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• Misplaced Layout after "home"-button and/or powersave screen

  - by TiGer

  Hi, I have an app which also includes a service with a Notification. Right now I am experiencing the foillowing problem : I start my app which will work fine after couple of minutes the powersave kicks in and I get a black screen I (or hte user) click the Menu-button to dismiss the black screen and to unlock the screenlock Now my (fullscreen) app will have "moved" like 30-40 pixels downwards, creating an ugly black border or hole. When I move the scrollwheel it will move up and down, and when I press the Menu button (showing my ap''s menu) it will "fix" the view... or I start my app which will work fine I press the Home button exiting the app, my service though will (correctly) keep running when selecting my service from the notification-bar I will get once again : -Now my (fullscreen) app will have "moved" like 30-40 pixels downwards, creating an ugly black border or hole. When I move the scrollwheel it will move up and down, and when I press the Menu button (showing my ap''s menu) it will "fix" the view... Any idea what the problem is ? The app is running on a ADP2 with Android 1.6 Thanks in advance ! Ok, after some testing I noticed that if I don't run the Activity on Fullscreen, but just leave the TtileBar away this won't happen... Still this is no solution to me, I want it to be fullscreen... Noticed siomething else, when I have the View with the black bar, and I press the home button it will "refresh" the View correctly just before actually going to the Home Screen :(

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• HTML5 audio with PHP script does not work on iPad/Iphone

  - by saulob

  Ok, I'm trying to play an HTML audio code on iPad but does not work. I created one PHP script to send to the MP3 request to the HTML5 audio code mp3_file_player.php?n=mp3file.mp3 The player is here: http://www.avault.com/news/podcast-news/john-romero-podcast-episode-80/ You will see that works on every HTML5 supported browser even on my iPod Touch. But does not work on iPad/iPhone, even on Safari on Mac OSX (I tried on Safari/Windows, worked fine) This is my PHP code: header("X-Powered-By: "); header("Accept-Ranges: bytes"); header("Content-Length: ". (string)(filesize($episode_filename)) .""); header("Content-type: audio/mpeg"); readfile($episode_filename); exit(); Everything works fine, the MP3 has the same headers like reading the mp3 directly. HTTP Headers from direct file access: (Status-Line) HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date Mon, 31 May 2010 20:27:31 GMT Server Apache/2.2.9 Last-Modified Wed, 26 May 2010 13:39:19 GMT Etag "dac0039-41d91f8-4877f669cefc0" Accept-Ranges bytes Content-Length 50656162 Content-Range bytes 18390614-69046775/69046776 Keep-Alive timeout=15, max=100 Connection Keep-Alive Content-Type audio/mpeg HTTP Header from my PHP script: (Status-Line) HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date Mon, 31 May 2010 20:27:08 GMT Server Apache/2.2.9 Accept-Ranges bytes Content-Length 69046776 Keep-Alive timeout=15, max=100 Connection Keep-Alive Content-Type audio/mpeg The only thing different it's the Content-Range, I even tried to add it, but if I use it the player will not work on my Ipod Touch. So I removed. Thank you very much.

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• UITableView reloaddata doesn't reload immediately

  - by D33

  Hi everyone. I'm trying to work with online data in my iPhone app. But I'm getting mad because of this: I have object for downloading data with NSURLConnection. Method starting the work with connection (and other stuff) in separate thread - [ NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector( doConnectionInNewThread ) toTarget: self withObject: nil ]; When data are loaded (connectionDidFinishLoading) I give them to my viewController. This all stuff works fine. When I use breakpoints or NSLog I have the data ready to show in UITableView. When I call reloadData, nothing happens immediately. It reloads data after maybe 2 seconds (- (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath is called after this delay). BUT when I slide the tableView, it reloads data immediately. So the connection and so on works fine but it just doesn't reload the data. Why? I thought it could be due to blocked mainThread by URLConnection. But now I use it in separate thread and it is still the same...

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• Problem with SQL Server "EXECUTE AS"

  - by Vilx-

  I've got the following setup: There is a SQL Server DB with several tables that have triggers set on them (that collect history data). These triggers are CLR stored procedures with EXECUTE AS 'HistoryUser'. The HistoryUser user is a simple user in the database without a login. It has enough permissions to read from all tables and write to the history table. When I backup the DB and then restore it to another machine (Virtual Machine in this case, but it does not matter), the triggers don't work anymore. In fact, no impersonation for the user works anymore. Even a simple statement such as this exec ('select 3') as user='HistoryUser' produces an error: Cannot execute as the database principal because the principal "HistoryUser" does not exist, this type of principal cannot be impersonated, or you do not have permission. I read in MSDN that this can occur if the DB owner is a domain user, but it isn't. And even if I change it to anything else (their recommended solution) this problem remains. If I create another user without login, I can use it for impersonation just fine. That is, this works just fine: create user TestUser without login go exec ('select 3') as user='TestUser' I do not want to recreate all those triggers, so is there any way how I can make the existing HistoryUser work? Bump: Sorry, but this is kinda urgent...

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• .htacces Rewrite Rule to Keep .php File Extensions

  - by user2672112

  I'm upgrading my static website that had .php extensions on the content pages. I've created my own simple cms which will start retrieving data from mysql database from now on, keeping the url structure same as the old once. The cms has get function to retrieve url structure from the database. Overall it started working fine with .html when i tested. But when i change the .html extension to .php in my .htaccess code the content pages starts reflecting "Internal Server Error. The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request." Here is my .htaccess code which i've used: RewriteBase / Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^([^?]*).php$ content.php?pid=$1 Perhaps there is a conflict, here is the code with .html extension that actually works fine. RewriteBase / Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^([^?]*).html$ content.php?pid=$1 So basically, content pages with .html are working & .php are not working. But i need my content pages to be with .php Please help. Thanks in advance... :)

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• asp.net 3.5 app - can not load asemblies, "Strong name signature could not be verified", only when d

  - by hitsolutions

  Have developed an asp.net 3.5 application which consists of a we-site, some developed assemblies and some 3rd party assembles such as Telerik, Jayrock etc, all very much standard 3rd party apps. Created and built this app, tested on Win 2008 Eval running on a VM, all fine. Imagine my frustration when after installing on clients production Win 2008 server, that the app could not run and the error message was the "Strong name signature could not be verified. The assembly may have been tampered with, or it was delay signed ..." one. This was for all assembles in app (removed one and this kept popping up for a different assembly). Attempted to install on a machine on the network and received the same error. I am fairly baffled and a little freaked as I can not figure this out and time is rapidly running out. Have inspected all parts of server I know about (.NET, IIS7) but all seems fine. What could cause this? It sounds like there is a stricter security manifest on the production server - but where would I look and for what? It must be a group policy. only other item is that the machines are running Symantec ante-virus. The IT head is on hols so can't quiz him which is also frustrating - but as they say time waits for no man!

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• ASP.NET Web Optimization - confusion about loading order

  - by Ciel

  Using the ASP.NET Web Optimization Framework, I am attempting to load some javascript files up. It works fine, except I am running into a peculiar situation with either the loading order, the loading speed, or its execution. I cannot figure out which. Basically, I am using ace code editor for javascript, and I also want to include its autocompletion package. This requires two files. /ace.js /ext-language_tools.js This isn't an issue, if I load both of these files the normal way (with <script> tags) it works fine. But when I try to use the web optimization bundles, it seems as if something goes wrong. Trying this out... bundles.Add(new ScriptBundle("~/bundles/js") { .Include("~/js/ace.js") .Include("~/js/ext-language_tools.js") }); and then in the view .. @Scripts.Render("~/bundles/js") I get the error ace is not defined This means that the ace.js file hasn't run, or hasn't loaded. Because if I break it apart into two bundles, it starts working. bundles.Add(new ScriptBundle("~/bundles/js") { .Include("~/js/ace.js") }); bundles.Add(new ScriptBundle("~/bundles/js/language_tools") { .Include("~/js/ext-language_tools.js") }); Can anyone explain why this would behave in this fashion?

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• Limit CPU usage of a process

  - by jb

  I have a service running which periodically checks a folder for a file and then processes it. (Reads it, extracts the data, stores it in sql) So I ran it on a test box and it took a little longer thaan expected. The file had 1.6 million rows, and it was still running after 6 hours (then I went home). The problem is the box it is running on is now absolutely crippled - remote desktop was timing out so I cant even get on it to stop the process, or attach a debugger to see how far through etc. It's solidly using 90%+ CPU, and all other running services or apps are suffering. The code is (from memory, may not compile): List<ItemDTO> items = new List<ItemDTO>(); using (StreamReader sr = fileInfo.OpenText()) { while (!sr.EndOfFile) { string line = sr.ReadLine() try { string s = line.Substring(0,8); double y = Double.Parse(line.Substring(8,7)); //If the item isnt already in the collection, add it. if (items.Find(delegate(ItemDTO i) { return (i.Item == s); }) == null) items.Add(new ItemDTO(s,y)); } catch { /*Crash*/ } } return items; } - So I am working on improving the code (any tips appreciated). But it still could be a slow affair, which is fine, I've no problems with it taking a long time as long as its not killing my server. So what I want from you fine people is: 1) Is my code hideously un-optimized? 2) Can I limit the amount of CPU my code block may use? Cheers all

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• Customizing the Stars Image for Ajaxful_Rating RoR plugin

  - by Kevin

  I'm trying to come up with my own star image that's slightly smaller and different style than the one provided in the gem/plugin, but Ajaxful_rating doesn't have an easy way to do this. Here's what I've figured out so far: The stars.png in the public folder is three 25x25 pixel tiles stacked vertically, ordered empty star, normal star, and hover star. I'm assuming as long as you keep the above constraints, you should be fine without modifying any other files. But what if you want to change the image size of the stars to larger or smaller? I've found where you can change the height in the stylesheets/ajaxful_rating.css .ajaxful-rating{ position: relative; /*width: 125px; this is setted dynamically */ height: 25px; overflow: hidden; list-style: none; margin: 0; padding: 0; background-position: left top; } .ajaxful-rating li{ display: inline; } .ajaxful-rating a, .ajaxful-rating span, .ajaxful-rating .show-value{ position: absolute; top: 0; left: 0; text-indent: -1000em; height: 25px; line-height: 25px; outline: none; overflow: hidden; border: none; } You just need to change every place that says "25px" above to whatever height your new star image is. This works fine but doesn't display the horizontal part correctly. Anyone know where I would look to set the horizontal part as well? (I'm assuming it's in an .rb file somewhere based upon how many stars you specified in your ajaxful_rating setup)

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• Web pages that a long time to load keep on reloading, just on vista on my work n/w...

  - by Ralpharama

  I have a curious problem at work which I've been struggling with since the advent of Windows Vista. We send our own email newsletter out to 40,000+ people once a week. The sending code has been in place for years, it's in classic ASP/VBscript called through a browser and simply loops through each email address, sending it to them. The page takes 40 mins or more to run, so has a big timeout value to allow it to do so. All well and good, suddenly, after Windows Vista is installed on the work PCs, the email sending page behaved oddly - after a period of time it seems to reload the page, endlessly, so the first 20% of our users get multiple copies of the newsletter until we kill the process! If we run the code on an XP machine in the on the same office network, it works fine. If we run it on Vista outside the office, so, say, on my own ISP, then it also works fine! Note, same effect in IE and FF... So, something about my office network and Vista is causing this... I recently re-wrote the newsletter code so it would split the task into chunks of 100 users at a time, hoping this would fix it, but my most recent test shows that the office n/w vista machine once again reloads the same page over any over, even though it takes 1/10th of the time to run... Does anyone have any ideas what it might be, how I can prove it, or, better, how I can get round it? Thanks for your advice :)

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• MySQL to PostreSQL and Named Scope

  - by Lowgain

  I've got a named scope for one of my models that works fine. The code is: named_scope :inbox_threads, lambda { |user| { :include => [:deletion_flags, :recipiences], :conditions => ["recipiences.user_id = ? AND deletion_flags.user_id IS NULL", user.id], :group => "msg_threads.id" }} This works fine on my local copy of the app with a MySQL database, but when I push my app to Heroku (which only uses PostgreSQL), I get the following error: ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid (PGError: ERROR: column "msg_threads.subject" must appear in the GROUP BY clause or be used in an aggregate function: SELECT "msg_threads"."id" AS t0_r0, "msg_threads"."subject" AS t0_r1, "msg_threads"."originator_id" AS t0_r2, "msg_thr eads"."created_at" AS t0_r3, "msg_threads"."updated_at" AS t0_r4, "msg_threads"."url_key" AS t0_r5, "deletion_flags"."id" AS t1_r0, "deletion_flags"."user_id" AS t1_r1, "deletion_flags"."msg_thread_id" AS t1_r2, "deletion_flags"."confirmed" AS t1_r3, "deletion_flags"."created_at" AS t1_r4, "deletion_flags"."updated_at" AS t1_r5, "recipiences"."id" AS t2_r0, "recipiences"."user_id" AS t2_r1, "recipiences"."msg_thread_id" AS t2_r2, "recipiences"."created_at" AS t2_r3, "recipien ces"."updated_at" AS t2_r4 FROM "msg_threads" LEFT OUTER JOIN "deletion_flags" ON deletion_flags.msg_thread_id = msg_threads.id LEFT OUTER JOIN "recipiences" ON recipiences.msg_thread_id = msg_threads.id WHERE (recipiences.user_id = 1 AND deletion_flags.user_id IS NULL) GROUP BY msg_threads.id) I'm not as familiar with the working of Postgres, so what would I need to add here to get this working? Thanks!

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• Prroblem with ObjectDelete() in Entity Framework 4

  - by Tom

  I got two entities: public class User : Entity { public virtual string Username { get; set; } public virtual string Email { get; set; } public virtual string PasswordHash { get; set; } public virtual List<Photo> Photos { get; set; } } and public class Photo : Entity { public virtual string FileName { get; set; } public virtual string Thumbnail { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } public virtual int UserId { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } } When I try to delete the photo it works fine for the DB (record gets romoved from the table) but it doesnt for the Photos collection in the User entity (I can still see that photo in user.Photos). This is my code. What I'm doing wrong here? Changing entity properties works fine. When I change photo FileName for example it gets updated in DB and in user.Photos. var photo = SelectById(id); Context.DeleteObject(photo); Context.SaveChanges(); var user = GetUser(userName); // the photo I have just deleted is still in user.Photos also tried this but getting same results: var photo = user.Photos.First(); Context.DeleteObject(photo); Context.SaveChanges();

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• Is the C++ compiler optimizer allowed to break my destructor ability to be called multiple times?

  - by sharptooth

  We once had an interview with a very experienced C++ developer who couldn't answer the following question: is it necessary to call the base class destructor from the derived class destructor in C++? Obviously the answer is no, C++ will call the base class destructor automagically anyway. But what if we attempt to do the call? As I see it the result will depend on whether the base class destructor can be called twice without invoking erroneous behavior. For example in this case: class BaseSafe { public: ~BaseSafe() { } private: int data; }; class DerivedSafe { public: ~DerivedSafe() { BaseSafe::~BaseSafe(); } }; everything will be fine - the BaseSafe destructor can be called twice safely and the program will run allright. But in this case: class BaseUnsafe { public: BaseUnsafe() { buffer = new char[100]; } ~BaseUnsafe () { delete[] buffer; } private: char* buffer; }; class DerivedUnsafe { public: ~DerivedUnsafe () { BaseUnsafe::~BaseUnsafe(); } }; the explicic call will run fine, but then the implicit (automagic) call to the destructor will trigger double-delete and undefined behavior. Looks like it is easy to avoid the UB in the second case. Just set buffer to null pointer after delete[]. But will this help? I mean the destructor is expected to only be run once on a fully constructed object, so the optimizer could decide that setting buffer to null pointer makes no sense and eliminate that code exposing the program to double-delete. Is the compiler allowed to do that?

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• Behavior difference between UIView.subviews and [NSView subviews]

  - by zpasternack

  I have a piece of code in an iPhone app, which removes all subviews from a UIView subclass. It looks like this: NSArray* subViews = self.subviews; for( UIView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } This works fine. In fact, I never really gave it much thought until I tried nearly the same thing in a Mac OS X app (from an NSView subclass): NSArray* subViews = [self subviews]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } That totally doesn’t work. Specifically, at runtime, I get this: *** Collection <NSCFArray: 0x1005208a0> was mutated while being enumerated. I ended up doing it like so: NSArray* subViews = [[self subviews] copy]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } [subViews release]; That's fine. What’s bugging me, though, is why does it work on the iPhone? subviews is a copy property: @property(nonatomic,readonly,copy) NSArray *subviews; My first thought was, maybe @synthesize’d getters return a copy when the copy attribute is specified. The doc is clear on the semantics of copy for setters, but doesn’t appear to say either way for getters (or at least, it’s not apparent to me). And actually, doing a few tests of my own, this clearly does not seem to be the case. Which is good, I think returning a copy would be problematic, for a few reasons. So the question is: how does the above code work on the iPhone? NSView is clearly returning a pointer to the actual array of subviews, and perhaps UIView isn’t. Perhaps it’s simply an implementation detail of UIView, and I shouldn’t get worked up about it. Can anyone offer any insight?

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• Login Problem Windows Authentication

  - by user109280

  Duplicate of: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/881928/windows-authentication-trusted-connection-problem I logged in the Windows Server(Machine 1) as "abc\user1 ". Windows Server machine is in abc domain. MSSQL Server is in the "abc" domain on Machine 1 and have mixed mode.authentication. It has account "abc\user1 " and "abc\user2 ". Both has role of sysadmin and serveradmin. I logged in another machine(Machine 2) using "abc\user2 ". Same Domain. Run the ant which connect to MSSQL Server. URL is formed as follows. jdbc:sqlserver://%DB_IP%:%DB_PORT%;SelectMethod=cursor;integratedSecurity=true;DatabaseName=dbname; 1) From Machine 2, If I use "abc\user2" credential for connection, then it works fine. since integratedSecurity=true. 2) From Machine 2, If I use "abc\user1" credential for connection, then it doesn't fine, since integratedSecurity=true and take System Credentials i.e "abc\user2". Even if I make integratedSecurity=false , then also it doesn't connect using "abc\user1" What changes to URL I have make to work for "abc\user1" from Machine2 for connection. what properties to be added in url? OR Driver doesn't support to use another domain\User Credentials? What need to set on MSSQL Server ?? Deepak

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• Sharepoint fails to load a C++ dll on windows 2008

  - by Nathan

  I have a sharepoint DLL that does some licensing things and as part of the code it uses an external C++ DLL to get the serial number of the hardisk. When i run this application on windows server 2003 it works fine, but on 2008 the whole site (loaded on load) crashes and resets continually. This is not 2008 R2 and is the same in 64 or 32 bits. If i put a debugger.break before the dll execution then I see the code get to the point of the break then never come back into the dll again. I do get some debug assertion warnings from within the function, again only in 2008, but im not sure this is related. I created a console app that runs the c# dll, which in turn loads the c++ dll, and this works perfectly on 2008 (although does show the assertion errors, but I have suppressed these now). The assertion errors are not in my code but within ICtypes.c and not something I can debug. If i put a breakpoint in the DLL it is never hit and the compiler says : "step in: Stepping over non user code" if i try to debug into the DLL using VS. I have tried wrapping the code used to call the DLL in: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() but this also does not help. I have the sourcecode for this DLL so that is not a problem. If i delete the DLL from the directory I get an error about a missing DLL, if i replace it back to no error or warning just a complete failure. If i replace this code with a hardcoded string the whole application works fine. Any advice would be much appreciated, I can't understand why it works as a console app yet not when run by sharepoint, this is with the same user account, on the same machine... This is the code used to call the DLL: [DllImport("idDll.dll", EntryPoint = "GetMachineId", SetLastError = true)] extern static string GetComponentId([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)]String s); public static string GetComponentId() { Debugger.Break(); if (_machine == string.Empty) { string temp = ""; id= ComponentId.GetComponentId(temp); } return id; }

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• protect form hijacking hack

  - by Karem

  Yes hello today I discovered a hack for my site. When you write a msg on a users wall (in my communitysite) it runs a ajax call, to insert the msg to the db and will then on success slide down and show it. Works fine with no problem. So I was rethinking alittle, I am using POST methods for this and if it was GET method you could easily do ?msg=haxmsg&usr=12345679. But what could you do to come around the POST method? I made a new html document, made a form and on action i set "site.com/insertwall.php" (the file that normally are being used in ajax), i made some input fields with names exactly like i am doing with the ajaxcall (msg, uID (userid), BuID (by userid) ) and made a submit button. I know I have a page_protect() function on which requires you to login and if you arent you will be header to index.php. So i logged in (started session on my site.com) and then I pressed on this submit button. And then wops I saw on my site that it has made a new message. I was like wow, was it so easy to hijack POST method i thought maybe it was little more secure or something. I would like to know what could I do to prevent this hijacking? As i wouldnt even want to know what real hackers could do with this "hole". The page_protect secures that the sessions are from the same http user agent and so, and this works fine (tried to run the form without logging in, and it just headers me to startpage) but yea wouldnt take long time to figure out to log in first and then run it. Any advices are appreciated alot. I would like to keep my ajax calls most secure as possible and all of them are running on the POST method. What could I do to the insertwall.php, to check that it comes from the server or something.. Thank you

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• Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

  - by Jason Evans

  I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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• Bizzare results when running two Visual Studio Express C++ 2008 solutions

  - by Jamie Keeling

  This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a seperate solution, added the MSDN sample (Without any changes for my needs) and unsuprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (As in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on it's own without the original MSDN sample being open it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (It's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution as to this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

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• Positioning DIV element at center of screen

  - by iSumitG

  I want to position a DIV (or a TABLE) element at the center of screen irrespective of screen size. In other words, the space left on 'top' and 'bottom' should be equal and space left on 'right' and 'left' sides should be equal. How to do it? Note: I prefer a complete CSS solution, but if is not possible without Javascript then using Javascript is also fine. I am trying the following but it is not working: <body> <div style="top:0px; border:1px solid red;"> <table border="1" align="center"> <tr height="100%"> <td height="100%" width="100%" valign="middle" align="center"> We are launching soon! </td> </tr> </table> </div> </body> Note: It is either way fine if the DIV element (or TABLE) scrolls with the website or not. Just want it to be at center when page loads.

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• C++ - Basic WinAPI question

  - by HardCoder1986

  Hello! I am now working on a some sort of a game engine and I had an idea to put everything engine-related into a static library and then link it to my actual problem. Right now I achieved it and actually link that library and every functions seem to work fine, except those, which are windows-related. I have a chunk of code in my library that looks like this: hWnd = CreateWindow(className, "Name", WS_OVERLAPPED | WS_CAPTION | WS_EX_TOPMOST, 0, 0, 800, 600, NULL, NULL, GetModuleHandle(NULL), this); if (hWnd) { ShowWindow(hWnd, SW_NORMAL); UpdateWindow(hWnd); } else { MessageBox(NULL, "Internal program error", "Error", MB_OK | MB_ICONERROR); return; } When this code was not in the library, but in the actual project, it worked fine, created the window and everything was ok. Right now (when I'm linking to my library that contains this code) CreateWindow(...) call returns NULL and GetLastError() returns "Operation succesfully completed" (wtf?). Could anybody help me with this? Is it possible to create a window and display it using a static library call and why could my code fail? Thank you.

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• Driver denied access to PCI card

  - by Corin

  We wrote a Windows device driver to access our custom PCI card. The driver uses CreateFile to get a handle to the card. We recently had trouble at one installation were the card appeared to stop working. We tried replacing the card (the replacement appeared not work either). The computer vendor replaced the motherboard and both cards still failed to work. We put the cards in a different computer and both worked fine. We now have the computer at our office for examination. The Windows Device Manager lists our card in Other Devices as usual and says it's working fine. However, our driver initialization fails when it attempts to connect to the card. We created a test version of our driver with some extra debugging and determined that CreateFile is failing. It returns INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE as it is supposed to on failure. GetLastError indicates the error is Access is Denied. Since we're logged into the system as a local administrator, what can deny access to the device?

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• Does playing a Program from VS2005 cause a program to work any different than the .exe file?

  - by Bryan

  There is a program where I work that works fine when running the .exe file but works differently from expected when opened in VS2005 and played from there. I am therefore asking on here if anyone knows of anything that would work in the .exe file but not the debug from VS? I am not able to post the code for the buttons I'm talking about but I'll try to explain the best I can. There is a receiver hooked up to the computer. When the button is pressed on the program, it shows a message and waits for a signal to be received. After the signal is heard the first message box is supposed to close and another is supposed to open. When using the .exe file this happens just fine. However when playing from the program from VS2005 (the same one from which the .exe was made) the second message doesn't come up when it is supposed to and when I can make it come up, the first box doesn't close. There is also a timer involved if that helps. Also, is there a fundamental difference between how the two operate when executing the program? If I need to make anything more clear or give more details please let me know.

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• Hibernate Exception Fixed By Alt+Tab

  - by Lee Theobald

  Hi all, I've got a very curious problem in Hibernate that I would like some opinions on. In my code if I do the following: Go to page A Click a link on page A to be taken to page B Click on data item on page B Exception thrown I get an error telling me: failed to lazily initialize a collection of role: XYZ, no session or session was closed Fair enough. But when I do the same thing but add an alt+tab in the middle, everything is fine. E.g. Go to page A Click a link on page A to be taken to page B Hit ALt+Tab to switch to another application Hit ALt+Tab to switch back to the web browser Click on data item on page B Everything is fine. I'm a little confused as to how switching focus from my application makes it act as I want it to. Does anyone have any light to shine on the subject? I don't think it's a locking issue as even if I do the second set of steps quicker than the first, still no error. It's a Seam application using Hibernate 3.3.2.GA & 3.4.0.GA.

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• Strange behavior while returning csv file from spring controller

  - by Fanooos

  I working in a spring application which have an action method that returns a CSV file. This action works fine but in some cases it throws a predefined exception (MyAppException). I have another method that is annotated @ExceptionHandler(MyAppException.class) In the exception handler method I return another csv file but with different contents. The code that returns the csv file is almost the same in the two methods. List<String[]> list= new ArrayList<String[]>(); list.add(new String[]{ integrationRequestErrorLog.getErrorMessage(), Long.toString(integrationRequestErrorLog.getId()), Integer.toString(integrationRequestErrorLog.getErrorCode()) }); CSVWriter writer = new CSVWriter(response.getWriter(), ','); writer.writeAll(list); writer.close(); the difference between the two method is the list of contents. In the first method the file is returned normally while in the exception handler method I have a strange behavior. The exception handler method works fine with Opera browser while it gives me a 404 with FireFox. Opera browser give me 404 also but it download the file while firefox does not? Really I do not understand what is the difference here.

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