Search Results

Search found 12826 results on 514 pages for 'third party controls'.

Page 165/514 | < Previous Page | 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172  | Next Page >

• WHy am I unable to add text along with <%# Container.DataItem %> in repeater in user control

  - by Jamie Hartnoll

  I have a User Control which is dynamically placed by CodeBehind as follows: Dim myControl As Control = CType(Page.LoadControl("~/Controls/mainMenu.ascx"), Control) If InStr(Request.ServerVariables("url"), "/Login.aspx") <= 0 Then mainMenu.Controls.Add(myControl) End If As per an example from my previous question on here. Within this Control is a repeater which calls a database to generate values. My Repeater mark-up is as follows <asp:Repeater runat="server" ID="locationRepeater" OnItemDataBound="getQuestionCount"> <ItemTemplate> <p id='locationQuestions' title='<%# Container.DataItem %>' runat='server'></p> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> The example above works fine, but I want to be able to prepend text to <%# Container.DataItem %> in the title attribute of that <p to print to the browser like this is some text DATA_ITEM_OUTPUT When I try to do that though, it prints this is some text <%# Container.DataItem %> exactly like that, ie, turning <%# Container.DataItem %> into text, NOT the value from the repeater code. It was working fine before I made it into a dynamically inserted control, so I am thinking I might have something being generated in the wrong order, but given that it works without any prepended text, I am stumped to fix it! I'm new to .net and using vb.net, please could someone point me in the right direction?

  Read the article

• SubSonic 3 screws up selecteditem?

  - by SteveCav

  If you have a moment, please try this: -Download Subsonic 3. -Start a new proj and add SS's ActiveRecord templates. -Point it to any SQL Server DB and generate the classes. -Add a WPF project. -Create a window and add a combobox or listbox. -Set the ItemsSource from the SS DAL, and format it how you wish. -Add a button that will show you some value from the SelectedItem (using messagebox, console, whatever). -Run the project. -Click on the third item in the list. -Click on the second item in the list. -Click on the button. When I do that, the button gives me the value of the THIRD item, not the second. In other words, once the SelectedItem is set the first time it STAYS, no matter which item is subsequently highlighted on the screen. This is happening to me whatever control I use (combobox, listbox, even datagrid) and it ONLY happens with Subsonic Activerecord objects. If I write my own POCOs with identical properties and bind a list of them instead, the controls behave as expected. Does this happen to you? Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Convert Form to UserControl

  - by Joe

  I have a 3rd party code library that I'm using; part of this library is a winforms application for editing the configuration files used by this library. I would like to embed their configuration editor app into my application. I have the source code to their library and the configuration editor is (as far as I can tell) a straight forward Winforms app using standard controls. I'm trying to convert the app's main form into a UserControl so that I can host it inside my application which is WPF (WPF's WindowsFormsHost won't host a Form object, I get an exception). I changed the form object to inherit from UserControl instead of Form and fixed all the compiler errors (there weren't many, just property initializations that don't exist on UserControls) but what's happening is my newly converted control is just blank. When I run my test app I don't see any of the controls that make up the original form, just a blank page. Any ideas? I really don't want to have to re-implement their app from scratch, that would suck. Edit: I forgot to mention I'm testing this in a WinForms application, not WPF, to just get the control working before trying to use it from WPF.

  Read the article

• Why isn't my UITableView appearing in the correct scroll position?

  - by zbrimhall

  I have a split view-based app that presents a master-detail interface, and uses a popover to present the master list when in portrait mode. The popover presents a sectioned table view that ultimately gets populated by a subclass of NSFetchedResultsController. I can tap the tool bar button to present the master list, scroll to whatever row, and tap the row to dismiss the popover. My problem is that if the table is scrolled past the top of the second section, when I dismiss the popover and then later tap the toolbar button to re-present it, the table's scroll position is always set such that the first row of the second section is at the top of the list. If I haven't scrolled past the top of the second section, it correctly remembers its scroll position when the table is presented again. Similarly, in landscape mode, if I scroll the table past the top of the third section and then rotate to portrait, when I come back to landscape the scroll position is always set such that the first row of the third section is at the top of the list. I tried calling -scrollToNearestSelectedRowAtScrollPosition:animated in both the master view controller's -viewWillAppear, as well as in the split view delegate's splitViewController:popoverController:willPresentViewController:, to no effect. Anybody have a clue what I might be doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Asp.Net tree view in SharePoint webpart- Input string error

  - by Faiz

  Hi All, I am facing a very strange issue. I have a SharePoint webpart that displays an asp.net tree view. It takes tree depth from a drop down. To improve performance of the tree view, i am setting the PopulateOnDemand property to true for the last level of the tree depth. For example, if i have a total of 10 levels in the data and the user selects tree depth as 3, then the third level data i set PopulateOnDemand to true. Now comes the strange part. When i click on the + image on the third level, and if there are children under that particular node then call back happens and node gets expanded. But if there no children for that particular node, then click + throws "Input string was not in the correct format" error. I have made sure that there is no server side error. Some things looks to be fishy when internet explorer is trying to bind construct the expanded node. Please let me know if any one faced similar issue or the resolution for the same? Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• C# visually subclass datagridview control VS2005

  - by DRapp

  Maybe its something stupid, but I'm having a problem with a subclass of a DataGridView Control in VS2005 C#. I know I can subclass from almost anything by doing public class MyDataGridView : DataGridView {} no problem, and I put in some things / elements I want applicable globally. Now, I take this gridview and put into a custom user control that will contain other controls too. So I have something like created by the visual designer. I grab some buttons, label, and my derived "MyDataGridView" on it. public partial class MyCompoundDGVPlus : UserControl So, now, I can visually draw, move, change all sorts of settings as needed, no problem. Now, I want this "MyCompoundDGVPlus" class as the basis for other classes, of which I will manipulate settings specific, but want all to have the same look / feel, and otherwise similar flow, hence the derivations. I've even set the "modifiers" setting to public, so I SHOULD be able to modify any of the properties of the controls at any derived level. So, now, I create a new subclass of "MyFirstDetailedDGVPlus" derived from "MyCompoundDGVPlus". Ok visually, all the label, button, datagridview appear. However, now I want to specifically define the columns of the datagridview here in this class visually, but its locked. However, the LABEL on the form, I CAN get all the property settings.... What am I missing.

  Read the article

• WCF service with PHP client - complex type as parameter not working

  - by Matt F

  Hi, I have a WCF service with three methods. Two of the methods return custom types (these work as expected), and the third method takes a custom type as a parameter and returns a boolean. When calling the third method via a PHP soap client it returns an 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object' exception. Example Custom Type: _ Public Class MyClass Private _propertyA As Double <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyA() As Double Get Return _propertyA End Get Set(ByVal value As Double) _propertyA = value End Set End Property Private _propertyB As Double <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyB() As Double Get Return _propertyB End Get Set(ByVal value As Double) _propertyB = value End Set End Property Private _propertyC As Date <DataMember()> _ Public Property PropertyC() As Date Get Return _propertyC End Get Set(ByVal value As Date) _propertyC = value End Set End Property End Class Method: Public Function Add(ByVal param As MyClass) As Boolean Implements IService1.Add ' ... End Function PHP client call: $client-Add(array('param'=array( 'PropertyA' = 1, 'PropertyB' = 2, 'PropertyC' = "2009-01-01" ))); The WCF service works fine with a .Net client but I'm new to PHP and can't get this to work. Is it possible to create an instance of 'MyClass' in PHP. Any help would be appreciated. Note: I'm using PHP 5 (XAMPP 1.7.0 for Windows). Thanks Matt

  Read the article

• Open XML document ContentControls problem with signed id's

  - by willvv

  I have an application that generates Open XML documents with Content Controls. To create a new Content Control I use Interop and the method ContentControls.Add. This method returns an instance of the added Content Control. I have some logic that saves the id of the Content Control to reference it later, but in some computers I've been having a weird problem. When I access the ID property of the Content Control I just created, it returns a string with the numeric id, the problem is that when this value is too big, after I save the document, if I look through the document.xml in the generated document, the <w:id/> element of the <w:sdtPr/> element has a negative value, that is the signed equivalent of the value I got from the Id property of the generated control. For example: var contentControl = ContentControls.Add(...); var contentControlId = contentControl.ID; // the value of contentControlId is "3440157266" If I save the document and open it in the Package Explorer, the Id of the Content Control is "-854810030" instead of "3440157266". What have I figured out is this: ((int)uint.Parse("3440157266")).ToString() returns "-854810030" Any idea of why this happens? This issue is hard to replicate because I don't control the Id of the generated controls, the Id is automatically generated by the Interop libraries.

  Read the article

• InlineUIControl

  - by zync

  Hi. I have a project in wich I must create a form editor (just like infopath) using wpf. For this I thought to use a RichTextBox and in there I would place InlineUIElements with the different controls (TextBox, ComboBox, etc.). The problem is that I can't change some properties associated with those controls. Here's some XAML: <RichTextBox> <FlowDocument> <Paragraph> <InlineUIContainer> <TextBox Background="Red">Some Text</TextBox> </InlineUIContainer> </Paragraph> </FlowDocument> </RichTextBox> This displays a TextBox in a RichTextBox just like I wanted but it's not red. Some other properties work like width and height. Why is this and how can I make it work? Other question is: Am I approaching the problem (creating the form editor) right? Thanks

  Read the article

• Why can't I add an event to each element in a collection that refers to Itself rather than the last

  - by user311403

  On Window's load, every DD element inside Quote_App should have an onCLick event appended that triggers the function Lorem, however, Lorem returns the nodeName and Id of the last element in the For statement rather than that of the element that trigged the function. I would want Lorem to return the nodeName and Id of the element that triggered the function. .js function Lorem(Control){ /* this.Control=Control; */ this.Amet=function(){ return Control.nodeName+"\n"+Control.id; }; }; function Event(Mode,Function,Event,Element,Capture_or_Bubble){ if(Mode.toLowerCase()!="remove"){ if(Element.addEventListener){ if(!Capture_or_Bubble){ Capture_or_Bubble=false; }else{ if(Capture_or_Bubble.toLowerCase()!="true"){ Capture_or_Bubble=false; }else{ Capture_or_Bubble=true; }; }; Element.addEventListener(Event,Function,Capture_or_Bubble); }else{ Element.attachEvent("on"+Event,Function); }; }; }; function Controls(){ var Controls=document.getElementById("Quote_App").getElementsByTagName("dd"); for(var i=0;i Currently you click on any DD element Lorem always returns the nodeName and Id of the last DD element. Lorem should return the nodeName and Id of the Control (Control[i]) that triggered Lorem. How do I go about making this happen? Thank you!

  Read the article

• How do I get many, but not all, property values from View to Presenter in WebFormsMvp?

  - by andrej351

  Hey there, What is the best way to get a number of property values of a business object from the View to the Presenter in a WebFormsMvp page? Here is what i propose: The scenario is, I have a business object called Quote which i would like to load form the database, edit and then save. The Quote class has heaps of properties on it. The form is concerned with about 20 of these properties. I have existing methods to load/save a Quote object to/from the database. I now need to wire this all together. So, in the View_Load handler on my presenter i intend to do something like this: public void View_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { View.Model.Quote = quoteService.Read(quoteId); } And then bind all my controls as follows: <asp:TextBox ID="TotalPriceTextBox" runat="server" Text="<%# Model.Quote.TotalPrice %>" /> All good, the data is on the screen. The user then makes a bunch of changes and hits a "Submit" button. Here is where I'm unsure. I create a class called QuoteEventArgs exposing the 20 properties the form is able to edit. When the View raises the Submit button's event, I set these properties to the values of the controls in the code behind. Then raise the event for the presenter to respond to. The presenter re-loads the Quote object from the database, sets all the properties and saves it to the database. Is this the right way to do this? If not, what is? Cheers, Andrej.

  Read the article

• Generate an ID via COM interop

  - by Erik van Brakel

  At the moment, we've got an unmaintanable ball of code which offers an interface to a third party application. The third party application has a COM assembly which MUST be used to create new entries. This process involves two steps: generate a new object (basically an ID), and update that object with new field values. Because COM interop is so slow, we only use that to generate the ID (and related objects) in the database. The actual update is done using a regular SQL query. What I am trying to figure out if it's possible to use NHibernate to do some of the heavy lifting for us, without bypassing the COM assembly. Here's the code for saving something to the database as I envision it: using(var s = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using(var t = s.BeginTransaction()) { MyEntity entity = new MyEntity(); s.Save(entity); t.Commit(); } Regular NH code I'd say. Now, this is where it gets tricky. I think I have to supply my own implementation of NHibernate.Id.IIdentifierGenerator which calls the COM assembly in the Generate method. That's not a problem. What IS a problem is that the COM assembly requires initialisation, which does take a bit of time. It also doesn't like multiple instances in the same process, for some reason. What I would like to know is if there's a way to properly access an external service in the generator code. I'm free to use any technique I want, so if it involves something like an IoC container that's no problem. The thing I am looking for is where exactly to hook-up my code so I can access the things I need in my generator, without having to resort to using singletons or other nasty stuff.

  Read the article

• Best way to databind a Winforms control to a nullable type?

  - by Steve Hiner

  I'm currently using winforms databinding to wire up a data editing form. I'm using the netTiers framework through CodeSmith to generate my data objects. For database fields that allow nulls it creates nullable types. I've found that using winforms databinding the controls won't bind properly to nullable types. I've seen solutions online suggesting that people create new textbox classes that can handle the nullable types but that could be a pain having to swap out the textboxes on the forms I've already created. Initially I thought it would be great to use an extension method to do it. Basically creating an extension property for the textbox class and bind to that. From my limited extension method experience and doing a bit of checking online it looks like you can't do an extension property. As far as I can tell, binding has to be through a property since it needs to be able to get or set the value so an extension method wouldn't work. I'd love to find a clean way to retrofit these forms using something like extension methods but if I have to create new textbox and combo box controls that's what I'll do. My project is currently limited to .Net 2.0 due to the requirement to run on Windows 2000. Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• How to add video into a webpage for mobile web browsers.

  - by payling

  Our company is making a mobile version of our website. We have several product videos we want to show on the mobile version. When I try to use <a href="video.wmv">video</a> I get sound playing but a black screen on my htc incredible android os phone. I'm thinking that the video is playing but in a different browser window. I need it to display all in one window without having to switch to a different window. I tried the html embed tags and get no video or sound at all, from what I've read these tags are not very realiable cross browser. I also just tried the html5 video tags below. I get an icon identifying that it's a video file but it doesn't play. <video src="video.wmv" controls="controls"> your browser does not support the video tag </video> Is there a special format the video file needs to be in? Should I be using the href or embed tags, what other options do I have? If it helps to know, I'm using the mobile doctype on my webpages. Thanks

  Read the article

• stuck with enable session state

  - by Shrewd Demon

  hi i have an application wherein i am accessing the Session object in the CommonCode.cs file that resides in the App_Code folder. But when the session object is accessed the application throws me an error: Session state can only be used when enableSessionState is set to true, either in a configuration file or in the Page directive. Please also make sure that System.Web.SessionStateModule or a custom session state module is included in the \\ section in the application configuration. Now i have already enabled the session state property in the web.config file, here is my code from the web.config file: <pages enableSessionState="true" autoEventWireup="true"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI.WebControls" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </controls> </pages> I dont understand why am i still getting that error !! please help ! thanks a lot.

  Read the article

• How do I Data-Bind dual DateTimePicker to a single DateTime object

  - by S.C. Madsen

  Hi, I have a simple form, with two DateTimePicker-controls: One for date, and one for time. The thing is these two controls are supposed to represent a single point in time. Hence I would like to "Bind" them to a single DateTime property on my form (for simplicity). I did the following: // Start is a DateTime property on the form _StartDate.DataBindings.Add("Value", this, "Start"); _StartTime.DataBindings.Add("Value", this, "Start"); But hooking into "ValueChanged" event, yields mixed results... Sometimes I get exactly what I want, sometimes the updates of the property are "sluggish". I figured this way of splitting into two DateTimePicker's was fairly common. So how to do it? Update: There is possibly multiple questions in there: How do I bind a DateTimePicker (Format: Date) to a DateTime Property on a form? Then, how do I bind yet another DateTimePicker (Format: Time) to the same property? I'm using Visual Studio Express 2008 (.NET 3.5), and I seemingly get ValueChanged events from the DateTimePickers before the value is changed?

  Read the article

• ASP.Net Problem with Event Handlers and Control Creation Timing

  - by Oliver Weichhold

  What I am trying to achieve here is to display a number of LinkButtons in a RadGrid Column. The buttons are generated from a collection property member of the bound grid row item. The CollectionLinkButton control is nothing more than a asp:Panel derived control that populates its Child Controls from "DataItem.SomeCollection" and this is working fine. The problem I am facing is with this part: Collection='<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container, "DataItem.SomeCollection") %' This is because databound Collection Property is populated so late in the lifecycle of the page that the LinkButton Controls that the CollectionLinkButton class creates from the collection are not available yet during Postback when the Click event Handler is supposed to fire and I have currently no idea how to solve this problem. <radG:RadGrid ID="grid" runat="server" DataSourceID="ds_AB"> <MasterTableView> <Columns> <radG:GridTemplateColumn> <ItemTemplate> <local:CollectionLinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" CssClass="EntityLinkButton" Collection='<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container, "DataItem.SomeCollection") %>' CollectionProperty="Id" CollectionDisplayProperty="Name" Text='<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container, "DataItem.Name") %>'</local:CollectionLinkButton> </ItemTemplate> </radG:GridTemplateColumn>

  Read the article

• WPF: Exception if i add a eventhandler to a MenuItem (in a ListBox)

  - by user437899

  Hi, i wanted a contextmenu for my ListBoxItems. So i created this: <ListBox Name="listBoxName"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Text="{Binding UserName}" /> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> <ListBox.ItemContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="ListBoxItem"> <Setter Property="ContextMenu"> <Setter.Value> <ContextMenu> <MenuItem Header="View" Name="MenuItemView" /> </ContextMenu> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </ListBox.ItemContainerStyle> </ListBox> This works great. I have the contextmenu for all items, but if i want to add a click-eventhandler to the menuitem, like this: <MenuItem Header="View" Name="MenuItemView" Click="MenuItemView_Click" /> I get a XamlParseException when the window is created. InnerException: The Object System.Windows.Controls.MenuItem cannot be converted to type System.Windows.Controls.Grid It throws only the exception if i add a event-handler. The event-method is empty.

  Read the article

• eclipse, one classpath for compiling, another for launching

  - by DragonFax

  example: For logging, my code uses log4j. but other jars my code is dependent upon, uses slf4j instead. So both jars must be in the build path. Unfortunately, its possible for my code to directly use (depend on) slf4j now, either by context-assist, or some other developers changes. I would like any use of slf4j to show up as an error, but my application (and tests) will still need it in the classpath when running. explanation: I'd like to find out if this is possible in eclipse. This scenario happens often for me. I'll have a large project, that uses alot of 3rd party libraries. And of course those 3rd party jars have their own dependencies as well. So I have to include all dependencies in the classpath ("build path" in eclipse) for the application and its tests to compile and run (from within eclipse). But I don't want my code to use all of those jars, just the few direct dependencies I've decided upon myself. So if my code accidentally uses a dependency of a dependency, I want it to show up as a compilation error. Ideally, as class not found, but any error would do. I know I can manually configure the classpath when running outside of eclipse, and even within eclipse I can modify the classpath for a specific class I'm running (in the run configurations), but thats not manageable if you run alot of individual test cases, or have alot of main() classes.

  Read the article

• How to disable other touch gestures after adding another tap gesture to the view?

  - by Hudson Duan

  I have a view with some tables and buttons on it, and then I want to add a tap gesture to the entire view, but I only want that gesture recognizer to recognize taps. Ideally, I want to do something when the added gesture recognizer is tapped, then remove that gesture recognizer after so the other buttons and tables can be accessed. Basically a tap to dismiss functionality that replicates something like the facebook notifications window, tap outside to dismiss, but not interfere with the buttons outside of the notifications view. Can anybody help? My current code is: NotificationsWindow *customView = [[[NSBundle mainBundle]loadNibNamed:@"NotificationsWindow" owner:self options:nil]objectAtIndex:0]; customView.frame= CGRectMake(12, 12, customView.frame.size.width, customView.frame.size.height); UITapGestureRecognizer *recognizerForSubView = [[UITapGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleTapBehindAgain:)]; [recognizerForSubView setNumberOfTapsRequired:1]; recognizerForSubView.cancelsTouchesInView = NO; //So the user can still interact with controls in the modal view [customView addGestureRecognizer:recognizerForSubView]; [self.view addSubview:customView]; UITapGestureRecognizer *recognizerForSuperView = [[UITapGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleTapBehind:)]; [recognizerForSuperView setNumberOfTapsRequired:1]; recognizerForSuperView.cancelsTouchesInView = NO; //So the user can still interact with controls in the modal view [customView.superview addGestureRecognizer:recognizerForSuperView]; (void)handleTapBehind:(UITapGestureRecognizer *)sender { NSLog(@"tapped"); [[self.view.subviews lastObject] removeFromSuperview]; [self.view removeGestureRecognizer:sender]; } I want to make it so that the recognizer for the super view dismisses the subview, but not to interfere with the other taps on the super view.

  Read the article

• function objects versus function pointers

  - by kumar_m_kiran

  Hi All, I have two questions related to function objects and function pointers, Question : 1 When I read the different uses sort algorithm of STL, I see that the third parameter can be a function objects, below is an example class State { public: //... int population() const; float aveTempF() const; //... }; struct PopLess : public std::binary_function<State,State,bool> { bool operator ()( const State &a, const State &b ) const { return popLess( a, b ); } }; sort( union, union+50, PopLess() ); Question : Now, How does the statement, sort(union, union+50,PopLess()) work? PopLess() must be resolved into something like PopLess tempObject.operator() which would be same as executing the operator () function on a temporary object. I see this as, passing the return value of overloaded operation i.e bool (as in my example) to sort algorithm. So then, How does sort function resolve the third parameter in this case? Question : 2 Question Do we derive any particular advantage of using function objects versus function pointer? If we use below function pointer will it derive any disavantage? inline bool popLess( const State &a, const State &b ) { return a.population() < b.population(); } std::sort( union, union+50, popLess ); // sort by population PS : Both the above references(including example) are from book "C++ Common Knowledge: Essential Intermediate Programming" by "Stephen C. Dewhurst". I was unable to decode the topic content, thus have posted for help. Thanks in advance for your help.

  Read the article

• c# : How ot create a grid row array programatically

  - by user234839

  I am working in c# and i am under a situation where i have a grid (childGrid) and inside this grid i want to create 3 more grids dynamically. I want to achieve it using arrays. My try to do this is: Grid[] row = new Grid[counts]; for (int i = 0; i < counts; i++) { row[i].RowDefinitions[counts].Add(new RowDefinition()); } for (int i = 0; i < counts; i++) { Grid.SetColumn(txtblkLabel, 0); Grid.SetRow(row[i], 0); row[i].Children.Add(txtblkLabel); Grid.SetColumn(sp, 1); Grid.SetRow(row[i], 0); row[i].Children.Add(sp); Grid.SetColumn(txtblkShowStatus, 2); Grid.SetRow(row[i], 0); row[i].Children.Add(txtblkShowStatus); childGrid.Children.Add(row[i]); } the line row[i].RowDefinitions[counts].Add(new RowDefinition()); gives error. Error 1'System.Windows.Controls.RowDefinition' does not contain a definition for 'Add' and no extension method 'Add' accepting a first argument of type 'System.Windows.Controls.RowDefinition' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) How to achieve this ?

  Read the article

• When should I be cautious using data binding in .NET?

  - by Ben McCormack

  I just started working on a small team of .NET programmers about a month ago and recently got in a discussion with our team lead regarding why we don't use databinding at all in our code. Every time we work with a data grid, we iterate through a data table and populate the grid row by row; the code usually looks something like this: Dim dt as DataTable = FuncLib.GetData("spGetTheData ...") Dim i As Integer For i = 0 To dt.Rows.Length - 1 '(not sure why we do not use a for each here)' gridRow = grid.Rows.Add() gridRow(constantProductID).Value = dt("ProductID").Value gridRow(constantProductDesc).Value = dt("ProductDescription").Value Next '(I am probably missing something in the code, but that is basically it)' Our team lead was saying that he got burned using data binding when working with Sheridan Grid controls, VB6, and ADO recordsets back in the nineties. He's not sure what the exact problem was, but he remembers that binding didn't work as expected and caused him some major problems. Since then, they haven't trusted data binding and load the data for all their controls by hand. The reason the conversation even came up was because I found data binding to be very simple and really liked separating the data presentation (in this case, the data grid) from the in-memory data source (in this case, the data table). "Loading" the data row by row into the grid seemed to break this distinction. I also observed that with the advent of XAML in WPF and Silverlight, data-binding seems like a must-have in order to be able to cleanly wire up a designer's XAML code with your data. When should I be cautious of using data-binding in .NET?

  Read the article

• Architecture for new ASP.NET web application

  - by Anders Abel

  I'm maintaining an application which currently is just a web service (built with WCF) and a database backend. The web service is built in layers with a linq-to-sql data access part with core functionality in an own assembly and on top of that the web service assembly which contains the WCF code. The core assembly also handles all business logic rules (very few actually). The customer now wants a Web interface for the application instead of just accessing it through other applications which are consuming the web service. I'm quite lost on modern web application design, so I would like some advice on what architecture and frameworks to use for the web application. The web application will be using the same core assembly with business rules and the linq-to-sql data access layer as the web service. Some concepts I've thought about are: ASP.NET MVC Webforms AJAX controls - possibly leting the AJAX controls access the existing web service through JSON. Are there any more concepts I should look into? Which one is the best for a fresh project? The development tools are Visual Studio 2008 Team Edition for Developers targeting .NET 3.5. An upgrade to Visual Studio 2010 Premium (or maybe even Ultimate) is possible if it gives any benefits.

  Read the article

• Get Function Pointer to function in a shared library I didn't directly load

  - by bdk

  My Linux application (A) links against a Third Party shared Library (B) which I don't have source code to. This library makes use of another third party shared library that I don't have source code to (C). I believe that (B) uses dlopen to access (C) instead of directly linking. My reasoning for this is that 'ldd' on (B) does not show (C) and objdump -X (B) shows references to dlopen/dlclose/dlsym. My requirement is that I need to in my code for (A) get a function pointer to a function foo() located in (C). Normally I'd use dlsym for this, but I need to pass it the handle returned from dlopen which I don't have since (B) does not expose this. - For the larger context: I need to modify the function in (C) such that everytime it calls its helper function bar() (also located in (C)), it also calls a function with the same signature located in (A) with the same parameters (Basically inject my code into the codepath of (C) foo()-bar(). I believe I've found a way to accomplish this using gdb, but in order to port my gdb command list, but I'm stuck on the step of getting the function pointer. I'm also open to alternatives to accomplish the same task rather than the exact problem as stated above Edit: After writing this I realized I can probably just do another dlopen on the file in my code and the symbols returned via dlsym on that handle should be the same as received via the original dlopen, If I'm reading the dlopen man page correctly. However I'm still interested in advice or assistance with the my larger context, If theres a better way to go about this

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172  | Next Page >