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  • Vertically and horizontally align

    - by user1760649
    My problem is the following: I've vertically centered a div. However, I'd like to center another div horizontally. The problem is that I don't manage to center it horizontally. Here are my (X)HTML and CSS (X)HTML: <body> <div id="strut"></div> <div id="page"> <div id="inner_page"> <h1>Galidie "jQzz" Clément</h1> </div> </div> CSS: html, body { margin: 0; padding: 0; height: 100%; } #strut, #page { display: inline-block; vertical-align: middle; } #strut { height: 100%; } #page { border: 1px solid #c00; } #inner_page { width: 750px; margin: 0 auto; background-color: #c00; } h1 { text-align: center; margin: 0; } strut is the marker for vertically center an element. page is centered vertically. The idea is to try to center horizontally the inner_page block. Should I use absolute position? Or anything else? Did I choose the good method? Thank for your futur help.

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  • HTML5 Flash 100% IE8 and Firefox

    - by Jason
    I need to have a flash intro for my website (a requirement from my teacher). I created the intro and embedded it into my page. I takes up the entire screen in both Chrome and Chromium. In IE8, Firefox and Opera the size is incorrect. What am I doing wrong? <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Refresh" content="3; url=template.htm"> <meta charset="UTF-8"> <title>Com Tech Projects | Jason Cook</title> </head> <body style="background: black;"> <embed style="height: 100%; width: 100%;" src="Flash/Introv6.swf"/> </body> </html>

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  • How can I access a parent DOM from an iframe on a different domain?

    - by Dexter
    I have a website and my domain is registered through Network Solutions. I'm using their Web Forwarding feature which allows me to "mask" my domain so that when a user visits http://lucasmccoy.com they are actually seeing http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/ through an HTML frame. The advantages of this are that the address bar still shows http://lucasmccoy.com/. The disadvantages are that I cannot directly edit the HTML page in which the frame is owned. For example, I cannot change the page title or favicon. I have tried doing it like so: $(function() { parent.document.title = 'Lucas McCoy'; }); But of course this gives me a JavaScript error: Unsafe JavaScript attempt to access frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.com/ from frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/. Domains, protocols and ports must match. I looked at this question attempting to do the same thing except the OP has access to the other pages HTML whereas I do not. Is there anyway in JavaScript/jQuery to make a cross-domain request to the DOM when you don't have access to that domain? Or is this something browsers just will not let happen for security reasons.

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  • Rails find_or_create by more than one attribute?

    - by tybro0103
    There is a handy dynamic attribute in active-record called find_or_create_by: Model.find_or_create_by_<attribute>(:<attribute> => "") But what if I need to find_or_create by more than one attribute? Say I have a model to handle a M:M relationship between Group and Member called GroupMember. I could have many instances where member_id = 4, but I don't ever want more than once instance where member_id = 4 and group_id = 7. I'm trying to figure out if it's possible to do something like this: GroupMember.find_or_create(:member_id => 4, :group_id => 7) I realize there may be better ways to handle this, but I like the convenience of the idea of find_or_create.

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  • "Access is denied" by executing .hta file with JScript on Windows XP x64

    - by mem64k
    I have a simple HTML (as HTA) application that shows strange behavior on Windows XP x64 machine. I getting periodically (not every time) error message "Access is denied." when i start the application. The same application on Windows XP 32bit runs just fine... Does somebody has any idea or explanation? Error message: Line: 18 Char: 6 Error: Access is denied. Code: 0 URL: file:///D:/test_j.hta Here is the code of my "test_j.hta": <html> <head> <title>Test J</title> <HTA:APPLICATION ID="objTestJ" APPLICATIONNAME="TestJ" SCROLL="no" SINGLEINSTANCE="yes" WINDOWSTATE="normal" > <script language="JScript"> function main() { //window.alert("test"); window.resizeTo(500, 300); } function OnExit() { window.close(); } </script> </head> <body onload="main()"> <input type="button" value="Exit" name="Exit" onClick="OnExit()" title="Exit"> </body> </html>

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  • How add class='active' to html menu with php

    - by meow
    Hello I want to put my html navigation in a separate php file so when I need to edit it, I only have to edit it once. The problem starts when I want to add the class active to the active page. I've got three pages and one common file. common.php : <?php $nav = <<<EOD <div id="nav"> <ul> <li><a <? if($page == 'one'): ?> class="active"<? endif ?> href="index.php">Tab1</a>/</li> <li><a href="two.php">Tab2</a></li> <li><a href="three.php">Tab3</a></li> </ul> </div> EOD; ?> index.php : All three pages are identical except their $page is different on each page. <?php $page = 'one'; require_once('common.php'); ?> <html> <head></head> <body> <?php echo $nav; ?> </body> </html> This simply won't work unless I put my nav on each page, but then the whole purpose of separating the nav from all pages is ruined. Is what I want to accomplish even possible? What am I doing wrong? Thanks EDIT: When doing this, the php code inside the li don't seem to run, it's just being printed as if it was html

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  • how do I call a javacript function every 60 seconds?

    - by William
    So I'm trying to work on a Canvas demo, and I want this square to move from one side to the other, but I can't figure out how to call javascript in a way that repeats every 60 seconds. Here's what I got so far: <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>Canvas test</title> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <link href="/bms/style.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <style> body { text-align: center; background-color: #000000;} canvas{ background-color: #ffffff;} </style> <script type="text/javascript"> var x = 50; var y = 250; function update(){ draw(); x = x + 5; } function draw(){ var canvas = document.getElementById('screen1'); if (canvas.getContext){ var ctx = canvas.getContext('2d'); ctx.fillStyle = 'rgb(236,138,68)'; ctx.fillRect(x,y,24,24); } } </script> </head> <body onLoad="setTimeout(update(), 0);"> <canvas id="screen1" width="500" height="500"></canvas> </body> </html>

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  • NSString sizeWithAttributes: Inaccuracy

    - by dave-gennel
    I want to know the width of an NSString displayed on the screen in pixels. So I can fit an NSTextField its bounds to be exactly the length of the string itself. So I used IB's "Label" NSTextField and for those who don't know what I mean, I got a label with title "Label", font "Lucida Grande 13px", not selectable, not editable, regular size, no background and according to IB its width is 38px wide. If I want to get its width programatically I use [@"Label" sizeWithAttributes: [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject: [NSFont fontWithName: @"Lucida Grande" size: 13] forKey: NSFontAttributeName]].width Which will give me 33.293457 . So that's about 5 px of the real width..

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  • Object validator - is this good design?

    - by neo2862
    I'm working on a project where the API methods I write have to return different "views" of domain objects, like this: namespace View.Product { public class SearchResult : View { public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } } public class Profile : View { public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } [UseValidationRuleset("FreeText")] public string Description { get; set; } [SuppressValidation] public string Comment { get; set; } } } These are also the arguments of setter methods in the API which have to be validated before storing them in the DB. I wrote an object validator that lets the user define validation rulesets in an XML file and checks if an object conforms to those rules: [Validatable] public class View { [SuppressValidation] public ValidationError[] ValidationErrors { get { return Validator.Validate(this); } } } public static class Validator { private static Dictionary<string, Ruleset> Rulesets; static Validator() { // read rulesets from xml } public static ValidationError[] Validate(object obj) { // check if obj is decorated with ValidatableAttribute // if not, return an empty array (successful validation) // iterate over the properties of obj // - if the property is decorated with SuppressValidationAttribute, // continue // - if it is decorated with UseValidationRulesetAttribute, // use the ruleset specified to call // Validate(object value, string rulesetName, string FieldName) // - otherwise, get the name of the property using reflection and // use that as the ruleset name } private static List<ValidationError> Validate(object obj, string fieldName, string rulesetName) { // check if the ruleset exists, if not, throw exception // call the ruleset's Validate method and return the results } } public class Ruleset { public Type Type { get; set; } public Rule[] Rules { get; set; } public List<ValidationError> Validate(object property, string propertyName) { // check if property is of type Type // if not, throw exception // iterate over the Rules and call their Validate methods // return a list of their return values } } public abstract class Rule { public Type Type { get; protected set; } public abstract ValidationError Validate(object value, string propertyName); } public class StringRegexRule : Rule { public string Regex { get; set; } public StringRegexRule() { Type = typeof(string); } public override ValidationError Validate(object value, string propertyName) { // see if Regex matches value and return // null or a ValidationError } } Phew... Thanks for reading all of this. I've already implemented it and it works nicely, and I'm planning to extend it to validate the contents of IEnumerable fields and other fields that are Validatable. What I'm particularly concerned about is that if no ruleset is specified, the validator tries to use the name of the property as the ruleset name. (If you don't want that behavior, you can use [SuppressValidation].) This makes the code much less cluttered (no need to use [UseValidationRuleset("something")] on every single property) but it somehow doesn't feel right. I can't decide if it's awful or awesome. What do you think? Any suggestions on the other parts of this design are welcome too. I'm not very experienced and I'm grateful for any help. Also, is "Validatable" a good name? To me, it sounds pretty weird but I'm not a native English speaker.

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  • Semantically correct nested anchors

    - by Blackie123
    I am working on a web applicaton. And what we also create is something that could be described as inline editing. Just to portray thing I am trying to solve I use example of Facebook post. You have post like. Steve Jobs added 5 new photos Steve Jobs is link that redirects to his profile so in HTML, that would be: <div class="post-block"> <p><a href="stevejobs/" title="#">Steve Jobs</a> added 5 new photos.<p> </div> But what I want is the whole post "block" to be clickable although I want only that name to appear to be link. Normally in HTML logic would say to to this: <a href="stevejobs/" title="#"><div class="post-block"> <p><a href="stevejobs/" title="#">Steve Jobs</a> added 5 new photos.<p> </div></a> But this isn't semantically correct. Quick look to HTML 4.01 or any other standard says something like this: Links and anchors defined by the A element must not be nested; an A element must not contain any other A elements. How to create it semantically correct other than using javascript and defining div:hover state for the whole "div anchor"?

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  • Calling jQuery method from onClick attribute in HTML

    - by Russell
    I am relatively new to implementing JQuery throughout an entire system, and I am enjoying the opportunity. I have come across one issue I would love to find the correct resolve for. Here is a simple case example of what I want to do: I have a button on a page, and on the click event I want to call a jquery function I have defined. Here is the code I have used to define my method (Page.js): (function($) { $.fn.MessageBox = function(msg) { alert(msg); }; }); And here is my HTML page: <HTML> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="C:\Sandpit\jQueryTest\jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script language="javascript" src="Page.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="Title">Welcome!</div> <input type="button" value="ahaha" onclick="$().MessageBox('msg');" /> </body> </HTML> (The above code displays the button, but clicking does nothing.) I am aware I could add the click event in the document ready event, however it seems more maintainable to put events in the HTML element instead. However I have not found a way to do this. Is there a way to call a jquery function on a button element (or any input element)? Or is there a better way to do this? Thanks

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  • W3 xHTML Validation Errors on jQuery code!

    - by Chris
    I have some jQuery code that, without it in the document it passes validation fine, but with it in it causes errors. The code in question is here: $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "data.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { //Update error info errors = $(xml).find("Errors").find("*").filter(function () { return $(this).children().length === 0; }); if (errors.length == 0) { statuscontent = "<img src='/web/resources/graphics/accept.png' alt='' /> System OK"; } else { statuscontent = "<img src='/web/resources/graphics/exclamation.png' alt='' /> "+errors.length+" System error"+(errors.length>1?"s":""); } $("#top-bar-systemstatus a").html(statuscontent); //Update timestamp $("#top-bar-timestamp").html($(xml).find("Timestamp").text()); //Update storename $("#top-bar-storename").html("Store: "+$(xml).find("StoreName").text()); } }); There are loads of other jQuery code on the page which all works fine and causes no errors so I cannot quite understand what is wrong with this. The page isn't "live" so cannot provide a link to it unfortunately. The error it lists is document type does not allow element "img" here And the line of code it points to is here: statuscontent = "<img src='/web/resources/graphics/accept.png' alt='' /> System OK"; It also has an issue with the next assignment to statuscontent

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  • ROR accepts_nested_attributes_for one to many relationship with selection

    - by bilash.saha
    I have two models Doctors and Questions like the follwong: Doctor Model class Doctor < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :questions has_many :brands accepts_nested_attributes_for :questions end Question model class Question < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :discipline belongs_to :doctor belongs_to :brand end Now you can clearly see that Doctor has many questions and brands and question belongs to doctor and brand.I want to add previously saved question to a doctor from doctors edit page. I want to remove them as well.How can I proceed ? I tried like : <%= form.fields_for :questions, question,:child_index => (question.new_record? ? "index_to_replace_with_js" : nil) do |question_form| %> <table> <tr> <td> <div class="label">Select Question</div> <%= question_form.collection_select :id, Question.all, :id, :title ,{:include_blank => true } %> </td> </tr> </table> but this doesnot works for me.Can you give me a solution with proper example ?

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  • Redirect from Attribute

    - by pistacchio
    How can I create an attribute for an ASP.NET page that redirects to another page? [MyAttribute()] public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { base.OnLoad(e); } } [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.All)] public class MyAttribute: Attribute { public MyAttribute() { if (// something) { // I need to redirect to some page here } } }

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  • Working with custom role in VB.NET win application

    - by fireBand
    Hi, I am looking for ways to implement custom user-roles in windows application with vb.net. I got a database table called Roles with Administrator and User entries. User cannot see some of the form data. In ASP.NET MVC we can do like. [Authorize(Roles = "Administrator")] public function GetAccount() as Array End Function If it could be done this way that would be great. Thanks in advance.

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  • JQuery: how to store records id for data from ajax query in dynamicly created html elements

    - by grapkulec
    Probably question title is rather cryptic but I will try to explain myself here so please bare with me :) Let's assume this configuration: server-side is PHP application responding for requests with data (list of items, single item details, etc.) in json format client-side is JQuery application sending ajax request to that PHP app and creating html content corresponding with received data So, for example: client requests "list of all animals with names staring with 'A'", gets the json response from server, and for every "animal" creates some html gizmo like div with animal description or something like that. It doesn't really matter what html element it will be but it has to point exactly to specific record by "containing" id of that record. And here is my dilemma: is it good solution to use "id" property for that? So it would be like: <div id="10" class="animal"> <p> This is animal of very mysterious kind... </p> </div> <div id="11" class="animal"> <p> And this one is very common to our country... </p> </div> where id="10" is of course indication that this is representation of record with id = 10. Or maybe I should store this record id in some custom made tag like <record_id>10</record_id> and leave an "id" strictly for what it was meant to be (css selector)? I need that record id for further stuff like updating database with some user input or deleting some of "animals" or creating new ones or anything that will be needed. All manipulations will be done with JQuery and ajax requests and responses will be visualized also with dynamic creation of html interface. I'm sure that somebody had to deal with that kind of stuff before so I would be grateful for some tips on that topic.

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  • addAttributeToFilter and OR condition in Magento's Collection

    - by ÉricP
    Hi, I'd like to select products depending on several criteria from different attribute. I know how to user $collection->addAttributeToFilter('someattribute', array('like' => '%')); But I'd like to use several attribute for OR condition. Like: $collection->addAttributeToFilter('someattribute', array('like' => 'value'));` OR $collection->addAttributeToFilter('otherattribute', array('like' => 'value'));` To get products which either 'someattribute' OR 'otherattribute' set to 'value' Is it possible?

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  • Web development tool that can comprehend the concept of more than one language in a file at once

    - by thecoshman
    I currently use notepad++ on windows or gedit on ubuntu. Both of them work great with code highlighting and hinting etc. But both of them suffer from a huge flaw. I am yet to find a code editor that can handle this concept: <?php // ooh, look I am doing some php ?><a onclick="alert('hay, some javascript in here now!')"> This link is HTML?!</a> <?PHP echo("NOW we have some php as well!"); ?> At the moment, I just have to settle for the one language. I want something that can think of a that text as a default as HTML, but notice when sections are PHP. I want those sections of PHP to have there own code hinting and highlighting. Even more, lets say in an 'if else' I exit PHP, write some HTML then back into PHP, I want it to work out how the braces ( '{' and '}' ) should match up and let me know if I have missed one. I want the sections of in-line JavaScript to be picked up as such. I want all of these languages to get checked for syntax! Damn it, I want to tool that understands more than one language at once!

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  • What is the .NET attribuet to not compile a method is release mode

    - by Russ
    I know that if I have a block of code I don't want compiled when in release mode I can wrap that code block in: #if DEBUG while(true) { Console.WriteLine("StackOverflow rules"); } #endif This will keep this code block from compiling in any mode other than DEBUG. I know there is an attribute that can be placed on an entire method that will do that same, but for the life of me I can't remember what that attribute is. I believe that it’s down the System.Diagnostics namespace, but I'm not really sure. BTW: I'm using .NET 4, but I know this attribute existed in .NET 2 because I have used in in old projects. Thanks

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  • How to open links in new window ONLY IF the check box is checked

    - by Travis
    Here is what i have so far. I have it so they open in new windows, but i want it only if the check box is checked... <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script> function new() { if ( document.getElementById('checkbox').checked ) window.open( 'y', 'n', 't', 'New Window' ); } else { break; } var OpenNew = document.getElementById('opennew'); OpenNew.addEventListener('click', OpenWin, false ); </script> </head> <body> <p> <form name="test"> <p>Open link in a new window &nbsp; <input type="checkbox" id="checkbox" name="check" /></p> </form> </p> <p> <h2>My favorite Websites to visit</h2> <a href="http://www.youtube.com" target="new" id="y">Youtube</a><br /> <a href="http://www.newegg.com" target="new" id="n">Newegg</a><br /> <a href="http://www.twitch.tv" target="new" id="t">Twitch.tv</a><br /> </p> </body> </html> I am unsure how to actually do the if statement if it is checked then open. It does currently open in a new tab.. i just need it to be only when its checked. Any help with this will be greatly appreciated! Thanks!

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  • Magento: Attribute always returns default value in catalog view, works fine in product view

    - by colinodell
    I've created a new Yes/No attribute for products. I've extended the Product model to do some custom logic and the custom functions are working everywhere. When I initially tried getting the custom attribute value, I ran into some issue. Magento wasn't loading it for me, so calls to $product-getMyAttributeName() did nothing. In the product views, I got it working with this additional function: public function getAttrVal($attr_name) { return $this->getResource()->getAttribute($attr_name)->getFrontend()->getValue($this); } So that worked great when viewing a product on the frontend. It would fetch the assigned value if set, or the default if not. When I view any Category (grid of all products in that category), the same exact code is being executed. But my getAttrVal() function always returns the default value, even if I've explicitly set this value for my product. I can't, for the life of me, figure out why the attribute loads correctly in the Product view but the Category view always grabs the default value, despite running the same exact code. Any thoughts?

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  • How can I retrieve the instance of an attribute's associated object?

    - by Brandon Linton
    I'm writing a PropertiesMustMatch validation attribute that can take a string property name as a parameter. I'd like it to find the corresponding property by name on that object and do a basic equality comparison. What's the best way to access this through reflection? Also, I checked out the Validation application block in the Enterprise Library and decided its PropertyComparisonValidator was way too intense for what we need.

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