Search Results

Search found 4879 results on 196 pages for 'sarah proper'.

Page 163/196 | < Previous Page | 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170  | Next Page >

  • When to drop an IT job

    - by Nippysaurus
    In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

    Read the article

  • How to catch YouTube embed code and turn into URL

    - by Jonathan Vanasco
    I need to strip YouTube embed codes down to their URL only. This is the exact opposite of all but one question on StackOverflow. Most people want to turn the URL into an embed code. This question addresses the usage patttern I want, but is tied to a specific embed code's regex ( Strip YouTube Embed Code Down to URL Only ) I'm not familiar with how YouTube has offered embeds over the years - or how the sizes differ. According to their current site, there are 2 possible embed templates and a variety of options. If that's it, I can handle a regex myself -- but I was hoping someone had more knowledge they could share, so I could write a proper regex pattern that matches them all and not run into endless edge-cases. The full use case scenario : user enters content in web based wysiwig editor backend cleans out youtube & other embed codes; reformats approved embeds into an internal format as the text is all converted to markdown. on display, appropriate current template/code display for youtube or other 3rd party site is generated At a previous company, our tech-team devised a plan where YouTube videos were embedded by listing the URL only. That worked great , but it was in a CMS where everyone was trained. I'm trying to create a similar storage, but for user-generated-content.

    Read the article

  • UIImageView Centering Problem.

    - by sagar
    To understand my problem let's follow this steps. Open - XCode - New Project - View based application. Open View Controller.xib file. Drag an image-view into viewController's view. Place that image view on center of viewController's view. Apply size of 125x125 to image-view. Take any image with dimension of 320 width & 460 height. Drag that image into your application resources directory. Now, Again back to .xib File & select image-view Set image (which is in your resources) to image-view Set Image-view Mode to - Center Ok. Let me explain the situation now. after performing all above steps - image-view has an image which is larger than image-view's size. However, Image-view places that image on center & in View controller image-view is looking proper ( not scaled ). But When you run your application, image-view will be displayed in size of 320x460. ( but it is not actually scaled. ) Now, I can't find the reason, why interface builder is displaying something else & simulator/iphone is displaying something else ? My Query. I want the image's center portion within image-view no matter what image size is. Thanks in advance for sharing your knowledge. Sagar.

    Read the article

  • WCF cross-domain policy security error

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + WCF + .Net 3.5 + Silverlight 3.0. I host Silverlight control in an html page and debug it from VSTS 2008 (press F5, then run in VSTS 2008 built-in ASP.Net development web server), then call another WCF service (hosted in another machine running IIS 7.0 + Vista). The WCF service is very simple, just return a constant string to client. When invoking the WCF service from Silverlight, I got the following error message, An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'https://LabTest/Test.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. Here is the clientaccesspolicy.xml file, anything wrong? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*"> </domain> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true"></resource> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy> thanks in advance, George

    Read the article

  • Incorrect sizing of a JPanel in a JScrollPane In Java 1.5

    - by Coder
    Hi, I am making an image loading component which consists of a JPanel containing a JScrollPane, which in turn contains another JPanel. What this component does is allows images to be dropped on top of it, after which point the image is loaded and the inner most JPanel is set to the size of the image dropped. This in turn causes the scroll bars to show up and the user can scroll the image. This all works fine. The problem comes in when i try to auto-shrink the image to the maximum visible area in the outer JPanel. In this case i do a uniform scale of the image to be less than or equal to the width and height of the outer JPanel. What happens now is that both the horizontal and vertical scroll bars show up indicating the the inner JPanel is bigger than the visible area (which should not be the case). I verified that the image is scale to the proper dimensions(ie. the maximum width and height is respected). I also verified that if i decrease the maximum height by 3 pixels, then no scroll bars appear. What i believe the problem is, is that panel.getWidth() and panel.getHeight() don't actually return the visible area (maximum area) that sub components can take up. Ie. there is likely some more width and height taken up by the border around the JPanel or something like that. My question is, how do i get around this problem. Functionally all i want is to determine the maximum size a JPanel can be in a JScrollPane, then set the panel to that size and paint an image over top of it and be assured that the scroll bars of the scroll pane will not show up. Right now the scroll bars are set to AS_NEEDED. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How are you supposed to layout a page in VS2010 without using tables?

    - by CrustyApple
    I have been using .NET since beta and HTML since the days of HotDog pro & notepad, using table layout of course. I am FINALLY ready to use only div, li, CSS for the layout, but my question is, what is the proper way to layout pages in VS2010? When i use table layout its simple and i can visually see what im creating and where the elements are, such as the sample below - how should I do this using div's, etc in VS2010? <table width="300" border="0" cellpadding="5"> <tr> <td><img src="http://assets.devx.com/MS_Azure/azuremcau.jpg" alt="blah" width="70" height="70" /></td> <td><h2>This is some text to the right of the picture...</h2></td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2">Here some text underneath</td> </tr> </table>

    Read the article

  • What is the best practice for including third party jar files in a Java program?

    - by ZoFreX
    I have a program that needs several third-party libraries, and at the moment it is packaged like so: zerobot.jar (my file) libs/pircbot.jar libs/mysql-connector-java-5.1.10-bin.jar libs/c3p0-0.9.1.2.jar As far as I know the "best" way to handle third-party libs is to put them on the classpath in the manifest of my jar file, which will work cross-platform, won't slow down launch (which bundling them might) and doesn't run into legal issues (which repackaging might). The problem is for users who supply the third party libraries themselves (example use case, upgrading them to fix a bug). Two of the libraries have the version number in the file, which adds hassle. My current solution is that my program has a bootstrapping process which makes a new classloader and instantiates the program proper using it. This custom classloader adds all .jar files in lib/ to its classpath. My current way works fine, but I now have two custom classloaders in my application and a recent change to the code has caused issues that are difficult to debug, so if there is a better way I'd like to remove this complexity. It also seems like over-engineering for what I'm sure is a very common situation. So my question is, how should I be doing this?

    Read the article

  • php: autoload exception handling.

    - by YuriKolovsky
    Hello again, I'm extending my previous question (Handling exceptions within exception handle) to address my bad coding practice. I'm trying to delegate autoload errors to a exception handler. <?php function __autoload($class_name) { $file = $class_name.'.php'; try { if (file_exists($file)) { include $file; }else{ throw new loadException("File $file is missing"); } if(!class_exists($class_name,false)){ throw new loadException("Class $class_name missing in $file"); } }catch(loadException $e){ header("HTTP/1.0 500 Internal Server Error"); $e->loadErrorPage('500'); exit; } return true; } class loadException extends Exception { public function __toString() { return get_class($this) . " in {$this->file}({$this->line})".PHP_EOL ."'{$this->message}'".PHP_EOL . "{$this->getTraceAsString()}"; } public function loadErrorPage($code){ try { $page = new pageClass(); echo $page->showPage($code); }catch(Exception $e){ echo 'fatal error: ', $code; } } } $test = new testClass(); ?> the above script is supposed to load a 404 page if the testClass.php file is missing, and it works fine, UNLESS the pageClass.php file is missing as well, in which case I see a "Fatal error: Class 'pageClass' not found in D:\xampp\htdocs\Test\PHP\errorhandle\index.php on line 29" instead of the "fatal error: 500" message I do not want to add a try/catch block to each and every class autoload (object creation), so i tried this. What is the proper way of handling this?

    Read the article

  • Flash CS5 screwed up all my textfields - how can I correct this?

    - by WillyCornbread
    Hi - I have an Actionscript project that I was building using Flash CS4. I embedded a font using the follow: [Embed(source="/bin/assets/fonts/MyriadPro-Regular.otf", fontWeight="normal", fontFamily="Myriad Pro")] Then throughout my application in my TextFields I would set embedFonts to true antialiastype to advanced and set the thickness property of the text field. And setting the font-family from a stylesheet. This was all working exactly as I expected it would with no issues whatsoever and months of development. I just upgraded to CS5 and published and none of my text is rendered at all. I was able to resolve this by removing the embedFonts = true from the textfields, but this leaves me with no control over the thickness at all. I searched everywhere, does anyone know what the proper way to do this in CS5 is now? I've tried embedding my font directly within the CS5 IDE but still no thickness control. Thanks in advance for any help - I've got tons of textfields throughout my app that are all ganked right now. Thanks Adobe. b

    Read the article

  • Django: Serving a Download in a Generic View

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I want to serve a couple of mp3s from a folder in /home/username/music. I didn't think this would be such a big deal but I am a bit confused on how to do it using generic views and my own url. urls.py url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), The example I am following is found in the generic view section of the Django documentations: http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/dev/topics/generic-views/ (It's all the way at the bottom) I am not 100% sure on how to tailor this to my needs. Here is my views.py def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) response = object_detail( request, object_id = song_id, mimetype = "audio/mpeg", ) response['Content-Disposition'= "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response I am actually at a loss of how to convey that I want it to spit out my mp3 instead of what it does now which is to output a .mp3 with all of the current pages html contained. Should my template be my mp3? Do I need to setup apache to serve the files or is Django able to retrieve the mp3 from the filesystem(proper permissions of course) and serve that? If it do need to configure Apache how do I tell Django that? Thanks in advanced. These files are all on the HD so I don't need to "generate" anything on the spot and I'd like to prevent revealing the location of these files if at all possible. A simple /song/1234/download would be fantastic.

    Read the article

  • django test client trouble

    - by Anton Koval'
    I've got a problem... we're writing project using django, and i'm trying to use django.test.client with nose test-framework for tests. Our code is like this: from simplejson import loads from urlparse import urljoin from django.test.client import Client TEST_URL = "http://smakly.localhost:9090/" def test_register(): cln = Client() ref_data = {"email": "[email protected]", "name": "???????", "website": "http://hot.bear.com", "xhr": "true"} print urljoin(TEST_URL, "/accounts/register/") response = loads(cln.post(urljoin(TEST_URL, "/accounts/register/"), ref_data)) print response["message"] and in nose output I catch: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/home/psih/work/svn/smakly/eggs/nose-0.11.1-py2.6.egg/nose/case.py", line 183, in runTest self.test(*self.arg) File "/home/psih/work/svn/smakly/src/smakly.tests/smakly/tests/frontend/test_profile.py", line 25, in test_register response = loads(cln.post(urljoin(TEST_URL, "/accounts/register/"), ref_data)) File "/home/psih/work/svn/smakly/parts/django/django/test/client.py", line 313, in post response = self.request(**r) File "/home/psih/work/svn/smakly/parts/django/django/test/client.py", line 225, in request response = self.handler(environ) File "/home/psih/work/svn/smakly/parts/django/django/test/client.py", line 69, in __call__ response = self.get_response(request) File "/home/psih/work/svn/smakly/parts/django/django/core/handlers/base.py", line 78, in get_response urlconf = getattr(request, "urlconf", settings.ROOT_URLCONF) File "/home/psih/work/svn/smakly/parts/django/django/utils/functional.py", line 273, in __getattr__ return getattr(self._wrapped, name) AttributeError: 'Settings' object has no attribute 'ROOT_URLCONF' My settings.py file does have this attribute. If I get the data from the server with standard urllib2.urllopen().read() it works in the proper way. Any ideas how I can solve this case?

    Read the article

  • Is there a best practice for concatenating MP3 Files, adjusting sample rates to match, while preserving original files?

    - by Scott
    Hello overflow community! Does anyone know if there is a "best practice" to concatenate mp3 files to create new files, while preserving the original files? I am working on a CentOS Linux machine, in command line. I will eventually call the command line from a PHP script. I have been doing research and I have come up with a process that I think could work. It combines general advice from different forums, blogs, and sources like this one. So here I go: Create a temporary folder Loop through files to create a new, converted copy, of file into a "raw" format (which one, I don't know. I didn't know "raw" files existed before too long ago. I could use some suggestions on this) Store the path to the temporary files, in the temporary folder, and then loop through the files to concatenate them and then put the new merged file the final "processed directory" Delete the contents of the temporary file with the temporary raw files inside. Convert the final file from "raw" to mp3 and enjoy the finished result I'm thinking that this course of action might be best because I can't necessarily control the quality of the original "source" mp3s. The only other option I could think of would be to create a script that would perform a similar process upon files being added to the system leaving only the files with the "proper" format and removing the original "erroneous" file. Hopefully you can see that I have put some thought into this and that I'm trying to leverage the collective knowledge of this community to choose the best direction. Perhaps there is a better path that I could take? By concatenate, I mean to join together in sequence to create a new audio file from the "concatenated files."

    Read the article

  • Why is BorderLayout calling setSize() and setBounds()?

    - by ags
    I'm trying to get my head around proper use of the different LayoutManagers to make my GUI design skills more efficient and effective. For me, that usually requires a detailed understanding of what is going on under the hood. I've found some good discussion of the interaction and consequences of a Container using BorderLayout containing a Container using FlowLayout. I understand it for the most part, but wanted to confirm my mental model and to do so I am looking at the code for BorderLayout. In the code snippet below taken from BorderLayout.layoutContainer(), note the calls to the child Component's setSize() method followed by setBounds(). Looking at the source for these methods of Component, setSize() actually calls setBounds() with the current values for Component.x and Component.y. Why is this done (and not entirely redudant?) Doesn't the setBounds() call completely overwrite the results of the setSize() call? if ((c=getChild(NORTH,ltr)) != null) { c.setSize(right - left, c.height); Dimension d = c.getPreferredSize(); c.setBounds(left, top, right - left, d.height); top += d.height + vgap; } I'm also tring to understand where/when the child Component's size is initially set (before the LayoutManager.layoutContainer() method is called). Finally, this post itself raises a "meta-question": in a situation like this, where the source is available elsewhere, is the accepteed protocol to include the entire method? Or some other way to make it easier for folks to participate in the thread? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • mod_rewrite to redirect URL with query string

    - by meeble
    I've searched all over stackoverflow, but none of the answers seem to be working for this situation. I have a lot of working mod_rewrite rules already in my httpd.conf file. I just recently found that Google had indexed one of my non-rewritten URLs with a query string in it: http://domain.com/?state=arizona I would like to use mod_rewrite to do a 301 redirect to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona The issue is that later on in my rewrite rules, that 2nd URL is being rewritten to pass query variables on to WordPress. It ends up getting rewritten to: http://domain.com/index.php?state=arizona Which is the proper functionality. Everything I have tried so far has either not worked at all or put me in an endless rewrite loop. This is what I have right now, which is getting stuck in a loop: RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} state=arizona [NC] RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona [R=301,L] #older rewrite rule that passes query string based on URL: RewriteRule ^([A-Za-z-]+)$ index.php?state=$1 [L] which gives me an endless rewrite loop and takes me to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona?state=arizona I then tried this: RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona? [R=301,L] which got rid of the query string in the URL, but still creates a loop.

    Read the article

  • one two-directed tcp socket OR two one-directed? (linux, high volume, low latency)

    - by osgx
    Hello I need to send (interchange) a high volume of data periodically with the lowest possible latency between 2 machines. The network is rather fast (e.g. 1Gbit or even 2G+). Os is linux. Is it be faster with using 1 tcp socket (for send and recv) or with using 2 uni-directed tcp sockets? The test for this task is very like NetPIPE network benchmark - measure latency and bandwidth for sizes from 2^1 up to 2^13 bytes, each size sent and received 3 times at least (in teal task the number of sends is greater. both processes will be sending and receiving, like ping-pong maybe). The benefit of 2 uni-directed connections come from linux: http://lxr.linux.no/linux+v2.6.18/net/ipv4/tcp_input.c#L3847 3847/* 3848 * TCP receive function for the ESTABLISHED state. 3849 * 3850 * It is split into a fast path and a slow path. The fast path is 3851 * disabled when: ... 3859 * - Data is sent in both directions. Fast path only supports pure senders 3860 * or pure receivers (this means either the sequence number or the ack 3861 * value must stay constant) ... 3863 * 3864 * When these conditions are not satisfied it drops into a standard 3865 * receive procedure patterned after RFC793 to handle all cases. 3866 * The first three cases are guaranteed by proper pred_flags setting, 3867 * the rest is checked inline. Fast processing is turned on in 3868 * tcp_data_queue when everything is OK. All other conditions for disabling fast path is false. And only not-unidirected socket stops kernel from fastpath in receive

    Read the article

  • Find and Replace with Notepad++

    - by Levi
    I have a document that was converted from PDF to HTML for use on a company website to be referenced and indexed for search. I'm attempting to format the converted document to meet my needs and in doing so I am attempting to clean up some of the junk that was pulled over from when it was a PDF such as page numbers, headers, and footers. luckily all of these lines that need to be removed are in blocks of 4 lines unfortunately they are not exactly the same therefore cannot be removed with a simple literal replace. The lines contain numbers which are incremental as they correlate with the pages. How can I remove the following example from my html file. Title<br> 10<br> <hr> <A name=11></a>Footer<br> I've tried many different regular expression attempts but as my skill in that area is limited I can't find the proper syntax. I'm sure i'm missing something fairly easy as it would seem all I need is a wildcard replace for the two numbers in the code and the rest is literal. any help is apprciated

    Read the article

  • What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

    - by slk
    I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • one two-directed tcp socket of two one-directed? (linux, high volume, low latency)

    - by osgx
    Hello I need to send (interchange) a high volume of data periodically with the lowest possible latency between 2 machines. The network is rather fast (e.g. 1Gbit or even 2G+). Os is linux. Is it be faster with using 1 tcp socket (for send and recv) or with using 2 uni-directed tcp sockets? The test for this task is very like NetPIPE network benchmark - measure latency and bandwidth for sizes from 2^1 up to 2^13 bytes, each size sent and received 3 times at least (in teal task the number of sends is greater. both processes will be sending and receiving, like ping-pong maybe). The benefit of 2 uni-directed connections come from linux: http://lxr.linux.no/linux+v2.6.18/net/ipv4/tcp_input.c#L3847 3847/* 3848 * TCP receive function for the ESTABLISHED state. 3849 * 3850 * It is split into a fast path and a slow path. The fast path is 3851 * disabled when: ... 3859 * - Data is sent in both directions. Fast path only supports pure senders 3860 * or pure receivers (this means either the sequence number or the ack 3861 * value must stay constant) ... 3863 * 3864 * When these conditions are not satisfied it drops into a standard 3865 * receive procedure patterned after RFC793 to handle all cases. 3866 * The first three cases are guaranteed by proper pred_flags setting, 3867 * the rest is checked inline. Fast processing is turned on in 3868 * tcp_data_queue when everything is OK. All other conditions for disabling fast path is false. And only not-unidirected socket stops kernel from fastpath in receive

    Read the article

  • Is sending a hashed password over the wire a security hole?

    - by Ubiquitous Che
    I've come across a system that is in use by a company that we are considering partnering with on a medium-sized (for us, not them) project. They have a web service that we will need to integrate with. My current understanding of proper username/password management is that the username may be stored as plaintext in the database. Every user should have a unique pseudo-random salt, which may also be stored in plaintext. The text of their password must be concatenated with the salt and then this combined string may be hashed and stored in the database in an nvarchar field. So long as passwords are submitted to the website (or web service) over plaintext, everything should be just lovely. Feel free to rip into my understanding as summarized above if I'm wrong. Anyway, back to the subject at hand. The WebService run by this potential partner doesn't accept username and password, which I had anticipated. Instead, it accepts two string fields named 'Username' and 'PasswordHash'. The 'PasswordHash' value that I have been given does indeed look like a hash, and not just a value for a mis-named password field. This is raising a red flag for me. I'm not sure why, but I feel uncomfortable sending a hashed password over the wire for some reason. Off the top of my head I can't think of a reason why this would be a bad thing... Technically, the hash is available on the database anyway. But it's making me nervous, and I'm not sure if there's a reason for this or if I'm just being paranoid.

    Read the article

  • ROR accepts_nested_attributes_for one to many relationship with selection

    - by bilash.saha
    I have two models Doctors and Questions like the follwong: Doctor Model class Doctor < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :questions has_many :brands accepts_nested_attributes_for :questions end Question model class Question < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :discipline belongs_to :doctor belongs_to :brand end Now you can clearly see that Doctor has many questions and brands and question belongs to doctor and brand.I want to add previously saved question to a doctor from doctors edit page. I want to remove them as well.How can I proceed ? I tried like : <%= form.fields_for :questions, question,:child_index => (question.new_record? ? "index_to_replace_with_js" : nil) do |question_form| %> <table> <tr> <td> <div class="label">Select Question</div> <%= question_form.collection_select :id, Question.all, :id, :title ,{:include_blank => true } %> </td> </tr> </table> but this doesnot works for me.Can you give me a solution with proper example ?

    Read the article

  • C callback functions defined in an unnamed namespace?

    - by Johannes Schaub - litb
    Hi all. I have a C++ project that uses a C bison parser. The C parser uses a struct of function pointers to call functions that create proper AST nodes when productions are reduced by bison: typedef void Node; struct Actions { Node *(*newIntLit)(int val); Node *(*newAsgnExpr)(Node *left, Node *right); /* ... */ }; Now, in the C++ part of the project, i fill those pointers class AstNode { /* ... */ }; class IntLit : public AstNode { /* ... */ }; extern "C" { Node *newIntLit(int val) { return (Node*)new IntLit(val); } /* ... */ } Actions createActions() { Actions a; a.newIntLit = &newIntLit; /* ... */ return a; } Now the only reason i put them within extern "C" is because i want them to have C calling conventions. But optimally, i would like their names still be mangled. They are never called by-name from C code, so name mangling isn't an issue. Having them mangled will avoid name conflicts, since some actions are called like error, and the C++ callback function has ugly names like the following just to avoid name clashes with other modules. extern "C" { void uglyNameError(char const *str) { /* ... */ } /* ... */ } a.error = &uglyNameError; I wondered whether it could be possible by merely giving the function type C linkage extern "C" void fty(char const *str); namespace { fty error; /* Declared! But i can i define it with that type!? */ } Any ideas? I'm looking for Standard-C++ solutions.

    Read the article

  • Best Way to View Generated Source of Webpage?

    - by jeremy
    I'm looking for a tool that will give me the proper generated source including DOM changes made by AJAX requests for input into W3's validator. I've tried the following methods: Web Developer Toolbar - Generates invalid source according to the doc-type (e.g. it removes the self closing portion of tags). Loses the doctype portion of the page. Firebug - Fixes potential flaws in the source (e.g. unclosed tags). Also loses doctype portion of tags and injects the console which itself is invalid HTML. IE Developer Toolbar - Generates invalid source according to the doc-type (e.g. it makes all tags uppercase, against XHTML spec). Highlight + View Selection Source - Frequently difficult to get the entire page, also excludes doc-type. Is there any program or add-on out there that will give me the exact current version of the source, without fixing or changing it in some way? So far, Firebug seems the best, but I worry it may fix some of my mistakes. Solution It turns out there is no exact solution to what I wanted as Justin explained. The best solution seems to be to validate the source inside of Firebug's console, even though it will contain some errors caused by Firebug. I'd also like to thank Forgotten Semicolon for explaining why "View Generated Source" doesn't match the actual source. If I could mark 2 best answers, I would.

    Read the article

  • How to properly implement the Strategy pattern in a web MVC framework?

    - by jboxer
    In my Django app, I have a model (lets call it Foo) with a field called "type". I'd like to use Foo.type to indicate what type the specific instance of Foo is (possible choices are "Number", "Date", "Single Line of Text", "Multiple Lines of Text", and a few others). There are two things I'd like the "type" field to end up affecting; the way a value is converted from its normal type to text (for example, in "Date", it may be str(the_date.isoformat())), and the way a value is converted from text to the specified type (in "Date", it may be datetime.date.fromtimestamp(the_text)). To me, this seems like the Strategy pattern (I may be completely wrong, and feel free to correct me if I am). My question is, what's the proper way to code this in a web MVC framework? In a client-side app, I'd create a Type class with abstract methods "serialize()" and "unserialize()", override those methods in subclasses of Type (such as NumberType and DateType), and dynamically set the "type" field of a newly-instantiated Foo to the appropriate Type subclass at runtime. In a web framework, it's not quite as straightforward for me. Right now, the way that makes the most sense is to define Foo.type as a Small Integer field and define a limited set of choices (0 = "Number", 1 = "Date", 2 = "Single Line of Text", etc.) in the code. Then, when a Foo object is instantiated, use a Factory method to look at the value of the instance's "type" field and plug in the correct Type subclass (as described in the paragraph above). Foo would also have serialize() and unserialize() methods, which would delegate directly to the plugged-in Type subclass. How does this design sound? I've never run into this issue before, so I'd really like to know if other people have, and how they've solved it.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Unit Testing Controllers - Repositories

    - by Brian McCord
    This is more of an opinion seeking question, so there may not be a "right" answer, but I would welcome arguments as to why your answer is the "right" one. Given an MVC application that is using Entity Framework for the persistence engine, a repository layer, a service layer that basically defers to the repository, and a delete method on a controller that looks like this: public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } I am looking for the proper way to Unit Test this. Currently, I have a fake repository that gets used in the service, and my unit test looks like this: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange var stateService = GetService(); var stateController = new StateController( stateService ); ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; stateController = new StateController( stateService ); var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Is this overkill? Do I need to check to see if the record actually got deleted (as I already have Service and Repository tests that verify this)? Should I even use a fake repository here or would it make more sense just to mock the whole thing? The examples I'm looking at used this model of doing things, and I just copied it, but I'm really open to doing things in a "best practices" way. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Find Exact difference between two dates

    - by iPhone Fun
    Hi all , I want some changes in the date comparison. In my application I am comparing two dates and getting difference as number of Days, but if there is only one day difference the system shows me 0 as a difference of days. I do use following code NSDateFormatter *date_formater=[[NSDateFormatter alloc]init]; [date_formater setDateFormat:@"MMM dd,YYYY"]; NSString *now=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[date_formater stringFromDate:[NSDate date]]]; LblTodayDate.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",now]]; NSDate *dateofevent = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] valueForKey:@"CeremonyDate_"]; NSDate *endDate =dateofevent; NSDate *startDate = [NSDate date]; gregorian = [[NSCalendar alloc] initWithCalendarIdentifier:NSGregorianCalendar]; unsigned int unitFlags = NSDayCalendarUnit; NSDateComponents *components = [gregorian components:unitFlags fromDate:startDate toDate:endDate options:0]; int days = [components day]; I found some solutions that If we make the time as 00:00:00 for comparision then it will show me proper answer , I am right or wrong i don't know. Please help me to solve the issue

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170  | Next Page >