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  • mvc jquery passing form values after user presses "Accept" button

    - by gdubs
    So I have a form and a submit button that posts the form to an action. But I wanted to show a popup where the user can deny or accept an agreement. Here's my jquery $(document).ready((function () { var dialog = $('#confirmation-dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, width: 500, height: 600, resizable: false, modal: true, buttons: { "Accept": function () { $(this).dialog('close'); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', data: {__RequestVerificationToken: $("input[name=__RequestVerificationToken]").val()} }); }, "Cancel": function () { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); $('#registration-submit').click(function (e) { var action = $(this.form); console.log(action); var form = $('form'); dialog.dialog("open"); return false; }); })); My problem with this is that it would post, but it would only send my AntiforgeryToken, and not the values of the form. But when it goes through the TryupdateModel it would go through for some reason but will not Save (cuz of the missing data that wasn't passed on the formcollection).

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  • get_post_meta return empty string

    - by Jean-philippe Emond
    I guest it is a little issues but I running a SQL to get some post id. $result = $wpdb->get_results("SELECT wppm.post_id FROM wp_postmeta wppm INNER JOIN wp_posts wpp ON wppm.post_id=wpp.ID WHERE wppm.meta_key LIKE 'activity'"); (count: 302) After that, I get all id and I run get_post_meta like that: foreach($result as $id){ $activity = get_post_meta($id); var_dump($activity); foreach($activity as $key=>$value){ if(is_array($value) && $key=="age"){ var_dump($value); } } } (var_dump result: string "") samething if I run with: $activity = get_post_meta($id,'activity',true); Where we need to get a result. What is wrong? Thank you for your help!!! [Bonus Question] If the "activity" meta_key as an array Value. and I get directly like: $result = $wpdb->get_results("SELECT wppm.meta_value FROM wp_postmeta wppm INNER JOIN wp_posts wpp ON wppm.post_id=wpp.ID WHERE wppm.meta_key LIKE 'activity'"); How I parse it? Thanks again!

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  • mysql query using global variables

    - by Carlos
    I am trying run a query to active the users account. I am not sure if I am having problem with the query itself or if there's something else that I dont know about. here is the code: if($_SESSION['lastid']&&$_SESSION['random']) { $check= mysql_query('SELECT * FROM members WHERE id= "$_SESSION[lastid]" AND random = " $_SESSION[random]"'); $checknum = mysql_num_rows($check); //$checknum = mysql_query($check) or die("Error: ". mysql_error(). " with query ". $check); if($checknum != 0) // run query to activate the account { $acti= mysql_query('UPDATE members SET activation = "1" WHERE id= "$_SESSION[lastid]"'); die('Your account has been activated. You may now log in!'); }else{ echo('Invalid id or activation code.') . ' lastid: ' .$_SESSION['lastid'] . ' random: ' .$_SESSION['random'] ; // die ('Invalid id or activation code.'); } }else{ die('Could not either find id or random number!'); } this is the warning I am getting from mysql: Warning: mysql_num_rows(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource in /hermes/bosweb26b/b2501/servername/folder/file.php on line 30 but when I echo the variables out, I get the same values that are stored in the database.... Invalid id or activation code. lastid: 2 and random: 36308075 could someone please give me a hint? thank you.

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  • Slope requires a real as parameter 2?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Question How do you pass the correct value to udf_slope's second parameter type? Attempts CAST(Y.YEAR AS FLOAT), but that failed (SQL error). Y.YEAR + 0.0, but that failed, too (see error message). slope(D.AMOUNT, 1.0), failed as well Error Message Using udf_slope fails due to: Can't initialize function 'slope'; slope() requires a real as parameter 2 Code SELECT D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR, slope(D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR + 0.0) as SLOPE, intercept(D.AMOUNT, Y.YEAR + 0.0) as INTERCEPT FROM YEAR_REF Y, DAILY D Here, D.AMOUNT is a FLOAT and Y.YEAR is an INTEGER. Create Function The slope function was created as follows: CREATE AGGREGATE FUNCTION slope RETURNS REAL SONAME 'udf_slope.so'; Function Signature From udf_slope.cc: double slope( UDF_INIT* initid, UDF_ARGS* args, char* is_null, char* is_error ) Example Usages Reading the fine manual reveals: UDF intercept() Calculates the intercept of the linear regression of two sets of variables. Function name intercept Input parameter(s) 2 (dependent variable: REAL, independent variable: REAL) Examples SELECT intercept(income,age) FROM customers UDF slope() Calculates the slope of the linear regression of two sets of variables. Function name slope Input parameter(s) 2 (dependent variable: REAL, independent variable: REAL) Examples SELECT slope(income,age) FROM customers Thoughts? Thank you!

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  • "requiresuniqueemail=true" implementation in asp.net site

    - by domineer
    Hi people I got a social networking site that is running live right now.The first time I launched my site I let requiresuniqueemail=false set-up on my web.config inorder for me to create dummy accounts for testing purposes and to start up the site you know.However the site is kind of stable right now w/ almost 5k members.So I would like to set-up the requiresuniqueemail to true so that users cannot reuse their existing email address and for me to make it sure that there will be unique email ad for each site user.I know the site got like 100 users with the same email address.My question is what could be the problem I'm going to face if I do this right now(requiresuniqueemail="true") and how to do this efficiently(without errors and if possible sitewide say in the global assax)?I tested and I already got an error if I logout an account.Like say a user try to click log-out this code runs: Dim d As DateTime = DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(-1 * Membership.UserIsOnlineTimeWindow) Dim theuser As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser() theuser.LastActivityDate = d Membership.UpdateUser(theuser) If Not Cache(Page.User.Identity.Name.ToLower() + "currentstatus") Is Nothing Then Cache.Remove(Page.User.Identity.Name.ToLower() + "currentstatus") End If Then an exception occured on updateuser() function saying System.Configuration.Provider.ProviderException: The E-mail supplied is invalid. This is just one instance I know that I encountered a problem. Hoping to hear your ideas guys.....

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  • How to get Tkinter to input text and submit with button

    - by Rob
    Hi I was wondering if anybody could help me submit code from the test fields to the login fields from Tkinter import * import tkMessageBox if ( __name__ == "__main__" ): import resources.lib.mechanize as mechanize mechanize # Start Browser br = mechanize.Browser(factory=mechanize.RobustFactory()) # User-Agent (Firefox) br.addheaders = [('User-agent', 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.0; en-US; rv:1.9.0.6')] br.open('http://razetheworld.com/wp-login.php?redirect_to=http%3A%2F%2Frazetheworld.com') br.select_form(name="loginform") br['log'] = 'entryWidget_U must enter here' br['pwd'] = 'entryWidget_P must enter here' br.submit(name="wp-submit") print br.geturl() def displayText(): """ Display the Entry text value. """ global entryWidget_U global entryWidget_P if entryWidget_U.get().strip() == "": tkMessageBox.showerror("Tkinter Entry Widget", "Enter a Username") else: tkMessageBox.showinfo("Tkinter Entry Widget", "Text value =" + entryWidget_U.get().strip()) if entryWidget_P.get().strip() == "": tkMessageBox.showerror("Tkinter Entry Widget", "Enter a Password") else: tkMessageBox.showinfo("Tkinter Entry Widget", "Text value =" + entryWidget_P.get().strip()) if __name__ == "__main__": root = Tk() root.title("Tkinter Entry Widget") root["padx"] = 40 root["pady"] = 20 # Create a text frame to hold the text Label and the Entry widget textFrame_U = Frame(root) textFrame_P = Frame(root) #Create a Label in textFrame entryLabel = Label(textFrame_U) entryLabel["text"] = "Enter Username:" entryLabel.pack(side=LEFT) entryLabel = Label(textFrame_P) entryLabel["text"] = "Enter Password:" entryLabel.pack(side=LEFT) # Create an Entry Widget in textFrame entryWidget_U = Entry(textFrame_U) entryWidget_U["width"] = 50 entryWidget_U.pack(side=LEFT) entryWidget_P = Entry(textFrame_P) entryWidget_P["width"] = 50 entryWidget_P.pack(side=LEFT) textFrame_U.pack() textFrame_P.pack() button = Button(root, text="Login", command=#Run br.submit(name="wp-submit")) button.pack() root.mainloop()

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  • Installing Team Explorer 2008 on Windows Server 2003

    - by BriteShiny
    I am attempting to install Team Explorer 2008 on a Windows Server 2008 box, without success, which is why I am here. The error log reveals the following: [07/02/10,10:07:03] Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Shell (integrated mode): d:.\wcu\ppe\vside.exe exited with return value 1 [07/02/10,10:07:03] InstallReturnValue: GFN_MID VS PPE, 0x1 [07/02/10,10:07:03] Setup.exe: AddGlobalCustomProperty [07/02/10,10:07:03] Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Shell (integrated mode): ERRORLOG EVENT : Error code 1 for this component means "Incorrect function. " [07/02/10,10:07:03] Setup.exe: AddGlobalCustomProperty [07/02/10,10:07:03] Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Shell (integrated mode): ERRORLOG EVENT : Component Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Shell (integrated mode) returned an unexpected value. [07/02/10,10:07:03] Setup.exe: AddGlobalCustomProperty [07/02/10,10:07:03] Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 Shell (integrated mode): ERRORLOG EVENT : Return from system messaging: Incorrect function. Apparently the Team Explorer 2008 is incompatible with Windows Server 2008. If you right click on the setup.exe in the TFS Explorer ISO and run a compatibility check it fails. There is a separate installer package to install the VS2008 Shell that is compatible with Windows 2008, but it fails too. Has anyone else been able to install Team Explorer 2008 on Windows Server 2008?

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  • Problem logging in and changing permissions in Facebook

    - by kujawk
    Hi everybody, I've got a piece of code that logs into Facebook, gets a session, sets status_update and offline_access permission if they are not set, and gets a new session with the newly set permissions. This code used to work fine but now I'm getting error 100 "One of the parameters specified was missing or invalid" as a response to the second call to get session and I can't figure out why. Here's the sequence in detail: CREATE TOKEN restserver.php?method=auth.createToken&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: new token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[token created above] login screen loads and user successfully logs in with their username/password. GET SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&auth_token=token created above&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: session key with expiration date and a secret CHECK/AUTHORIZE PERMISSIONS restserver.php?method=users.hasAppPermission&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&ext_perm=status_update&call_id=[proper id]&session_key=[key returned above]&sig=[sig created with secret returned for get session] response: 0 m.facebook.com/authorize.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&ext_perm=status_update authorization screen loads and user authorizes Same steps for status_update CREATE NEW TOKEN Same steps as done to create the first token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[new token] user is already logged in, redirected to their homepage GET NEW SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&format=JSON&auth_token=[new token]&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: error 100 - missing or invalid parameter. Of course it doesn't tell me which one. Anybody have any ideas what I'm doing wrong here? I tried skipping the second login and going right to creating the new session and that didn't work. The only thing that seems to work is logging out the user after they've authorized the permissions and having them log back in again. I'd like to avoid this if possible. Can you have two outstanding sessions at one time? This code used to work but I'm thinking maybe something changed on Facebook's end that I'm not aware of. Thanks, kris

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  • What do you mean by the expressiveness in programming lanuguage?

    - by prosseek
    I see a lot of the word 'expressiveness' when people want to stress one language is better than the other. But I don't see exactly what they mean by it. Is it the verboseness/succinctness? I mean, if one language can write down something shorter than the other, does that mean expressiveness? Please refer to my other question - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2411772/article-about-code-density-as-a-measure-of-programming-language-power Is it the power of the language? Paul Graham says that one language is more powerful than the other language in a sense that one language can do that the other language can't do (for example, LISP can do something with macro that the other language can't do). Is it just something that makes life easier? Regular expression can be one of the examples. Is it a different way of solving the same problem: something like SQL to solve the search problem? What do you think about the expressiveness of a programming lanuage? Can you show the expressiveness using some code? What's the relationship with the expressiveness and DSL? Do people come up with DSL to get the expressiveness?

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  • How do you populate a NSArrayController with CoreData rows programmatically?

    - by Andrew McCloud
    After several hours/days of searching and diving into example projects i've concluded that I need to just ask. If I bind the assetsView (IKImageBrowserView) directly to an IB instance of NSArrayController everything works just fine. - (void) awakeFromNib { library = [[NSArrayController alloc] init]; [library setManagedObjectContext:[[NSApp delegate] managedObjectContext]]; [library setEntityName:@"Asset"]; NSLog(@"%@", [library arrangedObjects]); NSLog(@"%@", [library content]); [assetsView setDataSource:library]; [assetsView reloadData]; } Both NSLogs are empty. I know i'm missing something... I just don't know what. The goal is to eventually allow multiple instances of this view's "library" filtered programmatically with a predicate. For now i'm just trying to have it display all of the rows for the "Asset" entity. Addition: If I create the NSArrayController in IB and then try to log [library arrangedObjects] or manually set the data source for assetsView I get the same empty results. Like I said earlier, if I bind library.arrangedObjects to assetsView.content (IKImageBrowserView) in IB - with same managed object context and same entity name set by IB - everything works as expected. - (void) awakeFromNib { // library = [[NSArrayController alloc] init]; // [library setManagedObjectContext:[[NSApp delegate] managedObjectContext]]; // [library setEntityName:@"Asset"]; NSLog(@"%@", [library arrangedObjects]); NSLog(@"%@", [library content]); [assetsView setDataSource:library]; [assetsView reloadData]; }

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  • Get the id of the link and pass it to the jQueryUI dialog widget

    - by Mike Sanchez
    I'm using the dialog widget of jQueryUI. Now, the links are grabbed from an SQL database by using jQuery+AJAX which is the reason why I used "live" $(function() { var $dialog = $('#report') .dialog({ autoOpen: false, resizable: false, modal: true, height: 410, width: 350, draggable: true }) //store reference to placeholders $uid = $('#reportUniqueId'); $('.reportopen').live("click", function (e) { $dialog.dialog('open'); var $uid = $(this).attr('id'); e.preventDefault(); }); }); My question is, how do I pass the id of the link that triggered the dialog widget to the dialog box itself? The link is set up like this: <td align="left" width="12%"> <span id="notes"> [<a href="javascript:void(0)" class="reportopen" id="<?=$reportId;?>">Spam</a>] </span> </td> And the dialogbox is set up like this: <div id="report" title="Inquire now"> HAHAHAHAHA <span id="reportUniqueId"></span> </div> I'd like for the id to be passed and generated in the <span id="reportUniqueId"></span> part of the dialog box. Any idea?

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  • Create a real time web application using .net framework and azure - very confused

    - by test
    Let us say I would like a simple (yet complex) web application where there is continuous READING AND WRITING to the sql azure database. Let us say I am tracking a location, and I would like it to be updated very frequently (lets take the worst case: 1 second). From the little knowledge I have, I think that this involves the use of the database to continuously write the location to the database, and continuously read from the database to update another person through a website. Do you please have any suggestion which technologies can I use? Is there a simple way? I heard about node.js, signalR. I have no idea how to use them, if they are really what I need. the last tutorial I checked out simply uses a while(true) loop..but I don't think that that's something good to keep a thread continuously busy... Do I have to create some background task? Do I have to create some web service? This is a school project and I wish not to go for the most difficult option, but if there is some sort of solution, challenge accepted :) Can you please help me? Since I have asked many questions here and yet I have no solution in mind

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  • Error with MySQL Query

    - by Ken
    Okay, I must be an idiot, because this is my 3rd question for today. Here's my code: date_default_timezone_set("America/Los_Angeles"); include("mainmenu.php"); $con = mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "********"); if(!$con){ die(mysql_error()); } $usrname = $_POST['usrname']; $fname = $_POST['fname']; $lname = $_POST['lname']; $password = $_POST['password']; $email = $_POST['email']; mysql_select_db("`users`, $con) or die(mysql_error()"); $query = ("INSERT INTO `users`.`data` (`id`, `usrname`, `fname`, `lname`, `email`, `password`) VALUES (NULL, '$usrname', '$fname', '$lname', '$email', 'password'))"); mysql_query('$query') or die(mysql_error()); mysql_close($con); echo("Thank you for registering!"); I always get the error returned as: "You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '$query' at line 1. Help a newbie. I'm about to stab my monitor.

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  • Tracking down slow managed DLL loading

    - by Alex K
    I am faced with the following issue and at this point I feel like I'm severely lacking some sort of tool, I just don't know what that tool is, or what exactly it should be doing. Here is the setup: I have a 3rd party DLL that has to be registered in GAC. This all works fine and good on pretty much every machine our software was deployed on before. But now we got 2 machines, seemingly identical to the ones we know work (they are cloned from the same image and stuffed with the same hardware, so pretty much the only difference is software settings, over which I went over and over, and they seem fine). Now the problem, the DLL in GAC takes a very long time to load. At least I believe this is the issue, what I can say definitively is that instantiating a single class from that DLL is the slow part. Once it is loaded, thing fly as they always have. But while on known-good machines the DLL loads so fast that a timestamp in the log doesn't even change, on these 2 machines it take over 1min to load. Knowns: I have no access to the source, so I can't debug through the DLL. Our app is the only one that uses it (so shouldn't be simultaneous access issues). There is only one version of this DLL in existance, so it shouldn't be a matter of version conflict. The GAC reference is being used (if I uninstall the DLL from GAC, an exception will be thrown about the missing GAC reference). Could someone with a greater skill in debug-fu suggest what I can do to track down the root cause of this issue?

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  • How would you code an efficient Circular Buffer in Java or C#

    - by Cheeso
    I want a simple class that implements a fixed-size circular buffer. It should be efficient, easy on the eyes, generically typed. EDIT: It need not be MT-capable, for now. I can always add a lock later, it won't be high-concurrency in any case. Methods should be: .Add and I guess .List, where I retrieve all the entries. On second thought, Retrieval I think should be done via an indexer. At any moment I will want to be able to retrieve any element in the buffer by index. But keep in mind that from one moment to the next Element[n] may be different, as the Circular buffer fills up and rolls over. This isn't a stack, it's a circular buffer. Regarding "overflow": I would expect internally there would be an array holding the items, and over time the head and tail of the buffer will rotate around that fixed array. But that should be invisible from the user. There should be no externally-detectable "overflow" event or behavior. This is not a school assignment - it is most commonly going to be used for a MRU cache or a fixed-size transaction or event log.

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  • iptables : how to allow incoming ftp traffic?

    - by logansama
    Hi, Still fighting my way through the jungle that is called iptables. I have managed to allow FTP access outside of our LAN: both these would work. NOTE: eth0 is the LAN interface and eth1 is the WAN interface. iptables -t filter -A FORWARD -i eth0 -p tcp --dport 20:21 -j ACCEPT or iptables -A FORWARD -i eth0 -o eth1 -p tcp --sport 20:21 --dport 1024:65535 -j ACCEPT But when i connect to a external FTP server i manage to log in and all is fine until it wishes to List the directory content. Then nothing happens as the data is blocked, due to the fact that i do not have a rule set up to allow it! (my last rule on the FORWARD chain is to block all traffic) I have tried a gazillion rules (many of which i did not understand) to try and allow the FTP traffic back through my server. One such rule for example was: iptables -A FORWARD -i eth1 -o eth0 -p tcp --sport 20:21 --dport 1024:65535 -j ACCEPT But i cannot get the List to work. It just times out after a while. Would anyone perhaps know how to build a rule which would allow FTP to List / allow such traffic back? Or have a link to sources i could work through? Thank you,

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Wrong redirecting, how to debug?

    - by Xorty
    I am stuck with redirecting problem in ASP.NET MVC project. I have mapped tables via LINQtoSQL and each has unique ID as primary key. I am implementing functionallity of 'CREATE'. Basically, after new value is added into SQL table (which means I pressed Save button), I want to be redirected to Details of this freshly added item. Here's little code how I am doing it : [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post), Authorize] public ActionResult Create(Item item) { .... return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = item.ItemID }); Trouble is, I am never redirected to Details view (I have Details.aspx view for items). When I check CallHierarchy in Visual Studio (2010 pro) the hierarchy is indeed little strange, like this : RedirectToAction(string,object) Calls To 'RedirectToAction' Create Calls To Create (no results) Calls From Create (methods of created instance. From there I'll get back to 'RedirectToAction' and to 'Calls to Create' and 'Calls From Create' etc. etc. - loop Edit Calls From 'RedirectToAction' Not supported I am looking for some tools or more specifically 'know how' (since VS probably has some tools) to debug this kind of situations. PS: rooting is default :"{controller}/{action}/{id}", Thanks

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  • Can I get the IE debugger to break into long-running javascript

    - by Brian Deacon
    I have a page that has a byzantine amount of javascript running. In IE only, and only version 8, I get a long-script warning that I can reliably reproduce. I suspect it is event handlers triggering themselves in an infinite loop. The Developer Tools are limping horribly under the weight of the script running, but I do seem to be able to get the log to tell me what line of script it was executing when I aborted, but it is inevitably some of the deep plumbing of the ExtJS code we use, and I can't tell where it is in my stack of code. A way of seeing the call stack would work, but preferably I'd like to be able to just break into the debugger when I get the long script warning so I can just step through the stack. There is a similar question posted, but the answers given were for a not-the-right-tool, or the not terribly helpful advice to eliminate half my code at a time on a binary hunt for the infinite loop. If my code were simple enough that I could do that, it probably wouldn't have gotten the infinite loop in the first place. If I could reproduce the problem in firebug, I'd probably be a lot happier too.

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  • How can I send GET data to multiple URLs at the same time using cURL?

    - by Rob
    My apologies, I've actually asked this question multiple times, but never quite understood the answers. Here is my current code: while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //load the urls and send GET data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 2); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_exec($ch); //Execute the cURL curl_close($ch); //Close it off } //end while loop What I'm doing here, is taking URLs from a MySQL Database ($resultSet['url']), appending some extra variables to it, just some GET data ($fullcurl), and simply requesting the pages. This starts the script running on those pages, and that's all that this script needs to do, is start those scripts. It doesn't need to return any output. Just the load the page long enough for the script to start. However, currently it's loading each URL (currently 11) one at a time. I need to load all of them simultaneously. I understand I need to use curl_multi_*, but I haven't the slightest idea on how cURL functions work, so I don't know how to change my code to use curl_multi_* in a while loop. So my questions are: How can I change this code to load all of the URLs simultaneously? Please explain it and not just give me code. I want to know what each individual function does exactly. Will curl_multi_exec even work in a while loop, since the while loop is just sending each row one at a time? And of course, any references, guides, tutorials about cURL functions would be nice, as well. Preferably not so much from php.net, as while it does a good job of giving me the syntax, its just a little dry and not so good with the explanations.

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  • Is there a way to automatically load navigational property using the .NET Entity Framework?

    - by René Wolferink
    Stepping away more and more from writing SQL for my applications, I decided to give the Entity Framework a try. However, I've run into something I believe is causing me to write more code than I think is strictly necessary. When I accessed some navigational properties, I discovered that all many-to-one relations (simple references) were null and all one-to-many and many-to-many relations (EntityCollections) were empty. For example: I have a User with a reference to a Group. When I have retieved a User, by using a simple select-by-id, the Group property is null. If I want to access the Group I have to manually load it (using User.GroupReference.Load()). So I added a GetGroup() method in User which checks whether the Group is loaded already and, if not, does so and then returns the Group. Now this will result in a lot of highly similar methods for all navigational properties. And it all results in the navigational properties not being used, only my custom-made Get"PropertyName"() method's are now being used. I don't want to expand my queries (linq to entities) to immediately load all these properties, because it's not always known at first what is needed. And besides, it would cause a lot of queries to have to be made. Is there a way to configure the Entity Framework to load these objects when they happen to not be present? So when I access User.Group and the group is not loaded yet, it is loaded automatically? Or am I stuck using my own Get"PropertyName"() method's as long as I'm trying to load objects only on demand (or "just-in-time")? Some extra info: I'm using VS2008 SP1 with .NET 3.5 SP1. The Entity Framework I'm using is the one that got shipped with it.

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  • Are Java developers really paid more than .Net developers? Also, should I just try and work with C?(

    - by Jon
    Ok, so I graduated about a year and a half ago. In college days I used to be really good (and keen) on C/C++. I've even done some multithreading and socket programming in C. Created networked GUI apps for linux using GTK etc.Now,I've been working since I graduated and well, let's say, I've been stereotyped with .net. That's all I have experience with in these years (Vb.net,asp.net,javascript). I'm pretty comfortable with all of the above and also SQL server.a)Cutting to the chase, I've begun to notice how .net jobs don't seem to pay all that well as Java. Jobs seeking similar number of yrs of experience offer almost twice for java developers. Does it mean I should consider switching?b)My heart still goes out for C. As a surrogate I've tried working with VC++ 6.0 (I know they aren't the same!). I've tried my hand with DDK,SDK,COM etc. Should I try finding jobs there or am I too inexperienced. Somehow, I can't find any openings for C. Where are they? Sometimes I get frustrated and feel that maybe I should just go for MS or something. Possibly that'll help me in landing with 'fatter paying jobs' in the field that I wish to work.

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  • how to allow unamed user in svn authz file?

    - by dtrosset
    I have a subversion server running with apache. It authenticates users using LDAP in apache configuration and uses SVN authorizations to limit user access to certain repositories. This works perfectly. Apache DAV svn SVNParentPath /srv/svn SVNListParentPath Off SVNPathAuthz Off AuthType Basic AuthName "Subversion Repository" AuthBasicProvider ldap AuthLDAPBindDN # private stuff AuthLDAPBindPassword # private stuff AuthLDAPURL # private stuff Require valid-user AuthzSVNAccessFile /etc/apache2/dav_svn.authz Subversion [groups] soft = me, and, all, other, developpers Adding anonymous access from one machine Now, I have a service I want to setup (rietveld, for code reviews) that needs to have an anonymous access to the repository. As this is a web service, accesses are always done from the same server. Thus I added apache configuration to allow all accesses from this machine. This did not work until I add an additional line in the authorization file to allow read access to user -. Apache <Limit GET PROPFIND OPTIONS REPORT> Order allow,deny Allow from # private IP address Satisfy Any </Limit> Subversion [Software:/] @soft = rw - = r # <-- This is the added line For instance, before I add this, all users were authenticated, and thus had a name. Now, some accesses are done without a user name! I found this - user name in the apache log files. But does this line equals to * = r that I absolutely do not want to enable, or does it only allows the anonymous unnamed user (that is allowed access only from the rietveld server)?

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  • Return value mapping on Stored Procedures in Entity Framework

    - by Yucel
    Hi, I am calling a stored procedure with EntityFramework. But custom property that i set in partial entity class is null. I have Entities in my edmx (I called edmx i dont know what to call for this). For example I have a "User" table in my database and so i have a "User" class on my Entity. I have a stored procedure called GetUserById(@userId) and in this stored procedure i am writing a basic sql statement like below "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE Id=@userId" in my edmx i make a function import to call this stored procedure and set its return value to Entities (also select User from dropdownlist). It works perfectly when i call my stored procedure like below User user = Context.SP_GetUserById(123456); But i add a custom new column to stored procedure to return one more column like below SELECT *, dbo.ConcatRoles(U.Id) AS RolesAsString FROM membership.[User] U WHERE Id = @id Now when i execute it from SSMS new column called RolesAsString appear in result. To work this on entity framework i added a new property called RolesAsString to my User class like below. public partial class User { public string RolesAsString{ get; set; } } But this field isnt filled by stored procedure when i call it. I look to the Mapping Detail windows of my SP_GetUserById there isnt a mapping on this window. I want to add but window is read only i cant map it. I looked to the source of edmx cant find anything about mapping of SP. How can i map this custom field?

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  • Setting synthesized arrays causing memory leaks using nested arrays

    - by webtoad
    Hello: Why is the following code causing a memory leak in an iPhone App? All of the initted objects below leak, including the arrays, the strings and the numbers. So, I'm thinking it has something to do with the the synthesized array property not releasing the object when I set the property again on the second and subsequent time this piece of code is called. Here is the code: "controller" (below) is my custom view controller class, which I have a reference to, and I am setting with this code snippet: sqlite3_stmt *statement; NSMutableArray *foo_IDs = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_Names = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_IDsBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_NamesBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Get data: NSString *sql = @"select distinct p.foo_ID, p.foo_Name from foo as p "; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(...) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { int p_id; NSString *foo_Name; p_id = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); char *str2 = (char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 1); foo_Name = [NSString stringWithCString:str2]; [foo_IDs addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:p_id]]; [foo_Names addObject:foo_Name]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } // Pass the array itself into another array: // (normally there is more than one array in each array) [foo_IDsBySection addObject: foo_IDs]; [foo_NamesBySection addObject: foo_Names]; [foo_IDs release]; [foo_Names release]; // Set some synthesized properties (of type NSArray, nonatomic, // retain) in controller: controller.foo_IDsBySection = foo_IDsBySection; controller.foo_NamesBySection = foo_NamesBySection; [foo_IDsBySection release]; [foo_NamesBySection release]; Thanks for any help!

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  • Spring import runs hibernate persistence twice

    - by Jaanus
    I have 2 spring configurations : spring-servlet.xml spring-security.xml needed to add this line to security: <beans:import resource="spring-servlet.xml"/> Now hibernate is ran twice, this is log screenshot : my web.xml: <servlet> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet </servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> <listener> <listener-class> org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener </listener-class> </listener> <context-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value> /WEB-INF/spring-security.xml </param-value> </context-param>

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