Search Results

Search found 5885 results on 236 pages for 'finally'.

Page 166/236 | < Previous Page | 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173  | Next Page >

  • maximum memory which malloc can allocate!

    - by Vikas
    I was trying to figure out how much memory I can malloc to maximum extent on my machine (1 Gb RAM 160 Gb HD Windows platform). I read that maximum memory malloc can allocate is limited to physical memory.(on heap) Also when a program exceeds consumption of memory to a certain level, the computer stops working because other applications do not get enough memory that they require. So to confirm,I wrote a small program in C, int main(){ int *p; while(1){ p=(int *)malloc(4); if(!p)break; } } Hoping that there would be a time when memory allocation will fail and loop will be breaked. But my computer hanged as It was an infinite loop. I waited for about an hour and finally I had to forcely shut down my computer. Some questions: Does malloc allocate memory from HD also? What was the reason for above behaviour? Why didn't loop breaked at any point of time.? Why wasn't there any allocation failure?

    Read the article

  • why does setting stderr=subprocess.STDOUT fix a subprocess.check_output call?

    - by ShankarG
    I have a python script running on a small server that is called in three different ways - from within another python script, by cron, or by gammu-smsd (an SMS daemon with the wonderful mobile utility [gammu]). The script is for maintenance and contained the following kludge to measure used space on the system (presumably this is possible from within Python, but this was quick and dirty): reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], shell=True)[0:-1] Oddly enough this line would only fail when the script was called by a shell script running from gammu-smsd. The line would fail with a CalledProcessError exception saying "returned exit status 2", even though the output attribute of the CalledProcessError object contained the correct output. The only command in the sequence of shell commands that would give such an error status would be awk, with status 2 indicating a fatal error. If the python script with this line was called by cron, by another python script, or from the command line, this line would work fine. I broke my head trying to fix the environment for the script, thinking this must be the problem. Finally though I put in stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, like so: reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, shell=True)[0:-1] This was a debug measure to help me figure out if some output was coming on stderr. But after this the script started working, even when called from gammu-smsd! Why might this be the case? I ask for future reference when using subprocess...

    Read the article

  • How to get at specific HTML elements of a document using C# and Hide them/Show them etc.

    - by LaserBeak
    Basically I want to load a HTML document and using controls such as multiple check boxes which will be programmed to hide, delete or show HTML elements with certain ID's. So I am thinking I would have to set an inline CSS property for visibility to: false on the ones I want to hide or delete them altogether when necessary. I need this so I don't have to edit my Ebay HTML templates in dreamweaver all the time, where I usually have to scroll around messy code and manually delete or add tags and their respective content. Whereas I just want to create one master template in dreamweaver which has all the variations that my products have, since they are all of the same genre with slight changes here and there and I just need to enable and disable the visibility of these variants as required and copy + paste the final html. I haven's used Windows Forms before, but tried doing this in WebForms which I do know a bit. I am able to get the result that I want by wrapping any HTML elements in a <asp:PlaceHolder></asp:PlaceHolder> and just setting that place holders visibility to false after the associated checkbox is checked and a postback occurs, finally I add a checkbox/button control that removes all the checkboxes, including itself etc for final html. But this method seems just like too much pain in the ass as I have to add the placeholder tags around everything that I need control over as ordinary html elements do not run at server, also webforms injects a bunch of Javascript and ViewState data so I don't have clean HTML which I can just copy after viewing the page source. Any tips/code that you can suggest to achieve the desired effect with the least changes required to existing HTML documents? Ideally I would want to load the HTML document in, have a live design preview of it and underneath have a bunch of well labelled checkboxes programmed to hide, delete or show elements with certain ID's. Thanks...

    Read the article

  • How to prevent ADO.NET from altering double values when it reads from Excel files

    - by Khnle
    I have the following rows in my Excel input file: Column1 Column2 0-5 3.040 6 2.957 7 2.876 and the following code which uses ADO.NET to read it: string fileName = "input.xls"; var connectionString = string.Format("Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; data source={0}; Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;", fileName); var dbConnection = new OleDbConnection(connectionString); dbConnection.Open(); try { var dbCommand = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM [Sheet1$]", dbConnection); var dbReader = dbCommand.ExecuteReader (); while (dbReader.Read()) { string col1 = dbReader.GetValue(0).ToString(); string col2 = dbReader.GetValue(1).ToString(); } } finally { dbConnection.Close(); } The results are very disturbing. Here's why: The values of each column in the first time through the loop: col1 is empty (blank) col2 is 3.04016411633586 Second time: col1 is 6 col2 is 2.95722928448829 Third time: col1 is 7 col2 is 2.8763272933077 The first problem happens with col1 in the first iteration. I expect 0-5. The second problem happens at every iteration with col2 where ADO.NET obviously alters the values as it reads them. How to stop this mal-behavior?

    Read the article

  • How to force a WebPart appears in all pages of a portal in asp.net?

    - by Mehdi
    Hi, I'm working on a portal/CMS project and (unfortunately) build the foundation on WebParts platform. However I need to provide an option for admin to choose whether a webpart should be display in all pages or not. Finally I've found a nice article from Damon Armstrong that describes a way to store all personalization data of a group of pages into one record. Thus every changes the admin made for a webpart, affect whole pages. But it doesn't seems to be a solution for me because of these reasons: 1- The above solution works for a group of pages; in fact we can select which pages to display all webparts, but we expect reverse: select which webpart to display in all pages. 2- After some data entry and adding webparts on pages, we'll face an issue about massive data size of personalization record that should be serialize and deserialize to display contents of each page. May be it would be solved by writing another custom personalization provider or some hacking on webparts system, but I don't now how. Any Ideas about the problem? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Why have or haven't you moved to ASP.NET MVC yet?

    - by Jason
    I find myself on the edge of trying out ASP.NET MVC but there is still "something" holding me back. Are you still waiting to try it, and if so, why? If you finally decided to use it, what helped you get over your hesitation? I'm not worried about it from a technical point of view; I know the pros and cons of web forms vs MVC. My concerns are more on the practical side. Will Microsoft continue to support ASP.NET MVC if they don't reach some critical threshold of developers/customers using it? Are customers willing to try ASP.NET MVC? Have you had to convince a customer to use it? How did that go? Are there major sites using ASP.NET MVC (besides SO)? Could you provide links if you have them? Did you try ASP.NET MVC and found yourself regretting it? If so, what do you regret? If you have any other concerns preventing you from using MVC.NET, what are they? If you had concerns but felt they were addressed and now use MVC.NET, could you list them as well? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to make use of Grails Dependencies in your IDE

    - by raoulsson
    Hi All, So I finally got my dependencies working with Grails. Now, how can my IDE, eg IntelliJ or Eclipse, take advantage of it? Or do I really have to manually manage what classes my IDE knows about at "development time"? If the BuildConfig.groovy script is setup right (see here), you will be able to code away with vi or your favorite editor without any troubles, then run grails compile which will resolve and download the dependencies into the Ivy cache and off you go... If, however, you are using an IDE like Eclipse or IntelliJ, you will need the dependencies at hand while coding. Obviously - as these animals will need them for the "real time" error detection/compilation process. Now, while it is certainly possible to code with all the classes shining up in bright red all over the place that are unknown to your IDE, it is certainly not much fun... The Maven support or whatever it is officially called lives happily with the pom file, no extra "jar directory" pointers needed, at least in IntelliJ. I would like to be able to do the same with Grails dependencies. Currently I am defining them in the BuildConfig.groovy and additionally I copy/paste the current jars around on my local disk and let the IDE point to it. Not very satisfactory, as I am working in a highly volatile project module environment with respect to code change. And this situation ports me directly into "jar hell", as my "develop- and build-dependencies" easily get out of sync and I have to manage manually, that is, with my brain... And my brain should be busy with other stuff... Thanks! Raoul P.S: I'm currently using Grails 1.2M4 and IntelliJ 92.105. But feel free to add answers on future versions of Grails and different, future IDEs, as the come in...

    Read the article

  • Validation on ManyToManyField before Save in Models.py

    - by Heyl1
    I have the following models: class Application(models.Model): users = models.ManyToManyField(User, through='Permission') folder = models.ForeignKey(Folder) class Folder(models.Model): company = models.ManyToManyField(Compnay) class UserProfile(models.Model): user = models.OneToOneField(User, related_name='profile') company = models.ManyToManyField(Company) What I would like to do is to check whether one of the users of the Application has the same company as the Application (via Folder). If this is the case the Application instance should not be saved. The problem is that the ManyToManyFields aren't updated until after the 'post-save' signal. The only option seems to be the new m2m_changed signal. But I'm not sure how I then roll back the save that has already happened. Another option would be to rewrite the save function (in models.py, because I'm talking about the admin here), but I'm not sure how I could access the manytomanyfield content. Finally I've read something about rewriting the save function in the admin of the model in admin.py, however I still wouldn't know how you would access the manytomanyfield content. I have been searching for this everywhere but nothing I come across seems to work for me. If anything is unclear, please tell me. Thanks for your help! Heleen

    Read the article

  • Get Active Directory Attributes for Users on Legacy Exchange Servers

    - by Jason Hindson
    I would like to create a CSV file of the users on our Exchange 2003 servers, and include some attributes from their AD account. In particular, I would like to pull certain AD values for the users with RecipientTypeDetails = LegacyMailbox. I have tried a few different methods for targeting and filtering (ldapfilter, filter, objectAttribute, etc.) these users, with little success. The Exchange 2003 PowerPack for PowerGUI was helpful, but permissions issues and using the Exchange_Mailbox class are not challenges I want to overcome. I was finally able to create a working script, but it is very slow. The script I've created below is currently working, although it is on track to take about 4+ hours to complete. I'm am looking for suggestions for improving the efficiency of my script or otherwise obtaining this data in a quicker manner. Here is the script: $ADproperties = 'City','Company','department','Description','DistinguishedName','DisplayName','FirstName','l','LastName','msExchHomeServerName','NTAccountName','ParentContainer','physicaldeliveryofficename','SamAccountName','useraccountcontrol','UserPrincipalName' get-user -ResultSize Unlimited -ignoredefaultscope -RecipientTypeDetails LegacyMailbox | foreach {Get-QADUser $_.name -DontUseDefaultIncludedProperties -IncludedProperties $ADproperties} | select $ADproperties | epcsv C:\UserListBuilder\exchUsers.csv -notype Any help you can provide will be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • When an NSWindow object has a delegate that is a NSWindow subclass, who is responsible to act on received events?

    - by spade78
    So I'm building a program that features the use of the IKImageBrowserView component as a subview in an NSWindow. As a side note, I have a controller object called ImageBrowserController which subclasses NSWindow and is set as the delegate of the NSWindow object of my app. I have sent IKImageBrowserView the message setCanControlQuickLookPanel:YES to enable it to automatically use the QuickLook functionality to preview image files when the IKImageBrowserView is a first responder to receive key events. Then it took me a while to figure out how to make the IKImageBrowserView a first responder which I finally got working by overriding acceptsFirstResponder inside my ImageBrowserController. Now I understand that as the delegate to the NSWindow, ImageBrowserController has a place in the responder chain after the event gets triggered on NSWindow. And I understand that as a subview of NSWindow, IKImageBrowserView is in line to be passed events for event handling. What I don't get is where the connection is between the ImageBrowserController being a first responder and the event somehow making it to the IKImageBrowserView. I didn't set NSWindow or IKImageBrowserView as first responders explicitly. So why isn't it necessary for me to implement event handling inside my ImageBrowserController? EDIT: So after reading the accepted answer and going back to my code I tried removing the acceptsFirstResponder override in my ImageBrowserController and the QuickLook functionality still triggered just like the accepted answer said it would. Commenting out the setCanControlQuickLookPanel:YES made the app beep at me when I tried to invoke QuickLook functionality via the spacebar. I'm getting the feeling that my troubles were caused by user error of XCode in hitting the RUN button instead of the BUILD button after making changes to my code (sigh).

    Read the article

  • How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

    Read the article

  • Warning: cast increases required alignment

    - by dash-tom-bang
    I'm recently working on this platform for which a legacy codebase issues a large number of "cast increases required alignment to N" warnings, where N is the size of the target of the cast. struct Message { int32_t id; int32_t type; int8_t data[16]; }; int32_t GetMessageInt(const Message& m) { return *reinterpret_cast<int32_t*>(&data[0]); } Hopefully it's obvious that a "real" implementation would be a bit more complex, but the basic point is that I've got data coming from somewhere, I know that it's aligned (because I need the id and type to be aligned), and yet I get the message that the cast is increasing the alignment, in the example case, to 4. Now I know that I can suppress the warning with an argument to the compiler, and I know that I can cast the bit inside the parentheses to void* first, but I don't really want to go through every bit of code that needs this sort of manipulation (there's a lot because we load a lot of data off of disk, and that data comes in as char buffers so that we can easily pointer-advance), but can anyone give me any other thoughts on this problem? I mean, to me it seems like such an important and common option that you wouldn't want to warn, and if there is actually the possibility of doing it wrong then suppressing the warning isn't going to help. Finally, can't the compiler know as I do how the object in question is actually aligned in the structure, so it should be able to not worry about the alignment on that particular object unless it got bumped a byte or two?

    Read the article

  • Are there good reasons not to use an ORM?

    - by hangy
    During my apprenticeship, I have used NHibernate for some smaller projects which I mostly coded and designed on my own. Now, before starting some bigger project, the discussion arose how to design data access and whether or not to use an ORM layer. As I am still in my apprenticeship and still consider myself a beginner in enterprise programming, I did not really try to push in my opinion, which is that using an object relational mapper to the database can ease development quite a lot. The other coders in the development team are much more experienced than me, so I think I will just do what they say. :-) However, I do not completely understand two of the main reasons for not using NHibernate or a similar project: One can just build one’s own data access objects with SQL queries and copy those queries out of Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio. Debugging an ORM can be hard. So, of course I could just build my data access layer with a lot of SELECTs etc, but here I miss the advantage of automatic joins, lazy-loading proxy classes and a lower maintenance effort if a table gets a new column or a column gets renamed. (Updating numerous SELECT, INSERT and UPDATE queries vs. updating the mapping config and possibly refactoring the business classes and DTOs.) Also, using NHibernate you can run into unforeseen problems if you do not know the framework very well. That could be, for example, trusting the Table.hbm.xml where you set a string’s length to be automatically validated. However, I can also imagine similar bugs in a “simple” SqlConnection query based data access layer. Finally, are those arguments mentioned above really a good reason not to utilise an ORM for a non-trivial database based enterprise application? Are there probably other arguments they/I might have missed? (I should probably add that I think this is like the first “big” .NET/C# based application which will require teamwork. Good practices, which are seen as pretty normal on Stack Overflow, such as unit testing or continuous integration, are non-existing here up to now.)

    Read the article

  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

    Read the article

  • Running a Model::find in for loop in cakephp v1.3

    - by Gaurav Sharma
    Hi all, How can I achieve the following result in cakephp: In my application a Topic is related to category, category is related to city and city is finally related to state in other words: topic belongs to category, category belongs to city , city belongs to state.. Now in the Topic controller's index action I want to find out all the topics and it's city and state. How can I do this. I can easily do this using a custom query ($this-Model-query() function ) but then I will be facing pagination difficulties. I tried doing like this function index() { $this->Topic->recursive = 0; $topics = $this->paginate(); for($i=0; $i<count($topics);$i++) { $topics[$i]['City'] = $this->Topic->Category->City->find('all', array('conditions' => array('City.id' => $topics[$i]['Category']['city_id']))); } $this->set(compact('messages')); } The method that I have adopted is not a good one (running query in a loop) Using the recursive property and setting it to highest value (2) will degrade performance and is not going to yield me state information. How shall I solve this ? Please help Thanks

    Read the article

  • Something about Stream

    - by sforester
    I've been working on something that make use of streams and I found myself not clear about some stream concepts( you can also view another question posted by me at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2933923/about-redirected-stdout-in-system-diagnostics-process ). 1.how do you indicate that you have finished writing a stream, writing something like a EOF? 2.follow the previous question, if I have written a EOF(or something like that) to a stream but didn't close the stream, then I want to write something else to the same stream, can I just start writing to it and no more set up required? 3.if a procedure tries to read a stream(like the stdin ) that no one has written anything to it, the reading procedure will be blocked,finally some data arrives and the procedure will just read till the writing is done,which is indicated by getting a return of 0 count of bytes read rather than being blocked, and now if the procedure issues another read to the same stream, it will still get a 0 count and return immediately while I was expecting it will be blocked since no one is writing to the stream now. So does the stream holds different states when the stream is opened but no one has written to it yet and when someone has finished a writing session? I'm using Windows the .net framework if there will by any thing platform specific. Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • MySQL move data from one table to another, matching ID's

    - by Reveller
    I have (a.o.) two MySQL tables with (a.o.) the following columns: tweets: ------------------------------------- id text from_user_id from_user ------------------------------------- 1 Cool tweet! 13295354 tradeny 2 Tweeeeeeeet 43232544 bolleke 3 Yet another 13295354 tradeny 4 Something.. 53546443 janusz4 users: ------------------------------------- id from_user num_tweets from_user_id ------------------------------------- 1 tradeny 2235 2 bolleke 432 3 janusz4 5354 I now want to normalize the tweets table, replacing tweets.from_user with an integer that matches users.id. Secondly, I want to fill in the corresponding users.from_user_id, Finally, I want to delete tweets.from_user_id so that the end result would look like: tweets: ------------------------ id text from_user ------------------------ 1 Cool tweet! 1 2 Tweeeeeeeet 2 3 Yet another 1 4 Something.. 3 users: ------------------------------------- id from_user num_tweets from_user_id ------------------------------------- 1 tradeny 2235 13295354 2 bolleke 432 43232544 3 janusz4 5354 53546443 My question is whether one could help me form the proper queries for this. I have only come so far: UPDATE tweets SET from_user = (SELECT id FROM users WHERE from_user = tweets.from_user) WHERE... UPDATE users SET from_user_id = (SELECT from_user_id FROM tweets WHERE from_user = tweets.from_user) WHERE... ALTER TABLE tweets DROP from_user_id Any help would be greatly appreciated :-)

    Read the article

  • Generic version control strategy for select table data within a heavily normalized database

    - by leppie
    Hi Sorry for the long winded title, but the requirement/problem is rather specific. With reference to the following sample (but very simplified) structure (in psuedo SQL), I hope to explain it a bit better. TABLE StructureName { Id GUID PK, Name varchar(50) NOT NULL } TABLE Structure { Id GUID PK, ParentId GUID (FK to Structure), NameId GUID (FK to StructureName) NOT NULL } TABLE Something { Id GUID PK, RootStructureId GUID (FK to Structure) NOT NULL } As one can see, Structure is a simple tree structure (not worried about ordering of children for the problem). StructureName is a simplification of a translation system. Finally 'Something' is simply something referencing the tree's root structure. This is just one of many tables that need to be versioned, but this one serves as a good example for most cases. There is a requirement to version to any changes to the name and/or the tree 'layout' of the Structure table. Previous versions should always be available. There seems to be a few possibilities to tackle this issue, like copying the entire structure, but most approaches causes one to 'loose' referential integrity. Example if one followed this approach, one would have to make a duplicate of the 'Something' record, given that the root structure will be a new record, and have a new ID. Other avenues of possible solutions are looking into how Wiki's handle this or go a lot further and look how proper version control systems work. Currently, I feel a bit clueless how to proceed on this in a generic way. Any ideas will be greatly appreciated. Thanks leppie

    Read the article

  • Cryptic Erlang Errors

    - by Jim
    Okay so I started learning erlang recently but am baffled by the errors it keeps returning. I made a bunch of changes but I keep getting errors. The syntax is correct as far as I can tell but clearly I'm doing something wrong. Have a look... -module(pidprint). -export([start/0]). dostuff([]) - receive begin - io:format("~p~n", [This is a Success]) end. sender([N]) - N ! begin, io:format("~p~n", [N]). start() - StuffPid = spawn(pidprint, dostuff, []), spawn(pidprint, sender, [StuffPid]). Basically I want to compile the script, call start, spawn the "dostuff" process, pass its process identifier to the "sender" process, which then prints it out. Finally I want to send a the atom "begin" to the "dostuff" process using the process identifier initially passed into sender when I spawned it. The errors I keep getting occur when I try to use c() to compile the script. Here they are.. ./pidprint.erl:6: syntax error before: '-' ./pidprint.erl:11: syntax error before: ',' What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Python modules not updating after restarting the main module.

    - by Ian
    I've recently come back to a project having had to stop for about 6 months, and after reinstalling my operating system and coming back to it I'm having all kinds of crazy things happen. I made sure to install the same version(2.6) of python that I was using before. It started by giving me strange tkinter error that I hadn't had trouble with before, the program is relatively simple and the 2 or 3 bugs that were left when i quit, I had documented and weren't related to the interface. Things got even weirder when the same error would pop up even after I had removed the offending section of code. In fact, the traceback pointed to a line that didn't even exist in the module it was referencing, eg: line 262 when the module was only 200 lines long. After just starting a completely new file for the main module and copy/pasting it finally recognized that the offending code was gone and I stopped getting the error only to find that any updates to the code I made in another module didn't show up when I restarted the program through the shell. (I didn't forget to save.) After fiddling with this, of course, the old interface error came back, only in a different section of code that had been working previously. In fact, if I revert back to the files I had six months ago, the program works fine. As soon as I change anything in the main module, however, the interface bug comes back. Here's the original error: Exception in Tkinter callback Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Python26\lib\lib-tk\Tkinter.py", line 1410, in __call__ return self.func(*args) File "C:\PyStuff\interface.py", line 202, in dispOne __main__.top.destroy() File "C:\Python26\lib\lib-tk\Tkinter.py", line 1938, in destroy self.tk.call('destroy', self._w) TclError: can't invoke "destroy" command: application has been destroyed I'm guessing something else is going on here other than my own poor programming. Anyone have any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Android Cursor strange behaviour

    - by sandis
    After many houres of bug searching in a big app, I have finally tracked down the bug. This logging captures the problem: Log.d(TAG,"buildList, DBresult.getInt(1): "+DBresult.getInt(1)); Log.d(TAG,"buildList, DBresult.getString(1): "+DBresult.getString(1)); Log.d(TAG,"buildList, DBresult.getInt(4): "+DBresult.getInt(4)); Log.d(TAG,"buildList, DBresult.getString(4): "+DBresult.getString(4)); The resulting output: 05-06 11:11:20.123: DEBUG/TodoList(18943): buildList, DBresult.getInt(1): 0 05-06 11:11:20.123: DEBUG/TodoList(18943): buildList, DBresult.getString(1): false 05-06 11:11:20.123: DEBUG/TodoList(18943): buildList, DBresult.getInt(4): 0 05-06 11:11:20.123: DEBUG/TodoList(18943): buildList, DBresult.getString(4): true There are no backgroung threads running. As you can see the problem is that '0' is interpreted as false on one occasion, and as true on another. Since I am completely lost on how this can happen, I dont know how to proceed. What could possibly result in such a behaviour? Both the columns are of the type "boolean", i.e a numeric in sqlite. Unfortunately the string returned is the correct value, while the integer is always 0. If I export the database to my computer and check it with SQlite Administrator I can see that the values are correctly set, it is only the getInt()-function that always returns 0. I know for a fact that this works in other apps I have coded, and I dont know why this has stopped working. I have tried compiling the code under 2.0, 2.0.1 and 2.1, and it always appears. I can make my app runnable again by getting boolean values like this: myBool= (DBresult.getString(0).equals("true")); but that is both ugly and not optimized. Any suggestions on what is causing this behaviour is welcome. Cheers,

    Read the article

  • Modifying SQL Database on Shared Hosting

    - by apocalypse9
    I have a live database on a shared hosting server. I am making some major changes to my site's code and I would like to fix some stupid mistakes I made in initially designing the database. These changes involve altering the size of a large number of fields, and enforcing referential integrity between tables properly. I would like to make the changes on both my local test server and the remote server if possible. I should note that while I'm fairly comfortable with writing complex queries to handle data, I have very little experience modifying database structure without a graphical interface. I can access the remote database in the visual studio database explorer but I can not use that for anything other than data manipulation. I installed Sql Management Studio express last night and after 40+ crashes I gave up - I couldn't even patch the damn thing. The remote server is SQL 2005 / The MyLittleAdmin web interface is available. So my question is what is the best way to accomplish these changes. Is there a graphical interface I can use on the remote server? If not is there an easy way to copy the database to my local machine, fix it, and re upload? Finally if none of the above are viable does anyone have links to a decent info on fixing referential integrity via query? Sorry for the somewhat general question - I feel like I am making this far harder than it should be but after searching / trying all night i haven't gotten anywhere. Thanks in advance for the help. I really appreciate it. ...Also does anyone have a time machine I can borrow- I need to go kick my past self's ass for this.

    Read the article

  • What is happening in Crockford's object creation technique?

    - by Chris Noe
    There are only 3 lines of code, and yet I'm having trouble fully grasping this: Object.create = function (o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); }; newObject = Object.create(oldObject); (from Prototypal Inheritance) 1) Object.create() starts out by creating an empty function called F. I'm thinking that a function is a kind of object. Where is this F object being stored? Globally I guess. 2) Next our oldObject, passed in as o, becomes the prototype of function F. Function (i.e., object) F now "inherits" from our oldObject, in the sense that name resolution will route through it. Good, but I'm curious what the default prototype is for an object, Object? Is that also true for a function-object? 3) Finally, F is instantiated and returned, becoming our newObject. Is the "new" operation strictly necessary here? Doesn't F already provide what we need, or is there a critical difference between function-objects and non-function-objects? Clearly it won't be possible to have a constructor function using this technique. What happens the next time Object.create() is called? Is global function F overwritten? Surely it is not reused, because that would alter previously configured objects. And what happens if multiple threads call Object.create(), is there any sort of synchronization to prevent race conditions on F?

    Read the article

  • error while reading Excel sheet

    - by Lalit
    Hi, I have code to read Excel from c3 language : DataTable dtChildrenData = new DataTable(); OdbcConnection oConn = null; try { if (File.Exists(strSheetPath)) { oConn = new OdbcConnection(); oConn.ConnectionString = @"DSN=Excel Files;DBQ=" + strSheetPath + @";DriverId=1046;FIL=excel 12.0;MaxBufferSize=2048;PageTimeout=5;"; OdbcCommand oComm = new OdbcCommand(); oComm.Connection = oConn; oComm.CommandText = "Select * From [Sheet1$]"; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); OdbcDataAdapter oAdapter = new OdbcDataAdapter(oComm); oConn.Open(); oAdapter.Fill(ds); dtChildrenData = ds.Tables[0]; } } finally { oConn.Close(); } return dtChildrenData; But getting this error when i deploy the web application on IIS. Wherere as it is running fine locally. ERROR [IM002] [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified How to solve this. Please let me know if any information required to answer this question (about configuration)

    Read the article

  • Why is BorderLayout calling setSize() and setBounds()?

    - by ags
    I'm trying to get my head around proper use of the different LayoutManagers to make my GUI design skills more efficient and effective. For me, that usually requires a detailed understanding of what is going on under the hood. I've found some good discussion of the interaction and consequences of a Container using BorderLayout containing a Container using FlowLayout. I understand it for the most part, but wanted to confirm my mental model and to do so I am looking at the code for BorderLayout. In the code snippet below taken from BorderLayout.layoutContainer(), note the calls to the child Component's setSize() method followed by setBounds(). Looking at the source for these methods of Component, setSize() actually calls setBounds() with the current values for Component.x and Component.y. Why is this done (and not entirely redudant?) Doesn't the setBounds() call completely overwrite the results of the setSize() call? if ((c=getChild(NORTH,ltr)) != null) { c.setSize(right - left, c.height); Dimension d = c.getPreferredSize(); c.setBounds(left, top, right - left, d.height); top += d.height + vgap; } I'm also tring to understand where/when the child Component's size is initially set (before the LayoutManager.layoutContainer() method is called). Finally, this post itself raises a "meta-question": in a situation like this, where the source is available elsewhere, is the accepteed protocol to include the entire method? Or some other way to make it easier for folks to participate in the thread? Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173  | Next Page >