be impossible to get the file encoding correct again. The 'solution' is to throw away the project file an get the last know working version from source control. According to the file, the encoding should be UTF-16. According to Notepad++, the corrupted file is actually UTF-8. My questions are: Why is Visual Studio messing up the encoding of the project file, apparently at random times and at random machines? What should we do to prevent this? When it has happened, is there a possibility to restore the current file in the correct encoding instead of pulling an older version from source control? As a last note: the problem is with one single project file, all other project files don't expose this problem.

  Read the article

• MySQL where condition but not limited by it

  - by Manny Calavera

  Hello. I would like to run a query on my database like this: SELECT SUM( t1.value ) AS total1, SUM( t2.value ) AS total2, SUM( t3.value ) AS total3, SUM( t4.value ) AS total4 FROM pay1 t1, pay2 t2, pay3 t3, pay4 t4 WHERE t1.date = '2010-04-29' AND t2.date = '2010-04-29' AND t3.date = '2010-04-29' AND t4.date = '2010-04-29' I am generating a report on payments and I would like to see a total of payments from each table based on the matching date. The problem is that some of the tables would not meet the condition of date and I want them to show up with 0 value if not. Currently, if any of the tables does not match the date, I get 0 results. I want to display value of 0 anywhere the date is not met and other fields should appear with the found values. The perfect operand for me would be "ANDOR" so that it won't be limited by any date that doesn't math in any table. Unfortunately, ANDOR does not exist as I am aware of so what should I do ? Can anyone help ? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Executing sequential stored procedures; works in query analyzer, doesn't in my .NET application

  - by evanmortland

  Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called MyOther DB with a stored procedure called 'CreatedAudit' as well. In other words in MyDB I have CreateAudit, which does the following EXEC dbo.MyOtherDB.CreateAudit. I call the MyDb CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") One line after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

  Read the article

• jQuery inconsistent .remove by class on element with multiple classes

  - by pedalpete

  I've got a page where messages and associated elements (responses, forwards, etc) all share a class based on the database id of the parent. For example this is a message this is another message this is a comment this is another comment tim posted a new message sara forwarded a message to john at times I need to remove all elements with the same id, so I originally had jQuery('div#'+id).remove(); but that would sometimes not remove all the ids because ids are supposed to be unique. So I added the id as a class. now I use jQuery('div.'+id).remove(); but this seems to be about 80% effective, and sometimes the divs aren't being removed. I'm not sure if the issue is because the div has more than one class, but I need the classes because that is how I refer to the elements when somebody clicks. For instance, jQuery('div.message').click(function(){ get the id, send it to the server and get the message }); is there something wrong I'm doing here? or is there a better way to do this?

  Read the article

• Help with my PHP template class

  - by blerh

  I want to separate the output of HTML from my program code in my projects, so I wrote a very simple database class. <?php class Template { private $template; function load($filePath) { if(!$this->template = file_get_contents($filePath)) $this->error('Error: Failed to open <strong>' . $filePath . '</strong>'); } function replace($var, $content) { $this->template = str_replace("{$var}", $content, $this->template); } function display() { echo $this->template; } function error($errorMessage) { die('die() by template class: <strong>' . $errorMessage . '</strong>'); } } ?> The thing I need help with is the display() method. Say for example I use this code: $tplObj = new Template(); $tplObj->load('index.php'); $tplObj->replace('{TITLE}', 'Homepage'); $tplObj->display(); And the index.php file is this: <html> <head> <title>{TITLE}</title> </head> <body> <h1>{TITLE}</h1> <?php if($something) { echo '$something is true'; } else { echo '$something is false'; } ?> </body> </html> I'm just wondering if the PHP code in there would be run? Or would it just be sent to the browser as plaintext? I was using eval() in my template class but I hate that function :P Thanks.

  Read the article

• Using Rails Helper Methods within ActionRecord Queries?

  - by Pygmalion

  I have a table of events (in a sqlite3 database for what it's worth) with a column called "when" that contains a timestamp detailing precisely when the event that particular row denotes is set to occur. Right now, I have @events = Event.find(:all) in my controller and I am using template helper methods to calculate where to place each event on my display page based on the day of the week it occurs on. For example: <% if(event.when.wday == 6) %> # DO SOMETHING <% end %> I want to abstract this logic to the controller however. My idea was to do the following: @thursday_events = Event.find(:all, :conditions => ["when.wday=4"]) Obviously (I guess?) this didn't work. Throwing the error "SQLite3::SQLException: near "when": syntax error: SELECT * FROM "events" WHERE (when.wday=4)". I'm assuming this is because I tried to use a helper method within a find condition but I don't know a better way to do this. Any advice? Thanks!

  Read the article

• How to work threading with ConcurrentQueue<T>.

  - by dboarman

  I am trying to figure out what the best way of working with a queue will be. I have a process that returns a DataTable. Each DataTable, in turn, is merged with the previous DataTable. There is one problem, too many records to hold until the final BulkCopy (OutOfMemory). So, I have determined that I should process each incoming DataTable immediately. Thinking about the ConcurrentQueue<T>...but I don't see how the WriteQueuedData() method would know to dequeue a table and write it to the database. For instance: public class TableTransporter { private ConcurrentQueue<DataTable> tableQueue = new ConcurrentQueue<DataTable>(); public TableTransporter() { tableQueue.OnItemQueued += new EventHandler(WriteQueuedData); // no events available } public void ExtractData() { DataTable table; // perform data extraction tableQueue.Enqueue(table); } private void WriteQueuedData(object sender, EventArgs e) { BulkCopy(e.Table); } } My first question is, aside from the fact that I don't actually have any events to subscribe to, if I call ExtractData() asynchronously will this be all that I need? Second, is there something I'm missing about the way ConcurrentQueue<T> functions and needing some form of trigger to work asynchronously with the queued objects?

  Read the article

• Creating Multiple TextFields in runtime AS2

  - by ortho

  Hi lads, I have an issue generating multiple text fields in AS2. My AS2 Flash application calls database (via PHP) and then receives XML file that contains a few objects. All I want to do is to loop throught this XML objects and then create a TextField (actually a Component that contains graphics and TextField, but this will come later) based on the information from XML object. I know that I can create something like: _root.createTextField("myText1",1,0,0,100,20); myText1.text = "this is text ONE"; _root.createTextField("myText2",2,0,30,100,20); myText2.text = "this is text TWO"; which will result in 2 text fields, but the problem is when I try to create it dynamicly (e.g. I have item: myNode[0].attributes.name (but when I use it in: _root.createTextField(myNode[0].attributes.name, 1, 0, 0, 100, 20), then I got compile error). var myXML:XML = new XML(); myXML.ignoreWhite=true; myXML.load("tekst.xml"); var tekst:String = new String(); myXML.onLoad = function(success){ if (success){ var myNode = myXML.firstChild.childNodes; for (i=0; i trace("height: "+myNode[i].attributes.height); trace("color: "+myNode[i].attributes.color); trace(myNode[i].firstChild.nodeValue); } } } This actualy traces the values and I can actualy use them when creating the component, but it doesn't create the component that has the same name (obviously both instances point to the same object so the last is only visible). Please help, I tried many things, but no joy. Thank you in advance.

  Read the article

• export and import utf8 data in mysql: best practices

  - by ChrisRamakers

  We're often faced with the need to send a data file to one of our clients with data from the database he/she needs to translate. Most of the time this export is CSV or XLS. Most of the time we create a csv dump with phpmyadmin and get an xls file in return with the translated data. The problem is that most of the time the data is UTF8 and when the file is returned as xls each and every time we load the data into mysql again we end up with utf8 problems, characters not being displayed properly, etc ... We've already doublechecked everything in mysql from my.conf to column charactersets and everything is set correctly to UTF8. My question is not how to fix the encoding issue since that's been solved but how we would best proceed in the future handling this situation? What export format should we hand over? How should we import (just mysql load data infile or our own processing scripts). What is the general consensus on how to handle this situation? We would like to continue using excel if possible since that's the format almost everybody expects including our clients' translation agencies. Our clients' ease of use is the most important factor here, without overloading us with major issues each time. The best of both worlds :)

  Read the article

• Textarea Adding Space To Beginning of Text?

  - by Jascha

  I'm having a strange problem in that I have php inserting text into a <textarea> and the <textarea> is adding one white space to the top of my text. I created an example page to display the problem... here it the code behind the page. <textarea style="width:600px;height:100px;"><?php get_film_info('main description'); ?></textarea> <br> <textarea id="mainDescription style="width:600px;height:100px;">Text just typed in</textarea> <br> <?php get_film_info('main description'); ?> You can see that without the <textarea> tag, the text does not include the indent. My database also reflects no indent, as well as the php output outside of the <textarea>... Any clue what could be going on? the sample page -J

  Read the article

• Codeigniter common templates

  - by Darthg8r

  Let's say that I have a website that has 100 different pages. Each page uses a common header and footer. Inside the header is some dynamic content that comes from a database. I'd like to avoid having to have code in every single controller and action that passes this common code into the view. function index() { // It sucks to have to include this on every controller action. data['title'] = "This is the index page"; data['currentUserName'] = "John Smith"; $this->load->view("main_view", data); } function comments() { // It sucks to have to include this on every controller action. data['title'] = "Comment list"; data['currentUserName'] = "John Smith"; $this->load->view("comment_view", data); } I realize that I could refactor the code so that the common parts are in a single function and the function is called by the action. Doing so would reduce SOME of the pain, but it still doesn't feel right since I'd still have to make a call to that function every time. What's the correct way to handle this?

  Read the article

• C# HTML tags inside GridView

  - by Geo Ego

  I have a SharePoint web part that I wrote in C# which is used to display SQL Server data based on user selections. I pull the data with a DataReader, fill a DataSet with it, and set that DataSet as the DataSource in a GridView and add that control to my page. The only problem I'm facing is that line breaks in the data fields are not being rendered at all. I'm simply getting a block of text that ignores the breaks that are present in the database when it's rendered to HTML. I tried a regex: Regex rgx = new Regex("\n"); string inputStr = Convert.ToString(dr[x]); string outputStr = rgx.Replace(inputStr, "<br />"); newRow[ds3.Tables["Bobst Specs 3"].Columns[x]] = outputStr; While that does detect and replace the newlines, I merely get the text "" with no line breaks. I also tried changing my SQL query to something along the lines of: SELECT REPLACE (fldCustomerName, '. ', '.' + @NewLineChar) This apparently renders more newlines. I can see that they are present, because if I also insert the regex they are affected, but do not create line breaks. I'm not sure how to replace these, and what with, to get the lines to actually break.

  Read the article

• HighCharts : Can I customize the colors of individual series?

  - by user1091114

  I am using HighCharts for a line graph and i am attemping to change the line color for each series. I did find this example here but the data is hard coded. My data is pulled from an Sql database and passed to the HTML page using some VB code. var chart; $(document).ready(function () { chart = new Highcharts.Chart({ chart: { renderTo: 'container', defaultSeriesType: 'column' }, title: { text: 'Chart Title' }, subtitle: { text: 'Chart subtitle' }, xAxis: { categories: [<%= GraphDate %>] , labels: { rotation: -45, align: 'right', style: { } } }, yAxis: { min: 160, title: { text: 'Temp' } }, legend: { layout: 'vertical', backgroundColor: '#FFFFFF', align: 'left', verticalAlign: 'top', x: 400, y: 0, floating: true, shadow: true }, tooltip: { formatter: function () { return '' + this.x + ': ' + this.y + ' ºC'; } }, plotOptions: { column: { pointPadding: 0.2, borderWidth: 0 } }, series: [<%= GraphSeries %>], }); I tried to style it using the other post however it failed to generate a chart. The main problem is though, the line graph has two series, so the below method would set the color for both series i assume? So, would i maybe need to format the series in my vb code somehow? series: [{ color: 'yellow', data: [ [<%= GraphSeries %>] ]},

  Read the article

• How to download file from inside Seam PDF

  - by Shervin

  Hello. In out project we are creating a pdf by using seam pdf and storing that pdf in the database. The user can then search up the pdf and view it in their pdf viewer. This is a small portion of the code that is generated to pdf: <p:html> <a:repeat var="file" value="#{attachment.files}" rowKeyVar="row"> <s:link action="#{fileHandler.downloadById()}" value="#{file.name}" > <f:param name="fileId" value="#{file.id}"/> </s:link> </a:repeat> When the pdf is rendered, a link is generated that points to: /project/skjenkebevilling/status/status_pdf.seam?fileId=42&actionMethod=skjenkebevilling%2Fstatus%2Fstatus_pdf.xhtml%3AfileHandler.downloadById()&cid=16 As you can see this link doesnt say much, and the servletpath seems to be missing. If I change /project with the servletpath localhost:8080/saksapp/skjenkebevilling/status/status_pdf.seam?fileId=42&actionMethod=skjenkebevilling%2Fstatus%2Fstatus_pdf.xhtml%3AfileHandler.downloadById%28%29&cid=16 Than the download file dialog appears. So my question is, does anyone know how I can input the correct link? And why this s:link doesnt seem to work? If I cannot do that, then I will need to somehow do search replace and edit the pdf, but that seems like a bit of a hack. (This is running under JBoss) Thank you for your time....

  Read the article

• Getting identity from Ado.Net Update command

  - by rboarman

  My scenario is simple. I am trying to persist a DataSet and have the identity column filled in so I can add child records. Here's what I've got so far: using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connStr)) { SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter("select * from assets where 0 = 1", connection); adapter.MissingMappingAction = MissingMappingAction.Passthrough; adapter.MissingSchemaAction = MissingSchemaAction.AddWithKey; SqlCommandBuilder cb = new SqlCommandBuilder(adapter); var insertCmd = cb.GetInsertCommand(true); insertCmd.Connection = connection; connection.Open(); adapter.InsertCommand = insertCmd; adapter.InsertCommand.CommandText += "; set ? = SCOPE_IDENTITY()"; adapter.InsertCommand.UpdatedRowSource = UpdateRowSource.OutputParameters; var param = new SqlParameter("RowId", SqlDbType.Int); param.SourceColumn = "RowId"; param.Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; adapter.InsertCommand.Parameters.Add(param); SqlTransaction transaction = connection.BeginTransaction(); insertCmd.Transaction = transaction; try { assetsImported = adapter.Update(dataSet.Tables["Assets"]); transaction.Commit(); } catch (Exception ex) { transaction.Rollback(); // Log an error } connection.Close(); } The first thing that I noticed, besides the fact that the identity value is not making its way back into the DataSet, is that my change to add the scope_identity select statement to the insert command is not being executed. Looking at the query using Profiler, I do not see my addition to the insert command. Questions: 1) Why is my addition to the insert command not making its way to the sql being executed on the database? 2) Is there a simpler way to have my DataSet refreshed with the identity values of the inserted rows? 3) Should I use the OnRowUpdated callback to add my child records? My plan was to loop through the rows after the Update() call and add children as needed. Thank you in advance. Rick

  Read the article

• What is the best way to auto-generate INSERT statements for a SQL Server table?

  - by JosephStyons

  We are writing a new application, and while testing, we will need a bunch of dummy data. I've added that data by using MS Access to dump excel files into the relevant tables. Every so often, we want to "refresh" the relevant tables, which means dropping them all, re-creating them, and running a saved MS Access append query. The first part (dropping & re-creating) is an easy sql script, but the last part makes me cringe. I want a single setup script that has a bunch of INSERTs to regenerate the dummy data. I have the data in the tables now. What is the best way to automatically generate a big list of INSERT statements from that dataset? I'm thinking of something like in TOAD (for Oracle) where you can right-click on a grid and click Save As-Insert Statements, and it will just dump a big sql script wherever you want. The only way I can think of doing it is to save the table to an excel sheet and then write an excel formula to create an INSERT for every row, which is surely not the best way. I'm using the 2008 Management Studio to connect to a SQL Server 2005 database.

  Read the article

• Is It Incorrect to Make Domain Objects Aware of The Data Access Layer?

  - by Noah Goodrich

  I am currently working on rewriting an application to use Data Mappers that completely abstract the database from the Domain layer. However, I am now wondering which is the better approach to handling relationships between Domain objects: Call the necessary find() method from the related data mapper directly within the domain object Write the relationship logic into the native data mapper (which is what the examples tend to do in PoEAA) and then call the native data mapper function within the domain object. Either it seems to me that in order to preserve the 'Fat Model, Skinny Controller' mantra, the domain objects have to be aware of the data mappers (whether it be their own or that they have access to the other mappers in the system). Additionally it seems that Option 2 unnecessarily complicates the data access layer as it creates table access logic across multiple data mappers instead of confining it to a single data mapper. So, is it incorrect to make the domain objects aware of the related data mappers and to call data mapper functions directly from the domain objects? Update: These are the only two solutions that I can envision to handle the issue of relations between domain objects. Any example showing a better method would be welcome.

  Read the article

• Website often sticks, but clicking the link again everything loads fine

  - by Dave

  Hi I have a website, which normally is very fast, however in the last week or two we're run into a problem whereby randomly if you click a link the browser will just sit there with the throbber spinning but the page doesn't appear to load If you click the link again it then responds straight away This doesn't seem to be limited to Chrome, Firefox or IE as we've tried all with all having same problems The site is build in ASP and connects to a MySQL database and runs on a dedicated windows 2003 server The firewalls were changed in the data centre recently to pixies but I've not been able to reproduce the problem outside of the office Within the office, we have 11 people (only 7 today and still experiencing problems) connected to a 7MB ADSL connection with Eclipse I have made some changes to the network in the office, namely wiring 4 desks back to the main 24 port switch rather than to small 5 port which then linked on to the 24 port switch... however we were having problems before this was done, and I did this to try and rule out an issue with the switch We have a backup ADSL connection, so I may try switching to that, or switching to a different router, but do you think this is a likely issue? Failing that, what else would you check? Thanks, sorry for length! Dave

  Read the article

• MS Access 2003 - Save button enabling on form open on different tabs

  - by Justin

  I have a tab control on a form, and a couple different tabs have save buttons on them. Once the user saves data (via SQL statements in VBA), I set the .enabled = false so that they cannot use this button again until moving to a brand new record (which is a button click on the overall form). so when my form open i was going to reference a sub that enabled all these save buttons because the open event would mean new record. though i get an error that says it either does not exist, or is closed. any ideas? thanks EDIT: Sub Example() error handling Dim db as dao.database dim rs as dao.recordset dim sql as string SQL = "INSERT INTO tblMain (Name, Address, CITY) VALUES (" if not isnull (me.name) then sql = sql & """" & me.name & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if if not insull(me.adress) then sql = sql & " """ & me.address & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if if not isnull(me.city) then sql = sql & " """ & me.city & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if 'debug.print(sql) set db = currentdb db.execute (sql) MsgBox "Changes were successfully saved" me.MyTabCtl.Pages.Item("SecondPage").setfocus me.cmdSaveInfo.enabled = false and then on then the cmdSave needs to get re enabled on a new record (which by the way, this form is unbound), so it all happens when the form is re-opened. I tried this: Sub Form_Open() me.cmdSaveInfo.enabled = true End Sub and this is where I get the error stated above. So this is also not the tab that has focus when the form opens. Is that why I get this error? I cannot enable or disable a control when the tab is not showing?

  Read the article

• How to design Models the correct way: Object-oriented or "Package"-oriented?

  - by ajsie

  I know that in OOP you want every object (from a class) to be a "thing", eg. user, validator etc. I know the basics about MVC, how they different parts interact with each other. However, i wonder if the models in MVC should be designed according to the traditional OOP design, that is to say, should every model be a database/table/row (solution 2)? Or is the intention more like to collect methods that are affecting the same table or a bunch of related tables (solution 1). example for an Address book module in CodeIgniter, where i want be able to "CRUD" a Contact and add/remove it to/from a CRUD-able Contact Group. Models solution 1: bunching all related methods together (not real object, rather a "package") class Contacts extends Model { function create_contact() {) function read_contact() {} function update_contact() {} function delete_contact() {} function add_contact_to_group() {} function delete_contact_from_group() {} function create_group() {} function read_group() {} function update_group() {} function delete_group() {} } Models solution 2: the OOP way (one class per file) class Contact extends Model { private $name = ''; private $id = ''; function create_contact() {) function read_contact() {} function update_contact() {} function delete_contact() {} } class ContactGroup extends Model { private $name = ''; private $id = ''; function add_contact_to_group() {} function delete_contact_from_group() {} function create_group() {} function read_group() {} function update_group() {} function delete_group() {} } i dont know how to think when i want to create the models. and the above examples are my real tasks for creating an Address book. Should i just bunch all functions together in one class. then the class contains different logic (contact and group), so it can not hold properties that are specific for either one of them. the solution 2 works according to the OOP. but i dont know why i should make such a dividing. what would the benefits be to have a Contact object for example. Its surely not a User object, so why should a Contact "live" with its own state (properties and methods). you experienced guys with OOP/MVC, please shed a light on how one should think here in this very concrete task.

  Read the article

• How to perform Linq select new with datetime in SQL 2008

  - by kd7iwp

  In our C# code I recently changed a line from inside a linq-to-sql select new query as follows: OrderDate = (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.Year.ToString() + "-" + p.OrderDate.Value.Month.ToString() + "-" + p.OrderDate.Value.Day.ToString() : "") To: OrderDate = (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : "") The change makes the line smaller and cleaner. It also works fine with our SQL 2008 database in our development environment. However, when the code deployed to our production environment which uses SQL 2005 I received an exception stating: Nullable Type must have a value. For further analysis I copied (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : "") into a string (outside of a Linq statement) and had no problems at all, so it only causes an in issue inside my Linq. Is this problem just something to do with SQL 2005 using different date formats than from SQL 2008? Here's more of the Linq: dt = FilteredOrders.Where(x => x != null).Select(p => new { Order = p.OrderId, link = "/order/" + p.OrderId.ToString(), StudentId = (p.PersonId.HasValue ? p.PersonId.Value : 0), FirstName = p.IdentifierAccount.Person.FirstName, LastName = p.IdentifierAccount.Person.LastName, DeliverBy = p.DeliverBy, OrderDate = p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.Date.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : ""}).ToDataTable(); This is selecting from a List of Order objects. The FilteredOrders list is from another linq-to-sql query and I call .AsEnumerable on it before giving it to this particular select new query. Doing this in regular code works fine: if (o.OrderDate.HasValue) tempString += " " + o.OrderDate.Value.Date.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd");

  Read the article

• Why does my Doctrine DBAL query return no results when quoted?

  - by braveterry

  I'm using the Doctrine DataBase Abstraction Layer (DBAL) to perform some queries. For some reason, when I quote a parameter before passing it to the query, I get back no rows. When I pass it unquoted, it works fine. Here's the relevant snippet of code I'm using: public function get($game) { load::helper('doctrinehelper'); $conn = doctrinehelper::getconnection(); $statement = $conn->prepare('SELECT games.id as id, games.name as name, games.link_url, games.link_text, services.name as service_name, image_url FROM games, services WHERE games.name = ? AND services.key = games.service_key'); $quotedGame = $conn->quote($game); load::helper('loghelper'); $logger = loghelper::getLogger(); $logger->debug("Quoted Game: $quotedGame"); $logger->debug("Unquoted Game: $game"); $statement->execute(array($quotedGame)); $resultsArray = $statement->fetchAll(); $logger->debug("Number of rows returned: " . count($resultsArray)); return $resultsArray; } Here's what the log shows: 01/01/11 17:00:13,269 [2112] DEBUG root - Quoted Game: 'Diablo II Lord of Destruction' 01/01/11 17:00:13,269 [2112] DEBUG root - Unquoted Game: Diablo II Lord of Destruction 01/01/11 17:00:13,270 [2112] DEBUG root - Number of rows returned: 0 If I change this line: $statement->execute(array($quotedGame)); to this: $statement->execute(array($game)); I get this in the log: 01/01/11 16:51:42,934 [2112] DEBUG root - Quoted Game: 'Diablo II Lord of Destruction' 01/01/11 16:51:42,935 [2112] DEBUG root - Unquoted Game: Diablo II Lord of Destruction 01/01/11 16:51:42,936 [2112] DEBUG root - Number of rows returned: 1 Have I fat-fingered something?

  Read the article

• Setting Up OpenCV and .lib files

  - by jhaip

  I have been trying to set up OpenCV for the past few days with no results. I am using Windows 7 and VS C++ 2008 express edition. I have downloaded and installed OpenCV 2.1 and some of the examples work. I downloaded CMake and ran it to generate the VS project files and built all of them but there with several errors, and couldn't get any farther than that. When I ran CMake I configured it to use the VS 9 compiler, and then it brought up a list of items in red such as BUILD_EXAMPLES, BUILD_LATEX_DOCS, ect. All of them were unchecked except BUILD_NEW_PYTHON_SUPPORT, BUILD_TESTS, ENABLE_OPENMP, and OPENCV_BUILD_3RDPARTY_LIBS. I configured and generate without changing anything and then it generated the VS files such as ALL_BUILD.vcproj. I built the OpenCV VS solution in debug mode and it had 15 failures (maybe this is part of the problem or is it because I don't have python and stuff like that?) Now there was a lib folder created after building but inside there was just this VC++ Minimum Rebuild Dependency file and Program Debug Database file, both called cvhaartraining. I believe it should have created the .lib files I need instead of this. Also, the bin folder now has a folder called Debug with the same types of files with names like cv200d and cvaux200d. Believe I need those .lib files to move forward. I would also greatly appreciate if someone could direct me to a reliable tutorial to set up VS for OpenCV because I have been reading a lot of tutorials and they all say different things such as some say to configure Window's environment variables and other say files are located in folders such as OpenCV/cv which I don't have. I have gotten past the point of clear headed thinking so if anyone could offer some direction or a simple list of the files I need to link then I would be thankful. Also a side question: why when linking the OpenCV libs do you have to put them in quotes?

  Read the article

• I Need a Human Readable, Yet Parse-able Document Format

  - by macinjosh

  I'm working on one of those projects where there are a million better ways to accomplish what I need but I have no choice and I have to do it this way. Here it is: There is a web form, when the user fills it out and hits a submit a human readable text file is created using the form data. It looks like this: field_1: value for field one field_2: value for field two more data for field two (field two has a newline in it!) field3: some more data My problem is this: I need to parse this text file back into the web form so that the user can edit it. How could I, in a foolproof way, accomplish this? A database is not an option, I have to use these text files. My Questions: Is there a foolproof way to do this using the format in the example above? What human readable format would work better (in other words I can change the format) Human readable means that a non programmer could read it and know what is what. This project uses PHP.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 1603 1604 1605 1606 1607 1608 1609 1610 1611 1612 1613 1614  | Next Page >