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  • NSMutable String "Out of scope"

    - by Garry
    I have two NSMutableString objects defined in my viewController's (a subclass of UITableViewController) .h file: NSMutableString *firstName; NSMutableString *lastName; They are properties: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableString *firstName; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableString *lastName; I synthesis them in the .m file. In my viewDidLoad method - I set them to be blank strings: firstName = [NSMutableString stringWithString:@""]; lastName = [NSMutableString stringWithString:@""]; firstName and lastName can be altered by the user. In my cellForRowAtIndexPath method, I'm trying to display the contents of these strings: cell.detailTextLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ %@", firstName, lastName]; but this is causing the app to crash as soon as the view controller is displayed. Using the debugger, it seems that both firstName and lastName are "out of scope" or that they don't exist. I'm new to Xcode but the debugger seems to halt at objc_msgSend. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Where to put default-servlet-handler in Spring MVC configuration

    - by gigadot
    In my web.xml, the default servlet mapping, i.e. /, is mapped to Spring dispatcher. In my Spring dispatcher configuration, I have DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping, ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping and AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter which allows me to map url to controllers either by its class name or its @Requestmapping annotation. However, there are some static resources under the web root which I also want spring dispatcher to serve using default servlet. According to Spring documentation, this can be done using <mvc:default-servlet-handler/> tag. In the configuration below, there are 4 candidate locations that I marked which are possible to insert this tag. Inserting the tag in different location causes the dispatcher to behave differently as following : Case 1 : If I insert it at location 1, the dispatcher will no longer be able to handle mapping by the @RequestMapping and controller class name but it will be serving the static content normally. Cas 2, 3 : It will be able to handle mapping by the @RequestMapping and controller class name as well as serving the static content if other mapping cannot be done successfully. Case 4 : It will not be able to serve the static contents. Therefore, Case 2 and 3 are desirable .According to Spring documentation, this tag configures a handler which precedence order is given to lowest so why the position matters? and Which is the best position to put this tag? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd"> <context:annotation-config/> <context:component-scan base-package="webapp.controller"/> <!-- Location 1 --> <!-- Enable annotation-based controllers using @Controller annotations --> <bean id="annotationUrlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping"/> <!-- Location 2 --> <bean id="controllerClassNameHandlerMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.support.ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping"/> <!-- Location 3 --> <bean id="annotationMethodHandlerAdapter" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"/> <!-- Location 4 --> <mvc:default-servlet-handler/> <!-- All views are JSPs loaded from /WEB-INF/jsp --> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"/> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/"/> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"/> </bean> </beans>

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  • Mapping a boolean[] PostgreSql column with Hibernate

    - by teabot
    I have a column in a PostgreSql database that is defined with type boolean[]. I wish to map this to a Java entity property using Hibernate 3.3.x. However, I cannot find a suitable Java type that Hibernate is happy to map to. I thought that the java.lang.Boolean[] would be the obvious choice, but Hibernate complains: Caused by: org.hibernate.HibernateException: Wrong column type in schema.table for column mycolumn. Found: _bool, expected: bytea at org.hibernate.mapping.Table.validateColumns(Table.java:284) at org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration.validateSchema(Configuration.java:1130) I have also tried the following property types without success: java.lang.String java.lang.boolean[] java.lang.Byte[] How can I map this column?

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  • Error while creating a table style in excel

    - by Rashmi Pandit
    Hi, I am using the following function to create a TableStyle: Public Function CreateTableStyle() ActiveWorkbook.Unprotect Dim objTS As TableStyle On Error Resume Next Set objTS = ActiveWorkbook.TableStyles("MyTableStyle") On Error GoTo err_CreateTableStyle If Not objTS Is Nothing Then Exit Function End If Set objTS = ActiveWorkbook.TableStyles.Add("MyTableStyle") With ActiveWorkbook.TableStyles("MyTableStyle") .ShowAsAvailablePivotTableStyle = True .ShowAsAvailableTableStyle = False End With With ActiveWorkbook.TableStyles("MyTableStyle").TableStyleElements( _ xlHeaderRow).Font .FontStyle = "Bold" .TintAndShade = 0 .ThemeColor = xlThemeColorDark1 End With With ActiveWorkbook.TableStyles("MyTableStyle").TableStyleElements( _ xlHeaderRow).Interior .ThemeColor = xlThemeColorLight2 .TintAndShade = -0.249946592608417 End With With ActiveWorkbook.TableStyles("MyTableStyle").TableStyleElements( _ xlTotalRow).Font .FontStyle = "Bold" .TintAndShade = 0 .ThemeColor = xlThemeColorDark1 End With With ActiveWorkbook.TableStyles("MyTableStyle").TableStyleElements( _ xlTotalRow).Interior .ThemeColor = xlThemeColorLight2 .TintAndShade = -0.249946592608417 End With ActiveWorkbook.TableStyles("MyTableStyle").TableStyleElements( _ xlSubtotalRow1).Font.FontStyle = "Bold" With ActiveWorkbook.TableStyles("MyTableStyle").TableStyleElements( _ xlSubtotalRow1).Interior .Color = 16764828 .TintAndShade = 0 End With ActiveWorkbook.TableStyles("MyTableStyle").TableStyleElements( _ xlSubtotalRow2).Font.FontStyle = "Bold" With ActiveWorkbook.TableStyles("MyTableStyle").TableStyleElements( _ xlSubtotalRow2).Interior .Color = 16777164 .TintAndShade = 0 End With ActiveWorkbook.Protect Exit Function err_CreateTableStyle: Call Common.ErrRaise(Erl, "Common", "CreateTableStyle", "CreateTableStyle") End Function At the line below: With ActiveWorkbook.TableStyles("MyTableStyle").TableStyleElements( _ xlHeaderRow).Font .FontStyle = "Bold" I am getting an error: Run-time error '1004' Unable to set the FontStyle property of the Font class. Can someone please identify the issue? I am not able to figure why it is not letting me set the property.

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  • iPhone status bar orientation with opengl

    - by sfider
    I have opengl only view that displays in portrait and landscape mode using projection matrix (view's transformation is identity all the time). I need to show status bar with proper orientation. I do this by setting status bar orientation property in UIApplication and changing frame of opengl view so the view won't go under status bar. When I change from landscape to portrait (landscape is the initial state) view's frame is set to (0, 20, 320, 460) and stays like this. However view appears to be translated by (-10, -10). It seems that I did change the size of view but couldn't move it. Weird things are: initialy view is full screen, I change it to (0, 0, 300, 480) (landscape with status bar) and it works then, it doesn't work when I try to chenge it for the second time (portrait with status bar) frame property of the view shows that view is placed correctly Any thoughts on what can by the problem?

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  • Lua and Objective C not running script.

    - by beta
    I am trying to create an objective c interface that encapsulates the functionality of storing and running a lua script (compiled or not.) My code for the script interface is as follows: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "Types.h" #import "lua.h" #include "lualib.h" #include "lauxlib.h" @interface Script : NSObject<NSCoding> { @public s32 size; s8* data; BOOL done; } @property s32 size; @property s8* data; @property BOOL done; - (id) initWithScript: (u8*)data andSize:(s32)size; - (id) initFromFile: (const char*)file; - (void) runWithState: (lua_State*)state; - (void) encodeWithCoder: (NSCoder*)coder; - (id) initWithCoder: (NSCoder*)coder; @end #import "Script.h" @implementation Script @synthesize size; @synthesize data; @synthesize done; - (id) initWithScript: (s8*)d andSize:(s32)s { self = [super init]; self->size = s; self->data = d; return self; } - (id) initFromFile:(const char *)file { FILE* p; p = fopen(file, "rb"); if(p == NULL) return [super init]; fseek(p, 0, SEEK_END); s32 fs = ftell(p); rewind(p); u8* buffer = (u8*)malloc(fs); fread(buffer, 1, fs, p); fclose(p); return [self initWithScript:buffer andSize:size]; } - (void) runWithState: (lua_State*)state { if(luaL_loadbuffer(state, [self data], [self size], "Script") != 0) { NSLog(@"Error loading lua chunk."); return; } lua_pcall(state, 0, LUA_MULTRET, 0); } - (void) encodeWithCoder: (NSCoder*)coder { [coder encodeInt: size forKey: @"Script.size"]; [coder encodeBytes:data length:size forKey:@"Script.data"]; } - (id) initWithCoder: (NSCoder*)coder { self = [super init]; NSUInteger actualSize; size = [coder decodeIntForKey: @"Script.size"]; data = [[coder decodeBytesForKey:@"Script.data" returnedLength:&actualSize] retain]; return self; } @end Here is the main method: #import "Script.h" int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Script* script = [[Script alloc] initFromFile:"./test.lua"]; lua_State* state = luaL_newstate(); luaL_openlibs(state); luaL_dostring(state, "print(_VERSION)"); [script runWithState:state]; luaL_dostring(state, "print(_VERSION)"); lua_close(state); } And the lua script is just: print("O Hai World!") Loading the file is correct, but I think it messes up at pcall. Any Help is greatly appreciated. Heading

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  • How do I set the Execute Permissions for an IIS6 website with Powershell using WMI?

    - by DarkwingDuck
    In inetmgr you can set the property I desire by going to Home Directory - Application Settings - Execute Permissions - and setting the drop down to 'Scripts Only'. I'm trying to replicate this behavior in Powershell. The Target OS is Windows Server 2003 running IIS6. Currently I have this simple code to get the site: $Site = get-wmiobject -Namespace root\MicrosoftIISv2 -query ('select * from IISWebServerSetting where ServerComment="mySite"') There are lots of properties it might be but nothing really leaps out. I've tried changing the setting in inetmgr and dumping the properties out before and after, but I see no differences (it could be a child property though). Any ideas? Thanks in advance.

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  • ObjectDataSource DataObjectTypeName Help. Pass object as parameter

    - by Kettenbach
    I have a partial class (the main class is a LinqToSql generated class) <DataObject(True)> _ Partial Public Class MBI_Contract <DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select, True)> _ Public Shared Function GetCancelableContracts(ByVal dealer As Dealer) As List(Of MBI_Contract) Return Utilities.GetCancelableContractsForDealer(dealer) End Function End Class Here is the method it's calling Public Function GetCancelableContractsForDealer(ByVal dealer As Dealer) As List(Of MBI_Contract) Dim db As TestDataContext = TestDataContext.Create() Return (From mbi As MBI_Contract In db.MBI_Contracts _ Where mbi.MBI_DealerNumber = dealer.DealerNumber _ AndAlso mbi.MBI_PaidFor = True _ AndAlso mbi.MBI_Deleted = False).ToList() End Function I want to use the ObjectDataSource to drive a DropDownList. <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="contractOds" runat="server" TypeName="MBI_Contract" SelectMethod="GetCancelableContracts" DataObjectTypeName="Dealer"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> My aspx page has a Dealer property that is set in a BasePage. My question is how can I pass this property(object) to the ObjectDataSource, so it can be evaluated in my select method. Does anyone know how I can do this? Or am I totally doing this the wrong way? Thanks for any Advice, Cheers, ~ck in San Diego

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  • JSF Render response programatically

    - by Shamik
    I have one parent page with a parentManagedBean (attached to Session Scope). On click of a button on this parent page, one popup comes which has a childManagedBean (attached to Request scope). Now ChildManagedBedan holds a reference to parentManaged bean thru JSFs managed Property feature. On this popup window, user selects some option which populates a large value object class. I use the managed property of childMnaagedBean to set the values from this large object to that of parentmanagedbean. Problem is - The parent page shows a link, on click of which a popup comes, on selection of the popup, the popup disappears and set the values to the parentManaged bean.So far so good, but the newly set values need to appear on the parent page. This is where I am stuck. How to programatically render the master page/render page when I am at the child managed bean... is there a way I can get handle of the parent page and refresh it ?

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  • Mapping two tables 0..n in Hibernate

    - by simon
    I have a table Users CREATE TABLE "USERS" ( "ID" NUMBER NOT NULL , "LOGINNAME" VARCHAR2 (150) NOT NULL ) and I have a second table SpecialUsers. No UserId can occur twice in the SpecialUsers table, and only a small subset of the ids of users in the Users table are contained in the SpecialUsers table. CREATE TABLE "SPECIALUSERS" ( "USERID" NUMBER NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT "PK_SPECIALUSERS" PRIMARY KEY ("USERID") ) ALTER TABLE "SPECIALUSERS" ADD CONSTRAINT "FK_SPECIALUSERS_USERID" FOREIGN KEY ("USERID") REFERENCES "USERS" ("ID") / Mapping the Users table in Hibernate works ok <hibernate-mapping package="com.initech.domain"> <class name="com.initech.User" table="USERS"> <id name="id" column="ID" type="java.lang.Long"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> <generator class="sequence"> <param name="sequence">SEQ_USERS_ID</param> </generator> </id> <property name="loginName" column="LOGINNAME" type="java.lang.String" not-null="true"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> But I'm struggling in creating the mapping for the SpecialUsers table. All the examples (e.g. in Hibernate documentation) in Internet I found don't have this type of self-reference. I tried a mapping like this: <hibernate-mapping package="com.initech.domain"> <class name="com.initech.User" table="SPECIALUSERS"> <id name="id" column="USERID"> <meta attribute="use-in-tostring">true</meta> <generator class="foreign"> <param name="property">user</param> </generator> </id> <one-to-one name="user" class="User"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> but got the error Invocation of init method failed; nested exception is org.hibernate.DuplicateMappingException: Duplicate class/entity mapping com.initech.User How should I map the SpecialUsers table? What I need on the application level is a list of the User objects contained in the SpecialUsers table.

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  • Cascading updates with business key equality: Hibernate best practices?

    - by Traphicone
    I'm new to Hibernate, and while there are literally tons of examples to look at, there seems to be so much flexibility here that it's sometimes very hard to narrow all the options down the best way of doing things. I've been working on a project for a little while now, and despite reading through a lot of books, articles, and forums, I'm still left with a bit of a head scratcher. Any veteran advice would be very appreciated. So, I have a model involving two classes with a one-to-many relationship from parent to child. Each class has a surrogate primary key and a uniquely constrained composite business key. <class name="Container"> <id name="id" type="java.lang.Long"> <generator class="identity"/> </id> <properties name="containerBusinessKey" unique="true" update="false"> <property name="name" not-null="true"/> <property name="owner" not-null="true"/> </properties> <set name="items" inverse="true" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="container" not-null="true"/> <one-to-many class="Item"/> </set> </class> <class name="Item"> <id name="id" type="java.lang.Long"> <generator class="identity"/> </id> <properties name="itemBusinessKey" unique="true" update="false"> <property name="type" not-null="true"/> <property name="color" not-null="true"/> </properties> <many-to-one name="container" not-null="true" update="false" class="Container"/> </class> The beans behind these mappings are as boring as you can possibly imagine--nothing fancy going on. With that in mind, consider the following code: Container c = new Container("Things", "Me"); c.addItem(new Item("String", "Blue")); c.addItem(new Item("Wax", "Red")); Transaction t = session.beginTransaction(); session.saveOrUpdate(c); t.commit(); Everything works fine the first time, and both the Container and its Items are persisted. If the above code block is executed again, however, Hibernate throws a ConstraintViolationException--duplicate values for the "name" and "owner" columns. Because the new Container instance has a null identifier, Hibernate assumes it is an unsaved transient instance. This is expected but not desired. Since the persistent and transient Container objects have the same business key values, what we really want is to issue an update. It is easy enough to convince Hibernate that our new Container instance is the same as our old one. With a quick query we can get the identifier of the Container we'd like to update, and set our transient object's identifier to match. Container c = new Container("Things", "Me"); c.addItem(new Item("String", "Blue")); c.addItem(new Item("Wax", "Red")); Query query = session.createSQLQuery("SELECT id FROM Container" + "WHERE name = ? AND owner = ?"); query.setString(0, c.getName()); query.setString(1, c.getOwner()); BigInteger id = (BigInteger)query.uniqueResult(); if (id != null) { c.setId(id.longValue()); } Transaction t = session.beginTransaction(); session.saveOrUpdate(c); t.commit(); This almost satisfies Hibernate, but because the one-to-many relationship from Container to Item cascades, the same ConstraintViolationException is also thrown for the child Item objects. My question is: what is the best practice in this situation? It is highly recommended to use surrogate primary keys, and it is also recommended to use business key equality. When you put these two recommendations in to practice together, however, two of the greatest conveniences of Hibernate--saveOrUpdate and cascading operations--seem to be rendered almost completely useless. As I see it, I have only two options: Manually fetch and set the identifier for each object in the mapping. This clearly works, but for even a moderately sized schema this is a lot of extra work which it seems Hibernate could easily be doing. Write a custom interceptor to fetch and set object identifiers on each operation. This looks cleaner than the first option but is rather heavy-handed, and it seems wrong to me that you should be expected to write a plug-in which overrides Hibernate's default behavior for a mapping which follows the recommended design. Is there a better way? Am I making completely the wrong assumptions? I'm hoping that I'm just missing something. Thanks.

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  • NSManagedObject - NSSet gets removed ??

    - by aryaxt
    I have an nsmanagedObject this NSManagedObject contains an NSSet. the data for NSSet get's lost when i call release on an NSManagedObject with retain count of 2. Wouldn't retaining an NSManagedObject also retain all it's properties?? - (id)initViewWithManagedObject :(NSManagedObject)obj { if (self = [super init]) { self.managedObject = obj; } } - (void)dealloc { [self.managedObject release]; //Here is when the nsset data gets removed [super dealloc]; } Below describes how the property was created @interface MyManagedObject :NSManagedObject @property (nonatomic, retain) NSSet *mySet; @end @implementation MyManagedObject @dynamic mySet; @end

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  • C# Initialize Subclass based on Parent object

    - by ctrlShiftBryan
    So basically I have this public class Ticket{ public TicketNumber {get; set;} ..a bunch more properties... } I want to add some properties using a subclass like this using subsumption instead of composition. public class TicketViewModel(Ticket ticket){ //set each property from value of Ticket passed in this.TicketNumber = ticket.TicketNumber; ...a bunch more lines of code.. //additional VM properties public SelectList TicketTypes {get; private set;} } How do I instantiate the properties without having to write all the lines like this this.TicketNumber = ticket.TicketNumber; Is there some kind of shortcut? Something like in the subclass constructor? this = ticket; Obviously this doesn't work but is their some way so I don't have to modify my subclass if addng/removing a property to the parent class? Or something?

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  • How to pass Endpoint parameter to Endpoint defined as bean in Spring conext

    - by sempa
    I have camel Fileendpoint defined in following way: <bean id="hotfolderEndpoint" class="org.apache.camel.component.file.FileEndpoint" factory-bean="camel" factory-method="getEndpoint"> <constructor-arg ref="hotfolder" /> </bean> I want to define some File parameters such as preMove, move etc. Variable hotfolder is String taken from JNDI and I have no impact on it. When I define property as <bean id="moveExp" class="org.apache.camel.model.language.SimpleExpression"> <property name="expression" value="done/${file:name}"/> </bean> it is not correctly parsed and the file get name done/name

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  • Mapping class properties to generic columns in table .NET

    - by Tony_Henrich
    I have have a SQL Server table which has generic names like Text1, Text2.. etc. The table was designed like this because the same structure is used for different projects. I have a class in .NET which has properties. Say a Customer class has a property called FirstName. How can I do the mapping from FirstName to Text1 just once (central place) in the application so that I don't have to remember and hard code the mappings all over the app when I create the different DAL methods? For example, I want the app to know when I want to update, insert a FirstName, the DAL automatically uses Text1. Basically I don't have to remember which property goes to which column. The idea is so the developers do not map the properlies/columns in a wrong way. It's always consistent. Note: Database inserts, updates and deletes are allowed through stored procedures only.

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  • Getting my string value from my form into my class( not another form)

    - by jovany
    Hello all, I have a question regarding the some data which is being transfered from one form to my class. It's not going quite the way i'd like to , so I figured maybe there is someone who could help me. This is my code in my class Public Class DrawableTextBox Inherits Drawable Dim i_testString As Integer Private s_InsertLabel As String Private drawFont As Font Public Sub New(ByVal fore_color As Color, ByVal fill_color As Color, Optional ByVal line_width As Integer = 0, Optional ByVal new_x1 As Integer = 0, Optional ByVal new_y1 As Integer = 0, Optional ByVal new_x2 As Integer = 1, Optional ByVal new_y2 As Integer = 1) MyBase.New(fore_color, fill_color, line_width) X1 = new_x1 Y1 = new_y1 X2 = new_x2 Y2 = new_y2 Trace.WriteLine(s_InsertLabel) End Sub Friend WriteOnly Property _textBox() As String Set(ByVal Value As String) s_InsertLabel = Value Trace.WriteLine(s_InsertLabel) End Set End Property ' Draw the object on this Graphics surface. Public Overrides Sub Draw(ByVal gr As System.Drawing.Graphics) ' Make a Rectangle representing this rectangle. Dim rect As Rectangle = GetBounds() ' Fill the rectangle as usual. Dim fill_brush As New SolidBrush(FillColor) gr.FillRectangle(fill_brush, rect) fill_brush.Dispose() ' See if we're selected. If IsSelected Then ' Draw the rectangle highlighted. Dim highlight_pen As New Pen(Color.Yellow, LineWidth) gr.DrawRectangle(highlight_pen, rect) highlight_pen.Dispose() ' Draw grab handles. Trace.WriteLine("drawing the lines for my textbox") DrawGrabHandle(gr, X1, Y1) DrawGrabHandle(gr, X1, Y2) DrawGrabHandle(gr, X2, Y2) DrawGrabHandle(gr, X2, Y1) Else 'TextBox() Dim fg_pen As New Pen(Color.Red, LineWidth) 'Dim fontSize As Single = 0.1 + ((Y2 - Y1) / 2) Dim fontSize As Single = 20 Try Dim drawFont As New Font("Arial", fontSize, FontStyle.Bold) Trace.WriteLine(s_InsertLabel) gr.DrawString(s_InsertLabel, drawFont, Brushes.Brown, X1, Y1) Catch ex As ArgumentException End Try gr.DrawRectangle(Pens.Azure, rect) ' gr.DrawRectangle(fg_pen, rect) fg_pen.Dispose() End If End Sub Public Function GetValueString(ByVal ValueType As String) Return ValueType End Function ' Return the object's bounding rectangle. Public Overrides Function GetBounds() As System.Drawing.Rectangle Return New Rectangle( _ Min(X1, X2), _ Min(Y1, Y2), _ Abs(100), _ Abs(30)) Trace.WriteLine("don't forget to make variables in GetBounds DrawableTextbox") End Function ' Return True if this point is on the object. Public Overrides Function IsAt(ByVal x As Integer, ByVal y As Integer) As Boolean Return (x >= Min(X1, X2)) AndAlso _ (x <= Max(X1, X2)) AndAlso _ (y >= Min(Y1, Y2)) AndAlso _ (y <= Max(Y1, Y2)) End Function ' Move the second point. Public Overrides Sub NewPoint(ByVal x As Integer, ByVal y As Integer) X2 = x Y2 = y End Sub ' Return True if the object is empty (e.g. a zero-length line). Public Overrides Function IsEmpty() As Boolean Return (X1 = X2) AndAlso (Y1 = Y2) End Function End Class I've got a form with a textbox( form1) in which the text is being inserted and passed through a buttonclick (al via properties). As you can see I've placed several traces and in the property of the class my trace works fine , however if I look in my Draw function it is already gone. And I get a blank trace. Does anyone know what's happening here. thanks in advance. (forgive me I'm new )

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  • Information Label

    - by caisenm
    I am trying to make an information label that should display the events the application doing. deleting data, reading data, writing data, connection to db. etc.. I've added a label to my form and I am changing its text property for each operation like: label1.Text = "stored procedure is being executed.."; But, in the run time the text of the label does not change. I've tried to add the method Application.DoEvents(); to every place I've changed the label's text property. It works fine. But it looks silly. So I've tried to add this method to my label's "TextChanged" event. But it does not work! Am I doing something wrong? Or, is there any efficient way to make an information label?

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  • Can .NET load and parse a properties file equivalent to Java Properties class?

    - by Tai Squared
    Is there an easy way in C# to read a properties file that has each property on a separate line followed by an equals sign and the value, such as the following: ServerName=prod-srv1 Port=8888 CustomProperty=Any value In Java, the Properties class handles this parsing easily: Properties myProperties=new Properties(); FileInputStream fis = new FileInputStream (new File("CustomProps.properties")); myProperties.load(fis); System.out.println(myProperties.getProperty("ServerName")); System.out.println(myProperties.getProperty("CustomProperty")); I can easily load the file in C# and parse each line, but is there a built in way to easily get a property without having to parse out the key name and equals sign myself? The C# information I have found seems to always favor XML, but this is an existing file that I don't control and I would prefer to keep it in the existing format as it will require more time to get another team to change it to XML than parsing the existing file.

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  • How to simulate postback in nested usercontrols?

    - by jaloplo
    Hi all, I'm doing an asp.net application with one page. In this page, I have one usercontrol defined. This usercontrol has a menu (three buttons) and 3 usercontrols defined too. Depending on the clicked button one of the three usercontrols turn to visible true or false. In these three usercontrols I have a button and a message, and I want to show the message "It's NOT postback" when the button of the menu is clicked, and when the button of the usercontrol is clicked the message will be "YES, it's postback!!!". The question is that using property "IsPostBack" of the usercontrol or the page the message will never be "It's NOT postback" because of the clicked button of the menu to show the nested usercontrol. This is the structure of the page: page parent usercontrol menu nested usercontrol 1 message button nested usercontrol 2 nested usercontrol 3 I know it can be done using ViewState but, there is a way to simulate IsPostBack property or know when is the true usercontrol postback? Thanks.

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  • Weird mapping error in linq-to-sql dbml file in VS2010

    - by rwwilden
    Since I switched to VS2010, several times a day I get a compilation error in my dbml file: DBML1005: Mapping between DbType 'bigint' and Type 'MyNamespace.SecurityToken' in Column 'SecurityToken' of Type 'Employee' is not supported When I restart VS2010 the error disappears. I have no problems running my application using this dbml file (specifically, there are no problems getting correct values inside the SecurityToken property of Employee objects). The SecurityToken property is of an enum type defined as follows: [Flags] public enum SecurityToken : long { None = 1, Admin = 2, ...... } The SecurityToken column in the database is of type bigint. Am I missing something? It's especially weird that the error only happens sometimes, when I'm writing code that isn't related at all to the LINQ model.

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  • Why do C# automatic properties not support default values like VB 2010?

    - by Rob van Groenewoud
    Looking at the new VB 2010 features, I stumbled upon support for Auto-Implemented Properties. Since I'm working with C#, this seemed quite familiar, but I noticed that VB did add a feature I would love to have in C#: setting a arbitrary default value for the auto-implemented property: I really like the clean usage of auto-properties in C#. This would save us the effort of introducing a backing field and hooking it up to the property everytime we simply need a default value, thereby cluttering up the code unnecessarily. I was wondering why this wasn't introduced in C# as well? What could be the rationale for not doing this? Is a syntax discussion going on, or are there technical limitations to implementing this?

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  • Databinding Error when Recreating object

    - by Maxim Gershkovich
    Hi All, Figure there is a simple solution to this problem but I have been unable to find it. I have databinding in an ASP.Net application to a GridView. This gridview is bound to an ObjectDataSource as per standard usage. The problem I have is that one of my bound fields uses the property DataFormatString="{0:C}" and due to the currency format being displayed when an update is attempted and the object recreated I get a error as such "$13.00 is not a valid value for Decimal." Clearly this is a result of the column using a FormatString and then attempting to bind it back to a decimal property I have in my object called UnitPrice. I am assuming there is some markup I can set that can specify how the value is translated back? Thanks in advance for any help.

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  • WPF DependencyProperty event before content changed

    - by morsanu
    First I will explain the context of the problem, because you might be able to point me in a better direction. I need to implement a undo-redo like system on an object. The object has a series of dependency properties. Some are double, int, string but some are also of DependencyObject type. I need to save the value of the property before it is changed, and for this I added the CoerceValueCallback. public static readonly DependencyProperty MyBackgroundProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("MyBackground", typeof(MyCustomizableBackground), typeof(MyComponent), new UIPropertyMetadata(default(MyCustomizableBackground), null, new CoerceValueCallback(OnPropertyChanged))); In OnPropertyChanged I save the value before it's changed. MyCustomizableBackground is the DependencyObject that has also some dependency properties. The problem is that in this case, where I have a custom object as a property, the OnPropertyChanged method isn't triggered, but when I have a common type, it is triggered.

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