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  • Jekyll - How to approach asset processing (minification, spriting...)

    - by Gromix
    I recently switched to Jekyll and I find the conversion pipeline works really well. However I'm stuck on which approach to take when the process is many inputs to one output (ex: concatenating CSS files, creating image sprites...) I know several tools that can do it, that can be called either from the command line or in Ruby code directly. For ex: Jammit css sprites Compass sprites My current solution is a few Jekyll plugins that call these tools. However, it has the following problems: 1. SASS files should be processed, then concatenated/minified SASS-CSS is a Converter, and the concatenation is a Generator run on the output. Unfortunately generators are run first, which means the concatenation is always a step behind (I have to run the build twice) 2. Jekyll does not know about the source/output relationship With converters, when I run Jekyll in server mode, if I change a SASS file it automatically runs the conversion to CSS. When dealing with concatenation/spriting, I haven't found a way to do the same. I end up having to run a "normal" Jekyll build (not server auto) to update the concatenated files and sprites. Thanks for any ideas!

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  • Hibernate ManyToMany and superclass mapping problem

    - by Jesus Benito
    Hi all, I need to create a relation in Hibernate, linking three tables: Survey, User and Group. The Survey can be visible to a User or to a Group, and a Group is form of several Users. My idea was to create a superclass for User and Group, and create a ManyToMany relationship between that superclass and Survey. My problem is that Group, is not map to a table, but to a view, so I can't split the fields of Group among several tables -which would happen if I created a common superclass-. I thought about creating a common interface, but mapping to them is not allowed. I will probably end up going for a two relations solution (Survey-User and Survey-Group), but I don't like too much that approach. I thought as well about creating a table that would look like: Survey Id | ElementId | Type ElementId would be the Group or UserId, and the type... the type of it. Does anyone know how to achieve it using hibernate annotations? Any other ideas? Thanks a lot

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  • Rails has_many conditions

    - by user305270
    c = "(f.profile_id = #{self.id} OR f.friend_id = #{self.id})" c += AND + "(CASE WHEN f.profile_id=#{self.id} THEN f.friend_id ELSE f.profile_id END = p.id)" c += AND + "(CASE WHEN f.profile_id=#{self.id} THEN f.profile_rejected ELSE f.friend_rejected END = 1)" c += AND + "(p.banned = 0)" I need this to be used in a has_many relationship like this: has_many :removed_friends, :conditions => ??? how do i set there the self.id?, or how do i pass there the id? Then i want to use the will_paginate plugin: @profile.removed_friends.paginate(:page => 1, :per_page => 20) Thanks for your help EDIT: class Profile < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :friendships has_many :removed_friends, :class_name => 'Profile', :through => :friendships, :conditions => "(friendships.profile_id = #{self.id} OR friendships.friend_id = #{self.id})" "AND (CASE WHEN friendships.profile_id=#{self.id} THEN friendships.profile_rejected ELSE friendships.friend_rejected END = 1)" + "AND (p.banned = 0)" end class Friendship < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :profile belongs_to :removed_friend, :class_name => 'Profile', :foreign_key => "(CASE WHEN friendships.profile_id = #{self.id} THEN friend_id ELSE profile_id END)" end

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  • Is It Incorrect to Make Domain Objects Aware of The Data Access Layer?

    - by Noah Goodrich
    I am currently working on rewriting an application to use Data Mappers that completely abstract the database from the Domain layer. However, I am now wondering which is the better approach to handling relationships between Domain objects: Call the necessary find() method from the related data mapper directly within the domain object Write the relationship logic into the native data mapper (which is what the examples tend to do in PoEAA) and then call the native data mapper function within the domain object. Either it seems to me that in order to preserve the 'Fat Model, Skinny Controller' mantra, the domain objects have to be aware of the data mappers (whether it be their own or that they have access to the other mappers in the system). Additionally it seems that Option 2 unnecessarily complicates the data access layer as it creates table access logic across multiple data mappers instead of confining it to a single data mapper. So, is it incorrect to make the domain objects aware of the related data mappers and to call data mapper functions directly from the domain objects? Update: These are the only two solutions that I can envision to handle the issue of relations between domain objects. Any example showing a better method would be welcome.

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  • Merging datasets with 2 different time variables in SAS

    - by John
    Hye Guys, for those regularly browsing this site sorry for already another question (however I did solve my last question myself!) I have another problem with merging datasets, it seems that accounting for time in datasets is a real pain in the ass. I succesfully managed to merge on months in my previous datasets, however it seems I have a final dataset which only has quarter as a time count variable. So where all my normal databases have month 1- xxx as an indicator of time, this database had quarter as an indicator of time. I still want to add the variables of this last database, let's call it TVOL, into my WORK database. Quick summary QUARTER: Quarter 0 = JAN1996-MAR1996 Month: Month 0 = JAN1996 Example: TVOL TVOL _ Ticker ____ Quarter 1500 _ AA ________ -1 52546 _ BB ________ 15 Example: WORK BETA _ Ticker ____ Month 1.52 _ AA ________ 2 1.54__ BB _______ 3 Example: Merged: BETA ______ TVOL __ Ticker ____ Month 1.52 _______ 500 ___ AA _______ 2 I now want to merge this 2 tables using following relationship if the month is in quarter 1, the data of quarter 0 has to be used, so if i have an observation i nWORK with date 2FEB1996 the TVOL of quarter -1 has to be put behind this observation. Something like IF month = quarter i use data quarter i-1. Also, as TVOL is measured quarterly and I have to put in monthly I have to take the average, so (TVOL/3) should be added as a variable. Thanks!

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  • Table cell in a split-view controller - selected cell becomes deselected when called by reloadData

    - by bpapa
    I'm working on a universal app that uses a SplitViewController to present a master-detail view. In the iPad HIG on Split Views, Apple states: In general, indicate the current selection in the left pane in a persistent way. This behavior helps people understand the relationship between the item in the left pane and the contents of the right pane. This is important because the contents of the right pane can change, but they should always remain related to the item selected in the left pane. So I'm trying to maintain selection state on the left. Easy enough when the user taps, I just remove the deselectRowAtIndexPath:animated: message from tableView:didSelectRowAtIndexPath: implementation. But, I also want the selection state to show up by default (without a user tap). I wound up putting this in my tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath: implementation: if (UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() == UIUserInterfaceIdiomPad) { if (cellShouldBeSelected) cell.selected = YES; else cell.selected = NO; } The behavior I'm seeing, is that when the cells finall appear, for a fraction of a section the cell is indeed selected, but then the selection disappears without any user interaction. Any ideas? I set the new clearsSelectionOnViewWillAppear property to NO, but that doesn't seem to fix it, and it shouldn't really matter because I'm marking the cell as selected long after viewWillAppear is called - I'm actually doing it after some network activity and then sending the table view a reloadData message.

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  • Why do pure virtual base classes get direct access to static data members while derived instances do

    - by Shamster
    I've created a simple pair of classes. One is pure virtual with a static data member, and the other is derived from the base, as follows: #include <iostream> template <class T> class Base { public: Base (const T _member) { member = _member; } static T member; virtual void Print () const = 0; }; template <class T> T Base<T>::member; template <class T> void Base<T>::Print () const { std::cout << "Base: " << member << std::endl; } template <class T> class Derived : public Base<T> { public: Derived (const T _member) : Base<T>(_member) { } virtual void Print () const { std::cout << "Derived: " << this->member << std::endl; } }; I've found from this relationship that when I need access to the static data member in the base class, I can call it with direct access as if it were a regular, non-static class member. i.e. - the Base::Print() method does not require a this- modifier. However, the derived class does require the this-member indirect access syntax. I don't understand why this is. Both class methods are accessing the same static data, so why does the derived class need further specification? A simple call to test it is: int main () { Derived<double> dd (7.0); dd.Print(); return 0; } which prints the expected "Derived: 7"

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  • Updating join fields in an ORM command

    - by Jono
    I have a question about object relational updates on join fields. I am working on a project using codeigniter with datamapper dmz. But I think my problem is with general understanding of ORMs. So fell free to answer with any ORM you know. I have two tables, Goods and Tags. One good can have many tags. Everything is working, but I am looking for a way to merge tags. Meaning I decide I want to remove tag A and instead have everything that is tagged by it, now be tagged by tag B. I only have models for the goods and the tags. There is no separate model for the join relationship, as I believe these ORMs were designed to work. I know how to delete a tag. But I dont know how to reach into the join table to redirect the references since there is no model for the join table. I would rather use the ORM then issuing a raw SQL command.

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  • SCD2 + Merge Statement + SQL Server

    - by Nev_Rahd
    I am trying work out with MERGE statment to Insert / Update Dimension Table of Type SCD2 My source is a Table var to Merge with Dimension table. My MERGE statement is throwing an error as: The target table 'DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION' of the INSERT statement cannot be on either side of a (primary key, foreign key) relationship when the FROM clause contains a nested INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or MERGE statement. Found reference constraint 'FK_ERROR_DIMENSION_to_AUDIT_CreatedBy'. My MERGE Statement: DECLARE @DATAERROROBJECT AS [ERROR_DIMENSION] INSERT INTO DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION SELECT ERROR_CODE, DATA_STREAM_ID, [ERROR_SEVERITY], DATA_QUALITY_RATING, ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, ERROR_DESCRIPTION, VALIDATION_RULE, ERROR_TYPE, ERROR_CLASS, VALID_FROM, VALID_TO, CURR_FLAG, CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK FROM (MERGE DM.DATA_ERROR.ERROR_DIMENSION ED USING @DATAERROROBJECT OBJ ON(ED.ERROR_CODE = OBJ.ERROR_CODE AND ED.DATA_STREAM_ID = OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID) WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES( OBJ.ERROR_CODE ,OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID ,OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] ,OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING ,OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ,OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE ,OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ,OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ,GETDATE() ,'9999-12-13' ,'Y' ,1 ,1 ) WHEN MATCHED AND ED.CURR_FLAG = 'Y' AND ( ED.[ERROR_SEVERITY] <> OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] OR ED.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] <> OBJ.[DATA_QUALITY_RATING] OR ED.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] <> OBJ.[ERROR_DESCRIPTION] OR ED.[VALIDATION_RULE] <> OBJ.[VALIDATION_RULE] OR ED.[ERROR_TYPE] <> OBJ.[ERROR_TYPE] OR ED.[ERROR_CLASS] <> OBJ.[ERROR_CLASS] ) THEN UPDATE SET ED.CURR_FLAG = 'N', ED.VALID_TO = GETDATE() OUTPUT $ACTION ACTION_OUT, OBJ.ERROR_CODE ERROR_CODE, OBJ.DATA_STREAM_ID DATA_STREAM_ID, OBJ.[ERROR_SEVERITY] [ERROR_SEVERITY], OBJ.DATA_QUALITY_RATING DATA_QUALITY_RATING, OBJ.ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION ERROR_LONG_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.ERROR_DESCRIPTION ERROR_DESCRIPTION, OBJ.VALIDATION_RULE VALIDATION_RULE, OBJ.ERROR_TYPE ERROR_TYPE, OBJ.ERROR_CLASS ERROR_CLASS, GETDATE() VALID_FROM, '9999-12-31' VALID_TO, 'Y' CURR_FLAG, 555 CREATED_BY_AUDIT_SK, 555 UPDATED_BY_AUDIT_SK ) AS MERGE_OUT WHERE MERGE_OUT.ACTION_OUT = 'UPDATE'; What am I doing wrong ?

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  • Is "Server not found" error related to Activclient?

    - by Kent
    Users are getting sporadic "Server not found" errors after idling in the browser. We have a HTTPS web application (Apache/Tomcat) using NSS for authentication on the server. The error occurs when a user opens the application and later lets it sit idle/untouched for 15 minutes. When they try to access the application they can get a "Server not found" error. Users use CAC cards with ActivClient software and our web application uses the certificates for authentication and authorization. We have been able to recreate the problem but have been unable to diagnose it. In recreating the problem the server is getting a series of "Unable to find the certificate or key necessary for authentication" errors in the NSS log associated with the browser error. These erros don't occur until the user tries to access the idle application. When the application is idle for 15 minutes the PIN is not requested yet the PIN Cache timeout in ActivClient is set at 15 minutes. All our server side timeout parameters are set to hours not minutes. IE 6 is our browser and NSS is using TLS. We have tried modifying "SetEnvIf User-Agent ".MSIE." ssl-unclean-shutdown" with no improvement. I understand that the PIN cache timeout and SSL session don't have a 1:1 relationship but the timing is suspicious. Can't find anything in the windows error logs that indicates a problem (security logs are not accessible to us). Any suggestions as to how to identify the cause of the problem would be appreciated.

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  • Is the RESTORE process dependent on schema?

    - by Martin Aatmaa
    Let's say I have two database instances: InstanceA - Production server InstanceB - Test server My workflow is to deploy new schema changes to InstanceB first, test them, and then deploy them to InstanceA. So, at any one time, the instance schema relationship looks like this: InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 InstanceB - Schema Version 1.6 (new version being tested) An additional part of my workflow is to keep the data in InstanceB as fresh as possible. To fulfill this, I am taking the database backups of InstanceA and applying them (restoring them) to InstanceB. My question is, how does schema version affect the restoral process? I know I can do this: Backup InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 Restore to InstanceB - Schema Version 1.5 But can I do this? Backup InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 Restore to InstanceB - Schema Version 1.6 (new version being tested) If no, what would the failure look like? If yes, would the type of schema change matter? For example, if Schema Version 1.6 differed from Schema Version 1.5 by just having an altered storec proc, I imagine that this type of schema change should't affect the restoral process. On the other hand, if Schema Version 1.6 differed from Schema Version 1.5 by having a different table definition (say, an additional column), I image this would affect the restoral process. I hope I've made this clear enough. Thanks in advance for any input!

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  • Creating self-referential tables with polymorphism in SQLALchemy

    - by Jace
    I'm trying to create a db structure in which I have many types of content entities, of which one, a Comment, can be attached to any other. Consider the following: from datetime import datetime from sqlalchemy import create_engine from sqlalchemy import Column, ForeignKey from sqlalchemy import Unicode, Integer, DateTime from sqlalchemy.orm import relation, backref from sqlalchemy.ext.declarative import declarative_base Base = declarative_base() class Entity(Base): __tablename__ = 'entities' id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) created_at = Column(DateTime, default=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) edited_at = Column(DateTime, default=datetime.utcnow, onupdate=datetime.utcnow, nullable=False) type = Column(Unicode(20), nullable=False) __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_on': type} # <...insert some models based on Entity...> class Comment(Entity): __tablename__ = 'comments' __mapper_args__ = {'polymorphic_identity': u'comment'} id = Column(None, ForeignKey('entities.id'), primary_key=True) _idref = relation(Entity, foreign_keys=id, primaryjoin=id == Entity.id) attached_to_id = Column(Integer, ForeignKey('entities.id'), nullable=False) #attached_to = relation(Entity, remote_side=[Entity.id]) attached_to = relation(Entity, foreign_keys=attached_to_id, primaryjoin=attached_to_id == Entity.id, backref=backref('comments', cascade="all, delete-orphan")) text = Column(Unicode(255), nullable=False) engine = create_engine('sqlite://', echo=True) Base.metadata.bind = engine Base.metadata.create_all(engine) This seems about right, except SQLAlchemy doesn't like having two foreign keys pointing to the same parent. It says ArgumentError: Can't determine join between 'entities' and 'comments'; tables have more than one foreign key constraint relationship between them. Please specify the 'onclause' of this join explicitly. How do I specify onclause?

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  • When are SQL views appropriate in ASP.net MVC?

    - by sslepian
    I've got a table called Protocol, a table called Eligibility, and a Protocol_Eligibilty table that maps the two together (a many to many relationship). If I wanted to make a perfect copy of an entry in the Protocol table, and create all the needed mappings in the Protocol_Eligibility table, would using an SQL view be helpful, from a performance standpoint? Protocol will have around 1000 rows, Eligibility will have about 200, and I expect each Protocol to map to about 10 Eligibility rows and each Eligibility to map to over 100 rows in Protocol. Here's how I'm doing this with the view: var pel_original = (from pel in _documentDataModel.Protocol_Eligibility_View where pel.pid == id select pel); Protocol_Eligibility newEligibility; foreach (var pel_item in pel_original) { newEligibility = new Protocol_Eligibility(); newEligibility.Eligibility = (from pel in _documentDataModel.Eligibility where pel.ID == pel_item.eid select pel).First(); newEligibility.Protocol = newProtocol; newEligibility.ordering = pel_item.ordering; _documentDataModel.AddToProtocol_Eligibility(newEligibility); } And this is without the view: var pel_original = (from pel in _documentDataModel.Protocol_Eligibility where pel.Protocol.ID == id select pel); Protocol_Eligibility newEligibility; foreach (var pel_item in pel_original) { pel_item.EligibilityReference.Load(); newEligibility = new Protocol_Eligibility(); newEligibility.Eligibility = pel_item.Eligibility; newEligibility.Protocol = newProtocol; newEligibility.ordering = pel_item.ordering; _documentDataModel.AddToProtocol_Eligibility(newEligibility); }

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  • What do you need to implement to provide a Content Set for an NSArrayController?

    - by whuuh
    Heys, I am writing something in Xcode. I use Core Data for persistency and link the view and the model together with Cocoa Bindings; pretty much your ordinary Core Data application. I have an array controller (NSArrayController) in my Xib. This has its managedObjectContext bound to the AppDelegate, as is convention, and tracks an entity. So far so good. Now, the "Content Set" biding of this NSArrayController limits its content set (as you'd expect), by a keyPath from the selection in another NSArrayController (otherAc.selection.detailsOfMaster). This is the usual way to implement a Master-Detail relationship. I want to variably change the key path at runtime, using other controls. This way, I sould return a content set that includes several other content sets, which is all advanced and beyond Interface Builder. To achieve this, I think I should bind the Content Set to my AppDelegate instead. I have tried to do this, but don't know what methods to implement. If I just create the KVC methods (objectSet, setObjectSet), then I can provide a Content Set for the Array Controller in the contentSet method. However, I don't think I'm binding this properly, because it doesn't "refresh". I'm new to binding; what do I need to implement to properly update the Content Set when other things, like the selection in the master NSArrayController, changes?

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  • How do I left join tables in unidirectional many-to-one in Hibernate?

    - by jbarz
    I'm piggy-backing off of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2368195/how-to-join-tables-in-unidirectional-many-to-one-condition. If you have two classes: class A { @Id public Long id; } class B { @Id public Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "parent_id", referencedColumnName = "id") public A parent; } B - A is a many to one relationship. I understand that I could add a Collection of Bs to A however I do not want that association. So my actual question is, Is there an HQL or Criteria way of creating the SQL query: select * from A left join B on (b.parent_id = a.id) This will retrieve all A records with a Cartesian product of each B record that references A and will include A records that have no B referencing them. If you use: from A a, B b where b.a = a then it is an inner join and you do not receive the A records that do not have a B referencing them. I have not found a good way of doing this without two queries so anything less than that would be great. Thanks.

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  • Asp.Net Login Control very slow initial connection to Non-Trusted AD Domain

    - by Eric Brown - Cal
    ASP.NET Login control is very slow making the initial connection to AD when authenticating to a different domain than the domain the web server is a member of. Problem occurs for the IIS server and when using with the Visual Studio's built in web server. It takes about 30 seconds the first time when attempting to use the control to connect against another domain. There is no trust relationship bewteen the web server's domain and the other domains (attempted connecting to several different domains). Subsequent connections execute quickly until the connection times out. Using Systernals Process Monitor to troubleshoot, there are two OpenQuery operations right before the delay to "C:\WINDOWS\asembly\GAC_MSIL\System.DirectoryServices\2.0.0.0_b03f5f7f11d50a3a\Netapi32.dll with a result NAME NOT FOUND" and right after the 30 second delay the TCP Send and TCP Recieves indicate communication begins with the AD server. Things we have tried: Impersonating an administrator on the web server in the web.config; Granting permissions to the CryptoKeys to the NetworkService and ASPNET; Specifying by IP instead of DNS name; Multiple variations of specifying the name and ldap server with domains and OU's; Local host entries; Looked for ports being blocked (SYN_SENT) with netstat -an. Nslookup resolves all the domains and systems involved correectly. TraceRt shows the Correct routes Any Idea or hints are greately appreicated.

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  • Wpf binding with nested properties

    - by byte
    ViewModel I have a property of type Member called KeyMember. The 'Member' type has an ObservableCollection called Addresses. The Address is composed of two strings - street and postcode . View I have a ListBox whose item source need to be set to ViewModels's KeyMember property and it should display the Street of all the Past Addresses in the collection. Question My ViewModel and View relationship is established properly. I am able to write a data template for the above simple case as below <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding KeyMember.Addresses}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="Address"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Street}"/> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> How would I write the DataTemplate if I change KeyMember from type Member to ObservableCollection< Member assuming that the collection has only one element. PS: I know that for multiple elements in collection, I will have to implement the Master-Detail pattern/scenario.

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  • entity framework - getting null exception using foreign key

    - by Nick
    Having some trouble with what should be a very simple scenario. For example purposes, I have two tables: -Users -Comments There is a one-to-many relationship set up for this; there is a foreign key from Comments.CommentorID to Users.UserID. When I do the LINQ query and try to bind to a DataList, I get a null exception. Here is the code: FKMModel.FKMEntities ctx = new FKMModel.FKMEntities(); IQueryable<Comment> CommentQuery = from x in ctx.Comment where x.SiteID == 101 select x; List<Comment> Comments = CommentQuery.ToList(); dl_MajorComments.DataSource = Comments; dl_MajorComments.DataBind(); In the ASPX page, I have the following as an ItemTemplate (I simplified it and took out the styling, etc, for purposes of posting here since it's irrelevant): <div> <%# ((FKMModel.Comment)Container.DataItem).FKMUser.Username %> <%# ((FKMModel.Comment)Container.DataItem).CommentDate.Value.ToShortDateString() %> <%# ((FKMModel.Comment)Container.DataItem).CommentTime %> </div> The exception occurs on the first binding (FKMUser.Username). Since the foreign key is set up, I should have no problem accessing any properties from the Users table. Intellisense set up the FKMUser navigation property and it knows the properties of that foreign table. What is going on here??? Thanks, Nick

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  • Cakephp how to use Set Class to make an assoc array?

    - by michael
    I have the output array from a $Model-find() query which also pulls data from a hasMany relationship: Array( [Parent] => Array ( [id] => 1 ) [Child] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => aaa [score] => 3 [src] => stage6/tn~4bbb38cc-0018-49bf-96a9-11a0f67883f5.jpg [parent_id] => 1 ) [1] => Array ( [id] => bbb [score] => 5 [src] => stage0/tn~4bbb38cc-00ac-4b25-b074-11a0f67883f5.jpg [parent_id] => 1 ) [2] => Array ( [id] => ccc [score] => 2 [src] => stage4/tn~4bbb38cc-01c8-44bd-b71d-11a0f67883f5.jpg [parent_id] => 1 ) ) ) I'd like to transform this output into something like this, where the child id is the key to additional child attributes: Array( [aaa] => Array ( [score] => 3 [src] => stage6/tn~4bbb38cc-0018-49bf-96a9-11a0f67883f5.jpg ) [bbb] => Array ( [score] => 5 [src] => stage0/tn~4bbb38cc-00ac-4b25-b074-11a0f67883f5.jpg ) [ccc] => Array ( [score] => 2 [src] => stage4/tn~4bbb38cc-01c8-44bd-b71d-11a0f67883f5.jpg ) } Is there an easy way to use Set::extract, Set::combine, Set::insert, etc. to do this efficiently? I cannot figure it out.

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  • Need a SQL statement focus on combination of tables but entries always with uinque ID

    - by Registered User KC
    Hi All, I need SQL code to solve the tables combination problem, described on below: Table old data: name version status lastupdate ID A 0.1 on 6/8/2010 1 B 0.1 on 6/8/2010 2 C 0.1 on 6/8/2010 3 D 0.1 on 6/8/2010 4 E 0.1 on 6/8/2010 5 F 0.1 on 6/8/2010 6 G 0.1 on 6/8/2010 7 Table new data: name version status lastupdate ID A 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #B entry deleted C 0.3 on 6/18/2010 #version_updated C1 0.1 on 6/18/2010 D 0.1 on 6/18/2010 E 0.1 off 6/18/2010 #status_updated F 0.1 on 6/18/2010 G 0.1 on 6/18/2010 H 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #new_added H1 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #new_added the difference of new data and old date: B entry deleted C entry version updated E entry status updated C1/H/H1 entry new added What I want is always keeping the ID - name mapping relationship in old data table no matter how data changed later, a.k.a the name always has a unique ID number bind with it. If entry has update, then update the data, if entry is new added, insert to the table then give a new assigned unique ID. However, I can only use SQL with simple select or update statement then it may too hard for me to write such code, then I hope someone with expertise can give direction, no details needed on the different of SQL variant, a standard sql code as sample is enough. Thanks in advance! Rgs KC

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  • Why doesn't is operator take in consideration if the explicit operator is overriden when checking ty

    - by Galilyou
    Hey Guys, Consider this code sample: public class Human { public string Value { get; set;} } public class Car { public static explicit operator Human (Car c) { Human h = new Human(); h.Value = "Value from Car"; return h; } } public class Program { public static void Mani() { Car c = new Car(); Human h = (Human)c; Console.WriteLine("h.Value = {0}", h.Value); Console.WriteLine(c is Human); } } Up I provide a possibility of an explicit cast from Car to Human, though Car and Human hierarchically are not related! The above code simply means that "Car is convertible to human" However, if you run the snippet you will find the expression c is Human evaluates to false! I used to believe that the is operator is kinda expensive cause it attempts to do an actual cast that might result in an InvalidCastException. If the operator is trying to cast, then the cast should succeed as there's an operator logic that should perform the cast! What does "is" test? Does test a hierarchical "is-a" relationship? Does test whether a variable type is convertible to a type?

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  • Can can I reference extended methods/params without having to cast from the base class object return

    - by Greg
    Hi, Is there away to not have a "cast" the top.First().Value() return to "Node", but rather have it automatically assume this (as opposed to NodeBase), so I then see extended attributes for the class I define in Node? That is is there a way to say: top.Nodes.First().Value.Path; as opposed to now having to go: ((Node)top.Nodes.First().Value).Path) thanks [TestMethod()] public void CreateNoteTest() { var top = new Topology(); Node node = top.CreateNode("a"); node.Path = "testpath"; Assert.AreEqual("testpath", ((Node)top.Nodes.First().Value).Path); // *** HERE *** } class Topology : TopologyBase<string, Node, Relationship> { } class Node : NodeBase<string> { public string Path { get; set; } } public class NodeBase<T> { public T Key { get; set; } public NodeBase() { } public NodeBase(T key) { Key = key; } } public class TopologyBase<TKey, TNode, TRelationship> where TNode : NodeBase<TKey>, new() where TRelationship : RelationshipBase<TKey>, new() { // Properties public Dictionary<TKey, NodeBase<TKey>> Nodes { get; private set; } public List<RelationshipBase<TKey>> Relationships { get; private set; } }

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  • Combining multiple rows into one row, Oracle

    - by Torbjørn
    Hi. I'm working with a database which is created in Oracle and used in a GIS-software through SDE. One of my colleuges is going to make some statistics out of this database and I'm not capable of finding a reasonable SQL-query for getting the data. I have two tables, one with registrations and one with registrationdetails. It's a one to many relationship, so the registration can have one or more details connected to it (no maximum number). table: Registration RegistrationID Date TotLenght 1 01.01.2010 5 2 01.02.2010 15 3 05.02.2009 10 2.table: RegistrationDetail DetailID RegistrationID Owner Type Distance 1 1 TD UB 1,5 2 1 AB US 2 3 1 TD UQ 4 4 2 AB UQ 13 5 2 AB UR 13,1 6 3 TD US 5 I want the resulting selection to be something like this: RegistrationID Date TotLenght DetailID RegistrationID Owner Type Distance DetailID RegistrationID Owner Type Distance DetailID RegistrationID Owner Type Distance 1 01.01.2010 5 1 1 TD UB 1,5 2 1 AB US 2 3 1 TD UQ 4 2 01.02.2010 15 4 2 AB UQ 13 5 2 AB UR 13,1 3 05.02.2009 10 6 3 TD US 5 With a normal join I get one row per each registration and detail. Can anyone help me with this? I don't have administrator-rights for the database, so I can't create any tables or variables. If it's possible, I could copy the tables into Access.

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  • What are the options for overriding Django's cascading delete behaviour?

    - by Tom
    Django models generally handle the ON DELETE CASCADE behaviour quite adequately (in a way that works on databases that don't support it natively.) However, I'm struggling to discover what is the best way to override this behaviour where it is not appropriate, in the following scenarios for example: ON DELETE RESTRICT (i.e. prevent deleting an object if it has child records) ON DELETE SET NULL (i.e. don't delete a child record, but set it's parent key to NULL instead to break the relationship) Update other related data when a record is deleted (e.g. deleting an uploaded image file) The following are the potential ways to achieve these that I am aware of: Override the model's delete() method. While this sort of works, it is sidestepped when the records are deleted via a QuerySet. Also, every model's delete() must be overridden to make sure Django's code is never called and super() can't be called as it may use a QuerySet to delete child objects. Use signals. This seems to be ideal as they are called when directly deleting the model or deleting via a QuerySet. However, there is no possibility to prevent a child object from being deleted so it is not usable to implement ON CASCADE RESTRICT or SET NULL. Use a database engine that handles this properly (what does Django do in this case?) Wait until Django supports it (and live with bugs until then...) It seems like the first option is the only viable one, but it's ugly, throws the baby out with the bath water, and risks missing something when a new model/relation is added. Am I missing something? Any recommendations?

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  • Objective-C Getter Memory Management

    - by Marian André
    I'm fairly new to Objective-C and am not sure how to correctly deal with memory management in the following scenario: I have a Core Data Entity with a to-many relationship for the key "children". In order to access the children as an array, sorted by the column "position", I wrote the model class this way: @interface AbstractItem : NSManagedObject { NSArray * arrangedChildren; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSSet * children; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSNumber * position; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSArray * arrangedChildren; @end @implementation AbstractItem @dynamic children; @dynamic position; @synthesize arrangedChildren; - (NSArray*)arrangedChildren { NSArray* unarrangedChildren = [[self.children allObjects] retain]; NSSortDescriptor* sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"position" ascending:YES]; [arrangedChildren release]; arrangedChildren = [unarrangedChildren sortedArrayUsingDescriptors:[NSArray arrayWithObject:sortDescriptor]]; [sortDescriptor release]; [unarrangedChildren release]; return [arrangedChildren retain]; } @end I'm not sure whether or not to retain unarrangedChildren and the returned arrangedChildren (first and last line of the arrangedChildren getter). Does the NSSet allObjects method already return a retained array? It's probably too late and I have a coffee overdose. I'd be really thankful if someone could point me in the right direction. I guess I'm missing vital parts of memory management knowledge and I will definitely look into it thoroughly.

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