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  • Factory Girl: Automatically assigning parent objects

    - by Ben Scheirman
    I'm just getting into Factory Girl and I am running into a difficulty that I'm sure should be much easier. I just couldn't twist the documentation into a working example. Assume I have the following models: class League < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :teams end class Team < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :league has_many :players end class Player < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :team end What I want to do is this: team = Factory.build(:team_with_players) and have it build up a bunch of players for me. I tried this: Factory.define :team_with_players, :class => :team do |t| t.sequence {|n| "team-#{n}" } t.players {|p| 25.times {Factory.build(:player, :team => t)} } end But this fails on the :team=>t section, because t isn't really a Team, it's a Factory::Proxy::Builder. I have to have a team assigned to a player. In some cases I want to build up a League and have it do a similar thing, creating multiple teams with multiple players. What am I missing?

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  • Strange File Upload issue with asp.net site on a web farm

    - by Coov
    I have a basic asp.net file upload page. When I test file uploads from my local machine, it works fine. When I test file uploads from our dev machine, it works fine. When I deploy the site to our production webfarm, it behaves strangely. If I access the site from off the network, I can load file-after-file without issue. If I access the site from within our network, I can load the first file just fine but any subsequent files result it a bad sequence of commands error. I'm not sure if this is web farm issue, a network issue, or something else. It feels like a connection is not being disposed of properly but it doesn't make sense why everything works fine remotely. Markup: <asp:FileUpload ID="FileUpload1" runat="server" Width="350px" /> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" Text="Upload" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" /> Code: if (FileUpload1.HasFile) { FtpWebRequest ftpRequest; FtpWebResponse ftpResponse; ftpRequest = (FtpWebRequest)FtpWebRequest.Create(new Uri("ftp://ftp.myftpsite.com/" + FileUpload1.FileName)); ftpRequest.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile; ftpRequest.Proxy = null; ftpRequest.UseBinary = true; ftpRequest.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("username", "password"); ftpRequest.KeepAlive = false; byte[] fileContents = new byte[FileUpload1.PostedFile.ContentLength]; using (Stream fr = FileUpload1.PostedFile.InputStream) { fr.Read(fileContents, 0, FileUpload1.PostedFile.ContentLength); } using (Stream writer = ftpRequest.GetRequestStream()) { writer.Write(fileContents, 0, fileContents.Length); } ftpResponse = (FtpWebResponse)ftpRequest.GetResponse(); Response.Write(ftpResponse.StatusDescription); }

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  • Jmeter is not extracting correctly the value with the reg ex extractor.

    - by Chris
    Jmeter is not extracting correctly the value with the reg ex. When I play with this reg ex (NAME="token" \s value="([^"]+?)") in reg ex coach with the following html everything work fine but when adding the reg with a reg ex extrator to the request he doesn't found the value even if it's the same html in output. <HTML>< script type="text/javascript" > function dostuff(no, applicationID) { submitAction('APPS_NAME' , 'noSelected=' + no + '&applicationID=' + applicationID); }< /script> <FORM NAME="baseForm" ACTION="" METHOD="POST"> <input type="hidden" NAME="token" value="fc95985af8aa5143a7b1d4fda6759a74" > <div id="loader" align="center"> <div> <strong style="color: #003366;">Loading...</strong> </div> <img src="images/initial-loader.gif" align="top"/> </div> <BODY ONLOAD="dostuff('69489','test');"> From the reg ex extractor reference name: token Regex: (NAME="token" \s value="([^"]+?)") template : $2$ match no.:1 Default value: wrong-token The request following my the POST of the previous code is returning : POST data: token=wrong-token in the next request in the tree viewer. But when I check a the real request in a proxy the token is there. Note : I tried the reg ex without the bracket and doesn't worked either. Do anybody have a idea whats wrong here ? Why jmeter can't find my token with the reg ex extrator ?

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  • Why won't VS2010 RC use my existing types when I add a service reference?

    - by Johan Driessen
    I have a huge problem getting services references in VS2010 RC to use existing assemblies. Even though I have a class library with all the data contracts (classes marked with DataContract and properties with DataMember) that is shared between the service project and the consuming project (which is a class library), when I add a service reference, the data contracts are regenerated withing the service reference instead of using the existing types. When I was using VS2010 beta 2, this worked fine, and I have existing service references using the very same data contracts. But if I add a new service reference, or even update an old one, it won't use the existing types anymore. I have made a mini-test-solution, with one service, one data contract type and one console app as a consumer (all in the same solution), and there it seems to work, but that's no great comfort to me. Is there any way to see why it can't use the existing types? Edit to clearify. It works to generate the proxy classes with svcutil.exe, and point to the data contracts dll, like this: svcutil.exe http://localhost/MyService.svc /reference:[Path To DataContracts]\DataContracts.dll /n:*,MyProject.MyServiceReference /ct:System.Collections.Generic.List`1 The question is, what possible reason could there be for Visual Studio to generate its own datacontracts instead of using the existing ones even though the "reuse" checkbox is checked and the datacontracts assembly is referenced.

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  • Publishing artifacts with sources on archiva

    - by Palimondo
    At work I'm dipping my toes in managing project dependencies with maven. We use Apache Archiva (1.2.1) as a local repository and proxy. I'm adding artifact for open source project, that is not published on any public repository. I've learned that to publish the sources I should use the Classifier field on Upload artifact page. The sources are then listed alongside the jar and pom when I browse the repository. But when I update my maven dependencies I get only the jar and pom from the repository. I noticed that sources are also missing when the archiva proxies for me the downloads from other public repositories. I didn't find any configuration options in Archiva's admin pages to serve the sources... What am I missing? Update: I was missing the fact that artifact sources have to be downloaded manually. I.e. the maven client has to request them, which is controlled by command line option -DdownloadSources=true. Maven Integration for Eclipse has a preference setting to always download them as described in Resolving artifact sources. Archiva then serves the sources for local artifacts or proxies the request to remote repositories and caches the sources for future requests.

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  • wsimport generate a client with cookies

    - by dierre
    I'm generating a client for a SOAP 1.2 service using wsimport from the jaxws-maven-plugin in maven with the following execution: <groupId>org.jvnet.jax-ws-commons</groupId> <artifactId>jaxws-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.2</version> <executions> <execution> <goals> <goal>wsimport</goal> </goals> <configuration> <sourceDestDir>${project.basedir}/src/main/java</sourceDestDir> <wsdlUrls> <wsdlUrl>${webservice.url}</wsdlUrl> </wsdlUrls> <extension>true</extension> </configuration> </execution> The first time the client call the proxy, the load balancer generate a cookie and sends it back. The client should send it back so the load balancer knows where (which server) is dedicated to a specific client (the idea is that the first time the client get a server and the cookie identifies the server, then the load balancer sends the client to the same server for every call) Now, is there a way to tell to the plugin to enable automatically the cookie handling?

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  • Altering lazy-loaded object's private variables

    - by Kevin Pang
    I'm running into an issue with private setters when using NHibernate and lazy-loading. Let's say I have a class that looks like this: public class User { public int Foo {get; private set;} public IList<User> Friends {get; set;} public void SetFirstFriendsFoo() { // This line works in a unit test but does nothing during a live run with // a lazy-loaded Friends list Users(0).Foo = 1; } } The SetFirstFriendsFoo call works perfectly inside a unit test (as it should since objects of the same type can access each others private properties). However, when running live with a lazy-loaded Friends list, the SetFirstFriendsFoo call silently fails. I'm guessing the reason for this is because at run-time, the Users(0).Foo object is no longer of type User, but of a proxy class that inherits from User since the Friends list was lazy-loaded. My question is this: shouldn't this generate a run-time exception? You get compile-time exceptions if you try to access another class's private properties, but when you run into a situation like this is looks like the app just ignores you and continues along its way.

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  • RIA Services for transmitting non DB object-graph

    - by Mike Gates
    I have been getting into RIA services because I thought it would simplify dealing with the services layer of web applications I wish to build. I see lots of examples out there showing how to create DomainService classes which expose and consume entities that have some kind of relational database backing, and therefore have foreign-key relationships. However, I would like to know how to expose and consume normal object graphs...objects that contain references to eachother but don't have foreign keys. For example, say I want a service operation called "GetFolderInformation(string pathToFolder)". I want this to return a custom object called "FolderInformation" structured with: - string Name - IEnumerable<FileInformation> Files I cannot get this to work because it seems that RIA wants to deal with entities that have foreign key relationships. Why? Why can't the serializer just see my object references and recreate that in the proxy on the other side? Data exists behind service layers that doesn't necessarily have foreign key relationships...like folder/file for example. EDIT: I realized I hadn't asked my question! My question is, is there a way to do what I am trying to do?

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  • How to prevent multiple registrations?

    - by GG.
    I develop a political survey website where anyone can vote once. Obviously I have to prevent multiple registrations for the survey remains relevant. Already I force every user to login with their Google, Facebook or Twitter account. But they can authenticate 3 times if they have an account on each, or authenticate with multiple accounts of the same platform (I have 3 accounts on Google). So I thought also store the IP address, but they can still go through a proxy... I thought also keep the HTTP User Agent with PHP's get_browser(), although they can still change browsers. I can extract the OS with a regex, to change OS is less easier than browsers. And there is also geolocation, for example with the Google Map API. So to summarize, several ideas: 1 / SSO Authentication (I keep the email) 2 / IP Address 3 / HTTP User Agent 4 / Geolocation with an API Have you any other ideas that I did not think? How to embed these tests? Execute in what order? Have you already deploy this kind of solution?

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  • C# client to Java web service

    - by tomislavg
    I have received wsdl file from outside company. I'm using VS2005 c#. With wsdl.exe I have created class containing methods and types for the given web service. To connect to the service outside company requires that certificate from the smart card is inputed in the header. I think i have achieved this with service.ClientCertificates.Add("Path to exported cert" - at least for now, after probably later i will take it from Certificate Store When service is called there are three steps that are taken and visible by the Fidller(Web Debugging Proxy)). service is called on the url http://test.company.com/webservice.wsdl service redirects the request to certificate server and pin needs to be inputed to get cookie for the server service is again redirected to url http://test.company.com/webservice.wsdl At point 1. I can see that my request send to the server contains .... but at point 3. i can not see request` just a empty string. The exception is thrown Msg: Possible SOAP version mismatch: Envelope namespace http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/wsdl/ was unexpected. Expecting http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/. Does somebody have an example how to connect to java web service with certificate and AlowRedirect enabled for the web service? Any ideas what i am doing wrong are more that welcome.

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  • Python 3.0 IDE - Komodo and Eclipse both flaky?

    - by victorhooi
    heya, I'm trying to find a decent IDE that supports Python 3.x, and offers code completion/in-built Pydocs viewer, Mercurial integration, and SSH/SFTP support. Anyhow, I'm trying Pydev, and I open up a .py file, it's in the Pydev perspective and the Run As doesn't offer any options. It does when you start a Pydev project, but I don't want to start a project just to edit one single Python script, lol, I want to just open a .py file and have It Just Work... Plan 2, I try Komodo 6 Alpha 2. I actually quite like Komodo, and it's nice and snappy, offers in-built Mercurial support, as well as in-built SSH support (although it lacks SSH HTTP Proxy support, which is slightly annoying). However, for some reason, this refuses to pick up Python 3. In Edit-Preferences-Languages, there's two option, one for Python and Python3, but the Python3 one refuses to work, with either the official Python.org binaries, or ActiveState's own ActivePython 3. Of course, I can set the "Python" interpreter to the 3.1 binary, but that's an ugly hack and breaks Python 2.x support. So, does anybody who uses an IDE for Python have any suggestions on either of these accounts, or can you recommend an alternate IDE for Python 3.0 development? Cheers, Victor

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  • How can I make an even more random number in ActionScript 2.0

    - by Theo
    I write a piece of software that runs inside banner ads which generates millions of session IDs every day. For a long time I've known that the random number generator in Flash is't random enough to generate sufficiently unique IDs, so I've employed a number of tricks to get even more random numbers. However, in ActionScript 2.0 it's not easy, and I'm seeing more and more collisions, so I wonder if there is something I've overlooked. As far as I can tell the problem with Math.random() is that it's seeded by the system time, and when you have sufficient numbers of simultaneous attempts you're bound to see collisions. In ActionScript 3.0 I use the System.totalMemory, but there's no equivalent in ActionScript 2.0. AS3 also has Font.enumerateFonts, and a few other things that are different from system to system. On the server side I also add the IP address to the session ID, but even that isn't enough (for example, many large companies use a single proxy server and that means that thousands of people all have the same IP -- and since they tend to look at the same sites, with the same ads, roughly at the same time, there are many session ID collisions). What I need isn't something perfectly random, just something that is random enough to dilute the randomness I get from Math.random(). Think of it this way: there is a certain chance that two people will generate the same random number sequence using only Math.random(), but the chance of two people generating the same sequence and having, say, the exact same list of fonts is significantly lower. I cannot rely on having sufficient script access to use ExternalInterface to get hold of things like the user agent, or the URL of the page. I don't need suggestions of how to do it in AS3, or any other system, only AS2 -- using only what's available in the standard APIs. The best I've come up with so far is to use the list of microphones (Microphone.names), but I've also tried to make some fingerprinting using some of the properties in System.capabilities, I'm not sure how much randomness I can get out of that though so I'm not using that at the moment. I hope I've overlooked something.

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  • Strange Problem with Webservice and IIS

    - by Rene
    Hello there, I have a Problem which confuses me a little bit, resp. where I don't have any Idea about what it could be. The System I'm using is Windows Vista, IIS 7.0, VS2008, Windows Software Factory, Entity Framework, WCF. The Binding for all Webservices is wshttpbinding. I'm using a Webservice hosted in IIS. This Webservice uses/calls another Webservice (also installed in the IIS). If I use a client calling the first Webservice (which calls the second Webservice) it works fine for about 4-10 Times. And then (it is repeatable to get this Problem, but sometimes it happens after 4, sometimes after 10 Time, but it always will happen), the Service and the IIS gets stuck. Stuck means, that this Webservice isn't callable anymore and generates an timeout after 1 minute. Even increasing Timeout doesn't change anything. If i try to restart the IIS I get an timeout error. So the IIS is also "stuck" (it is not really stuck, but I can't restart it). Only if I kill the w3wp.exe IIS is restartable and the Webservice will work again (until i again call this service several times). The logfiles (i'm no expert in things like logging or where to find/enable such logs, so to say : i'm a newbie) like http-logging, Event Viewer or WCF-Message Logging don't show any hints upon the source of the problem. I don't have this problem when I'm using a Webservice which doesn't call another Service. Calling a Webservice is done by Service Reference (I'm using no Proxy-Classes), but I think this should be no Problem. I have no idea of what is happening, nor how to solve this Problem. Regards Rene

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  • firefox reading web page from local JS file -- access to restricted URI denied, code: 1012, nsresult

    - by macias
    My problem is -- I have a html file which is really JS program, which reads web pages and show them in customized manner (i.e. it displays the same content in a different way). Basically, I create XMLHttpRequest object and then req.open("GET", web_page_address, false); req.send(""); This gives me (in firefox) an error: Error: uncaught exception: [Exception... "Access to restricted URI denied" code: "1012" nsresult: "0x805303f4 (NS_ERROR_DOM_BAD_URI)" I already googled, and looked at SO but all other issues are very similar with those two exceptions: the file I open in firefox is a local file, opened directly in browser -- I don't have www server running at localhost I don't have any control over the web pages I am reading stuff from So, several solutions I've seen so far (like adding PHP proxy, changing the way external server sends data) cannot be applied here. What else can be done in such case? Another story is I am wondering if such strict security for directly local file has any sense. Thank you in advance for tips/links/etc. Have a nice day!

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  • A way to specify a different host in an SSH tunnel from the host in use

    - by Tom
    I am trying to setup an SSH tunnel to access Beanstalk (to bypass an annoying proxy server). I can get this to work, but with one caveat: I have to map my Beanstalk host URL (username.svn.beanstalkapp.com) in my hosts file to 127.0.0.1 (and use the ip in place of the domain when setting up the tunnel). The reason (I think) is that I am creating the tunnel using the local SSH instance (on Snow Leopard) and if I use localhost or 127.0.0.1 when talking to Beanstalk, it rejects the authorisation credentials. I believe this is because Beanstalk use the hostname specified in a request to determine which account the username / password combination should be checked against. If localhost is used, I think this information is missing (in some manner which Beanstalk requires) from the requests. At the moment I dig the IP for username.svn.beanstalkapp.com, map username.svn.beanstalkapp.com to 127.0.0.1 in my hosts file, then for the tunnel I use the command: ssh -L 8080:ip:443 -p 22 -l tom -N 127.0.0.1 I can tell Subversion that the repo. is located at: https://username.svn.beanstalkapp.com:8080/repo-name This uses my tunnel and the username and password are accepted. So, my question is if there is an option when setting up the SSH tunnel which would mean I wouldn't have to use my hosts file workaround?

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  • Can't block capslock with CGEventTap

    - by Thor Frølich
    I'm using Quartz CGEventTap in an attempt to globally intercept capslock presses and block them (to have them do something useful instead). I succesfully detect capslock presses but have so far been unable to block them. My code (originating from this stackoverflow answer) is something like this: eventTap = CGEventTapCreate(kCGHIDEventTap, kCGTailAppendEventTap, kCGEventTapOptionDefault, eventMask, myCGEventCallback, &oldFlags); runLoopSource = CFMachPortCreateRunLoopSource(kCFAllocatorDefault, eventTap, 0); CFRunLoopAddSource(CFRunLoopGetCurrent(), runLoopSource, kCFRunLoopCommonModes); CGEventTapEnable(eventTap, true); CGEventRef myCGEventCallback(CGEventTapProxy proxy, CGEventType type, CGEventRef theEvent, void *refcon) { CGEventFlags *oldFlags = (CGEventFlags *)refcon; switch (type) { case kCGEventFlagsChanged: { CGEventFlags newFlags = CGEventGetFlags(theEvent); CGEventFlags changedFlags = *oldFlags ^ newFlags; *oldFlags = newFlags; if (changedFlags == 65536) { NSLog(@"Capslock pressed. Let's not return the event"); return NULL; } break; } default: break; } NSLog(@"Different modifier than capslock. Returning the event"); return theEvent; } If I understand correctly returning NULL should effectively block the keypress from propagating. Indeed it also does for "normal" keyup and -down events. However capslock toggles regardless. Any ideas why that is? Am I making incorrect assumptions? And/or how can I do things differently to achieve my goal? Thanks, Thor

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  • How to intercept, parse and compile?

    - by epitka
    This is a problem I've been struggling to solve for a while. I need a way to either replace code in the method with a parsed code from the template at compile time (PostSharp comes to mind) or to create a dynamic proxy (Linfu or Castle). So given a source code like this [Template] private string GetSomething() { var template = [%=Customer.Name%] } I need it to be compiled into this private string GetSomething() { MemoryStream mStream = new MemoryStream(); StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(mStream,System.Text.Encoding.UTF8); writer.Write(@"" ); writer.Write(Customer.Name); StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(mStream); writer.Flush(); mStream.Position = 0; return sr.ReadToEnd(); } It is not important what technology is used. I tried with PostSharp's ImplementMethodAspect but got nowhere (due to lack of experience with it). I also looked into Linfu framework. Can somebody suggest some other approach or way to do this, I would really appreciate. My whole project depends on this.

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  • Registry remotley hacked win 7 need help tracking the perp

    - by user577229
    I was writing some .VBS code at thhe office that would allow certain file extensions to be downloaded without a warning dialog on a w7x32 system. The system I was writing this on is in a lab on a segmented subnet. All web access is via a proxy server. The only means of accessing my machine is via the internet or from within the labs MSFT AD domain. While writing and testing my code I found a message of sorts. Upon refresing the registry to verify my code changed a dword, instead the message HELLO was written and visible in regedit where the dword value wass called for. I took a screen shot and proceeded to edit my code. This same weird behavior occurred last time I was writing registry code except on another internal server. I understand that remote registry access exists for windows systems. I will block this immediately once I return to the office. What I want to know is, can I trace who made this connection? How would I do this? I suspect the cause of this is the cause of other "odd" behaviors I'm experiencing at work such as losing control of my input director master control for over an hour and unchanged code that all of a sudden fails for no logical region. These failures occur at funny times, whenver I'm about to give a demonstration of my test code. I know this sounds crazy however knowledge of the registry component makes this believable. Once the registry can be accessed, the entire system is compromised. Any help or sanity checking is appreciated.

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  • restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

    - by Justin Grant
    I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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  • Nhibernate join on a table twice

    - by Zuber
    Consider the following Class structure... public class ListViewControl { public int SystemId {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> Actions {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> ListViewActions {get; set;} } public class ControlAction { public string blahBlah {get; set;} } I want to load class ListViewControl eagerly using NHibernate. The mapping using Fluent is as shown below public UIControlMap() { Id(x => x.SystemId); HasMany(x => x.Actions) .KeyColumn("ActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.ListViewActions) .KeyColumn("ListViewActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); } This is how I am trying to load it eagerly var baseActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("Actions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViewActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("ListViewActions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViews = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .SetFetchMode("Actions", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("ListViewActions",FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var result = _session.CreateMultiCriteria() .Add("listViewActions", listViewActions) .Add("baseActions", baseActions) .Add("listViews", listViews) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()) .GetResult("listViews"); Now, my problem is that the class ListViewControl get the correct records in both Actions and ListViewActions, but there are multiple entries of the same record. The number of records is equal to the number of joins made to the ControlAction table, in this case two. How can I avoid this? If I remove the SetFetchMode from the listViews query, the actions are loaded lazily through a proxy which I don't want.

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  • C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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  • What do I name this class whose sole purpose is to report failure?

    - by Blair Holloway
    In our system, we have a number of classes whose construction must happen asynchronously. We wrap the construction process in another class that derives from an IConstructor class: class IConstructor { public: virtual void Update() = 0; virtual Status GetStatus() = 0; virtual int GetLastError() = 0; }; There's an issue with the design of the current system - the functions that create the IConstructor-derived classes are often doing additional work which can also fail. At that point, instead of getting a constructor which can be queried for an error, a NULL pointer is returned. Restructuring the code to avoid this is possible, but time-consuming. In the meantime, I decided to create a constructor class which we create and return in case of error, instead of a NULL pointer: class FailedConstructor : public IConstructor public: virtual void Update() {} virtual Status GetStatus() { return STATUS_ERROR; } virtual int GetLastError() { return m_errorCode; } private: int m_errorCode; }; All of the above this the setup for a mundane question: what do I name the FailedConstructor class? In our current system, FailedConstructor would indicate "a class which constructs an instance of Failed", not "a class which represents a failed attempt to construct another class". I feel like it should be named for one of the design patterns, like Proxy or Adapter, but I'm not sure which.

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  • Service Bus / Request Forwarding

    - by codputer
    I'm doing some development with a thrid party that issues either a Get or POST to a public URL that I specify. What I would like to do is set up a Relay service on the Azure Service Bus that my dev machine can listen to. When the request comes in, I want to forward that request as if my web service was taking the request directly from the thrid party service. When I'm ready, I'll deploy the application to a public service, change the URL that the thrid party service is sending too, and viola I should be up and running. What I'm looking for looks exactly like this: Clemens the Master of Service Bus but it's from the 2009 CTP. I'm working at it, but haven't yet got it working using all the new bits in 2012 (a.ka. its over my head at the moment). Somebody want to help? Clemens also help somebody else create a Reverse Proxy using the Service Bus, but I can't seem to find it. Yes I've also tweeted Clemens, but I'm sure he is a busy man! p.s. I know about Application Request Routing, but my dev machine is not on a public URL, I need to rewrite the URL after my client listener on the service bus recieves the message that was relayed from the Server side endpoint.

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  • Cannot implicity convert type void to System.Threading.Tasks.Task<bool>

    - by sagesky36
    I have a WCF Service that contains the following method. All the methods in the service are asynchrounous and compile just fine. public async Task<Boolean> ValidateRegistrationAsync(String strUserName) { try { using (YeagerTechEntities DbContext = new YeagerTechEntities()) { DbContext.Configuration.ProxyCreationEnabled = false; DbContext.Database.Connection.Open(); var reg = await DbContext.aspnet_Users.FirstOrDefaultAsync(f => f.UserName == strUserName); if (reg != null) return true; else return false; } } catch (Exception) { throw; } } My client application was set to access the WCF service with the check box for the "Allow generation of asynchronous operations" and it generated the proxy just fine. I am receiving the above subject error when trying to call this WCF service method from my client with the following code. Mind you, I know what the error message means, but this is my first time trying to call an asynchronous task in a WCF service from a client. Task<Boolean> blnMbrShip = db.ValidateRegistrationAsync(FormsAuthentication.Decrypt(cn.Value).Name); What do I need to do to properly call the method so the design time compile error disappears? Thanks so much in advance...

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  • Redirect uploaded files to another server, using nginx

    - by Serg ikS
    I am creating a web service of scheduled posts to some soc. network.Need help dealing with file uploads under high traffic. Process overview: User uploads files to SomeServer (not mine). SomeServer then responds with a JSON string. My web app should store that JSON response. Opt. 1 — Save, cURL POST, delete tmp The stupid way I made it work: User uploads files to MyWebApp; MyWebApp cURL's the file further to SomeServer, getting the response. Opt.2 — JS magic The smart way it could be perfect: User uploads the file directly to SomeServer, from within an iFrame; MyWebApp gets the response through JavaScript. But this is(?) impossible due to the 'Same Origin Policy', isn't it? Opt. 3 — nginx proxying? The better way for a production server: User uploads files to MyWebApp; nginx intercepts the file uploads and sends them directly to the SomeServer; JSON response is also intercepted by nginx and processed by MyWebApp. Does this make any sense, and what would be the nginx config for, say, /fileupload Location to proxy it to SomeServer ?

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