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• How can I force a ListView with a custom panel to re-measure when the ListView width goes below the

  - by Scott Whitlock

  Sorry for the long winded question (I'm including background here). If you just want the question, go to the end. I have a ListView with a custom Panel implementation that I'm using to implement something similar to a WrapPanel, but not quite. I'm overriding the MeasureOverride and ArrangeOverride methods in the custom panel. If I do the naive implementation of a WrapPanel in the MeasureOverride method it doesn't work when the ListView is resized. Let's say the custom panel does a measure and the constraint is a width of 100 and let's say I have 3 items that are 40 wide each. The naive approach is to return a size of 80,80 but when I resize the window that the ListView is in, down to say 75, it just turns on the horizontal scrollbar and never calls measure or arrange again (it does keep measuring and arranging if the width is greater than 80). To get around this, I hard coded the measurement to only have a width of the widest item. Then in the arrange, it gives me more space than I asked for and I use as much horizontal space as I can before wrapping. If I resize the window smaller than the smallest item in the ListView, then it turns on the scrollbar, which is great. Unfortunately this is causing a big problem when I have one of these ListViews with a custom panel nested inside of another one. The outside one works ok, but I can't get the inside one to "take as much as it needs". It always sizes to the smallest item, and the only way around it is to set the MinWidth to be something greater than zero. Anyway, stepping back for a second, I think the real way to fix this is to go back to the Naive implementation of the WrapPanel but force it to re-measure when the ListView width goes below the Size I previously returned as a measurement. That should solve my problem with the nested one. So, that's my question: I have a ListView with a custom panel If I return a measurement width on the panel and the ListView is resized to less than that width, it stops calling MeasureOverride How can I get it to continue calling MeasureOverride?

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• Nested parsers in happy / infinite loop?

  - by McManiaC

  I'm trying to write a parser for a simple markup language with happy. Currently, I'm having some issues with infinit loops and nested elements. My markup language basicly consists of two elements, one for "normal" text and one for bold/emphasized text. data Markup = MarkupText String | MarkupEmph [Markup] For example, a text like Foo *bar* should get parsed as [MarkupText "Foo ", MarkupEmph [MarkupText "bar"]]. Lexing of that example works fine, but the parsing it results in an infinite loop - and I can't see why. This is my current approach: -- The main parser: Parsing a list of "Markup" Markups :: { [Markup] } : Markups Markup { $1 ++ [$2] } | Markup { [$1] } -- One single markup element Markup :: { Markup } : '*' Markups1 '*' { MarkupEmph $2 } | Markup1 { $1 } -- The nested list inside *..* Markups1 :: { [Markup] } : Markups1 Markup1 { $1 ++ [$2] } | Markup1 { [$1] } -- Markup which is always available: Markup1 :: { Markup } : String { MarkupText $1 } What's wrong with that approach? How could the be resolved? Update: Sorry. Lexing wasn't working as expected. The infinit loop was inside the lexer. Sorry. :) Update 2: On request, I'm using this as lexer: lexer :: String -> [Token] lexer [] = [] lexer str@(c:cs) | c == '*' = TokenSymbol "*" : lexer cs -- ...more rules... | otherwise = TokenString val : lexer rest where (val, rest) = span isValidChar str isValidChar = (/= '*') The infinit recursion occured because I had lexer str instead of lexer cs in that first rule for '*'. Didn't see it because my actual code was a bit more complex. :)

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• Spring 3.0 vs J2EE 6.0

  - by StudiousJoseph

  Hi everybody, I'm confronted with a situation... I've been asked to give an advise regarding which approach to take, in terms of J2EE development between Spring 3.0 and J2EE 6.0. I was, and still am, a promoter of Spring 2.5 over classic J2EE 5 development, specially with JBoss, I even migrated old apps to Spring and influenced the re-definition of the development policy here to include Spring specific APIs, and helped the development of a strategic plan to foster more lightweight solutions like Spring + Tomcat, instead of the heavier ones of JBoss, right now, we're using JBoss merely as a Web container, having what i call the "container inside the container paradox", that is, having Spring apps, with most of its APIs, running inside JBoss, So we're in the process of migrating to tomcat. However, with the coming of J2EE 6.0 many features, that made Spring attractive at that time, easy deployment, less-coupling, even some sort of D.I, etc, seems to have been mimicked, in one way or the other. JSF 2.0, JPA 2.0, WebBeans, WebProfiles, etc. So, the question goes... From your point of view, how save, and logical, it is to continue to invest in a non-standard J2EE development framework like Spring given the new perspectives offered by J2EE 6.0? Can we talk about maybe 3 or 4 more years of Spring development, or do you recommend early adoption of J2EE 6.0 APIs and it's practices? I'll appreciate any insights with this...

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• Downloading javascript Without Blocking

  - by doug

  The context: My question relates to improving web-page loading performance, and in particular the effect that javascript has on page-loading (resources/elements below the script are blocked from downloading/rendering). This problem is usually avoided/mitigated by placing the scripts at the bottom (eg, just before the tag). The code i am looking at is for web analytics. Placing it at the bottom reduces its accuracy; and because this script has no effect on the page's content, ie, it's not re-writing any part of the page--i want to move it inside the head. Just how to do that without ruining page-loading performance is the crux. From my research, i've found six techniques (w/ support among all or most of the major browsers) for downloading scripts so that they don't block down-page content from loading/rendering: (i) XHR + eval(); (ii) XHR + 'inject'; (iii) download the HTML-wrapped script as in iFrame; (iv) setting the script tag's 'async' flag to 'TRUE' (HTML 5 only); (v) setting the script tag's 'defer' attribute; and (vi) 'Script DOM Element'. It's the last of these i don't understand. The javascript to implement the pattern (vi) is: (function() { var q1 = document.createElement('script'); q1.src = 'http://www.my_site.com/q1.js' document.documentElement.firstChild.appendChild(q1) })(); Seems simple enough: inside this anonymous function, a script element is created, its 'src' element is set to it's location, then the script element is added to the DOM. But while each line is clear, it's still not clear to me how exactly this pattern allows script loading without blocking down-page elements/resources from rendering/loading?

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• JQuery UI Tabs - replace tab and contents

  - by Tauren

  What is the best way to replace the currently selected tab and its contents? The content is dynamically generated with jquery, not loaded via a URL. I need to do this from outside of any tab code or tab event handler (show, add, etc.). There is a link elsewhere on the page that should do the following when clicked: Change the tab's title Change the tab's className Clear out all elements of the tabcontent div Change the tabcontent div's className Generate new content inside the tabcontent div Note that the only reference this link's click() handler has is to the JQuery tabs object ($Tabs). I can get the selected tab with $Tabs.tabs('option','selected'). But how can I get a reference to the selected tab's tab and panel? Inside of a jquery tab handler (show, add, etc.), I have access to ui.tab and ui.panel, but is there a way to get them from a tabs option? Would it be better to simply remove the currently selected tab and then add a new tab in the same index location? I'd have to put the code to generate the tab content into the add() handler then I suppose.

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• Execute binary from memory in C# .net with binary protected from a 3rd party software

  - by NoobTom

  i've the following scenario: i've a C# application.exe i pack application.exe inside TheMida, a software anti-piracy/reverse engineering. i encrypt application.exe with aes256. (i wrote my own aes encryption/decryption and it is working) Now, when i want to execute my application i do the following: decrypt application.exe in memory execute the application.exe with the following code: BinaryReader br = new BinaryReader(decOutput); byte[] bin = br.ReadBytes(Convert.ToInt32(decOutput.Length)); decOutput.Close(); br.Close(); // load the bytes into Assembly Assembly a = Assembly.Load(bin); // search for the Entry Point MethodInfo method = a.EntryPoint; if (method != null) { // create an istance of the Startup form Main method object o = a.CreateInstance(method.Name); // invoke the application starting point method.Invoke(o, null); the application does not execute correctly. Now, the problem i think, is that this method is only to execute .NET executable. Since i packed my application.exe inside TheMida this does not work. Is there a workaround to this situation? Any suggestion? Thank you in advance.

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• Grabbing rows from MySql where current date is in between start date and end date (Check if current date lies between start date and end date)

  - by Jordan Parker

  I'm trying to select from the database to get the "campaigns" that dates fall into the month. So far i've been successful in grabbing rows that starts or ends inside the current month. What I need to do now is select rows that start in one month and ends a few months down the line ( EG: It's the 3rd month in the year, and there's a "campaign" that runs from the 1st month until the 5th. other example There is a "campaign" that runs from 2012 until 2013 ) I'm hoping there is some way to select via MySql all rows in which a capaign may run. If not should I grab all data in the database and only show the ones that run via the current month. I have already made a function that displays all the days inbetween each date inside an array, which is called "dateRange". I've also created another which shows how many days the campaign runs for called "runTime". Select all (Obviously) $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM campaign"); Select Starting This Month $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM campaign WHERE YEAR( START ) = YEAR( CURDATE( ) ) AND MONTH( START ) = MONTH( CURDATE( ) )"); Select Ending This Month $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM campaign WHERE YEAR( END ) = YEAR( CURDATE( ) ) AND MONTH( END ) = MONTH( CURDATE( ) ) LIMIT 0 , 30"); Code sample while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $dateArray = dateRange($row['start'], $row['end']); echo "<h3>" . $row['campname'] . "</h3> Start " . $row['start'] . "<br /> End " . $row['end']; echo runTime($row['start'], $row['end']); print_r($dateArray); } In regards to the dates, MySql database only holds start date and end date of the campaign.

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• Set Custom ASP.NET UserControl variables when its in a Repeater

  - by tnriverfish

  <%@ Register Src="~/Controls/PressFileDownload.ascx" TagName="pfd" TagPrefix="uc1" %> <asp:Repeater id="Repeater1" runat="Server" OnItemDataBound="RPTLayer_OnItemDataBound"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="LBLHeader" Runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:Label> <asp:Image ID="IMGThumb" Runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:Image> <asp:Label ID="LBLBody" Runat="server" class="layerBody"></asp:Label> <uc1:pfd ID="pfd1" runat="server" ShowContainerName="false" ParentContentTypeId="55" /> <asp:Literal ID="litLayerLinks" runat="server"></asp:Literal> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label lbl; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal lit; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Image img; System.Web.UI.WebControls.HyperLink hl; System.Web.UI.UserControl uc; I need to set the ParentItemID variable for the uc1:pdf listed inside the repeater. I thought I should be able to find uc by looking in the e.Item and then setting it somehow. I think this is the part where I'm missing something. uc = (UserControl)e.Item.FindControl("pfd1"); if (uc != null) { uc.Attributes["ParentItemID"] = i.ItemID.ToString(); } Any thoughts would be appreciated. Also tried this with similar results... when I debug inside my usercontrol (pfd1) the parameters I am trying to set have not been set. uc = (UserControl)e.Item.FindControl("pfd1"); if (uc != null) { uc.Attributes.Add("ContainerID", _cid.ToString()); uc.Attributes.Add("ParentItemId", i.ItemID.ToString()); }

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• asp.net 4.0 webforms - how to keep ContentPlaceHolder1_ out of client id's in a simple way?

  - by James Manning

  I'm attempting to introduce master pages to an existing webforms site that's avoided using them because of client id mangling in the past (and me not wanting to deal with the mangling and doing <% foo.ClientID % everywhere :) GOAL: use 'static' id values (whatever is in the server control's id attribute) except for data-bound / repeating controls which would break for those cases and therefore need suffixes or whatever to differentiate (basically, Predictable) Now that the site migrated to ASP.NET 4.0, I first attempted to use ClientIDMode of Static (in the web.config) but that broke too many places doing repeating controls (checkboxes inside gridviews, for instance) since they all resulted with the same id. So, I then tried Predictable (again, just in the web.config) so that the repeating controls wouldn't have conflicting id's, and it works well except that the master page content placeholder (which is indeed a naming container) is still reflecting in the resulting client id's (for instance, ContentPlaceHolder1_someCheckbox). Certainly I could leave the web.config setting as static and then go through all the databound/repeating controls switch them to Predictable, but I'm hoping there's some easier/simpler way to get that effect without having to scatter ClientIDMode attributes in those N number of places (or extend all those databound controls with my own usercontrol that just sets clientidmode, or whatever). I even thought of leaving web.config set to static and doing a master or basepage handler (preinit? not sure if that would work or not) that would go walk Controls with OfType<INamingContainer() (might be a better choice on the type, but that seems like a good starting choice looking at repeater and gridview) and then set those to Predictable so I'd get static for all my 'normal' things outside of repeating controls but not have to deal with static inside things like gridview/repeater/etc. I don't see any way to mark the content placeholder such that it 'opts out' of being included in child id's - setting the ID of the placeholder to empty/blank doesn't work as it's a required attribute :) At that point I figured there was a better/simpler way that I was missing and decided to ask on SO :) Edit: I thought about changing all my 'fetch by id' jquery calls from $('#foo') to fetch_by_id('foo') and then having that function return the 'right one' by checking $('#foo').length and then $('#ContentPlaceHolder1_foo').length (and maybe other patterns) or even just have it return $('#foo, #ContentPlaceHolder1_foo') (again, potentially other patterns) but changing all the places I fetch elements by id seemed pretty ugly too, and I'd like to avoid that abstraction layer if possible to do so easily :)

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• Delphi - Help calling threaded dll function from another thread

  - by cloudstrif3

  I'm using Delphi 2006 and have a bit of a problem with an application I'm developing. I have a form that creates a thread which calls a function that performs a lengthy operation, lets call it LengthyProcess. Inside the LengthyProcess function we also call several Dll functions which also create threads of their own. The problem that I am having is that if I don't use the Synchronize function of my thread to call LengthyProcess the thread stops responding (the main thread is still responding fine). I don't want to use Synchronize because that means the main thread is waiting for LengthyProcess to finish and therefore defeats the purpose of creating a separate thread. I have tracked the problem down to a function inside the dll that creates a thread and then calls WaitFor, this is all done using TThread by the way. WaitFor checks to see if the CurrentThreadID is equal to the MainThreadID and if it is then it will call CheckSychronization, and all is fine. So if we use Synchronize then the CurrentThreadID will equal the MainThreadID however if we do not use Synchronize then of course CurrentThreadID < MainThreadID, and when this happens WaitFor tells the current thread (the thread I created) to wait for the thread created by the DLL and so CheckSynchronization never gets called and my thread ends up waiting forever for the thread created in the dll. I hope this makes sense, sorry I don't know any better way to explain it. Has anyone else had this issue and knows how to solve it please?

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• Keyboard blocking my view

  - by John Smith

  I have a UIView with another UIView inside it. On the inside UIView there is a textbox which I want to fill in. When I try to fill it in the keyboard blocks my view: The UIViewController has the following containerView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:[UIScreen mainScreen].bounds]; self.view=containerView; //The apropriate releases etc are further on... When I touch it, the keyboard comes up as expected, but blocks the textbox I'm trying to fill in. How can I force the view to slide up? The front view OptionsFront * fv = [[OptionsFront alloc] initWithFrame:[UIScreen mainScreen].bounds]; [containerView addSubview:frontView]; In the front view is a subview CGRect bounds = CGRectMake(0.0f, 210.0f, 280.0f, 130.0f); sv = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:bounds]; [self addSubview:sv]; //added to frontView In sv is a textbox near the botton: rect = CGRectMake(70.0f, 20.0f, 100.0f, 27.0f); cf = [self createTextField_Rounded:rect holder:@"+ve"]; [sv addSubview:cf]; So cf happens to be near the bottom of the page. I expected that when I select it, the whole display would move up, but the keyboard just moves up and blocks it. What can I do? Appendix: - (UITextField *)createTextField_Rounded:(CGRect) frame holder:(NSString *) ph { UITextField *returnTextField = [[UITextField alloc] initWithFrame:frame]; returnTextField.borderStyle = UITextBorderStyleRoundedRect; returnTextField.textColor = [UIColor blackColor]; returnTextField.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize:17.0]; returnTextField.delegate = self; returnTextField.keyboardType = UIKeyboardTypeNumbersAndPunctuation; returnTextField.returnKeyType = UIReturnKeyDone; returnTextField.clearButtonMode = UITextFieldViewModeWhileEditing; return returnTextField; }

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• Indentation control while developing a small python like language

  - by sap

  Hello, I'm developing a small python like language using flex, byacc (for lexical and parsing) and C++, but i have a few questions regarding scope control. just as python it uses white spaces (or tabs) for indentation, not only that but i want to implement index breaking like for instance if you type "break 2" inside a while loop that's inside another while loop it would not only break from the last one but from the first loop as well (hence the number 2 after break) and so on. example: while 1 while 1 break 2 'hello world'!! #will never reach this. "!!" outputs with a newline end 'hello world again'!! #also will never reach this. again "!!" used for cout end #after break 2 it would jump right here but since I don't have an "anti" tab character to check when a scope ends (like C for example i would just use the '}' char) i was wondering if this method would the the best: I would define a global variable, like "int tabIndex" on my yacc file that i would access in my lex file using extern. then every time i find a tab character on my lex file i would increment that variable by 1. when parsing on my yacc file if i find a "break" keyword i would decrement by the amount typed after it from the tabIndex variable, and when i reach and EOF after compiling and i get a tabIndex != 0 i would output compilation error. now the problem is, whats the best way to see if the indentation got reduced, should i read \b (backspace) chars from lex and then reduce the tabIndex variable (when the user doesn't use break)? another method to achieve this? also just another small question, i want every executable to have its starting point on the function called start() should i hardcode this onto my yacc file? sorry for the long question any help is greatly appreciated. also if someone can provide an yacc file for python would be nice as a guideline (tried looking on Google and had no luck). thanks in advance.

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• String Length Evaluating Incorrectly

  - by Justin R.

  My coworker and I are debugging an issue in a WCF service he's working on where a string's length isn't being evaluated correctly. He is running this method to unit test a method in his WCF service: // Unit test method public void RemoveAppGroupTest() { string addGroup = "TestGroup"; string status = string.Empty; string message = string.Empty; appActiveDirectoryServicesClient.RemoveAppGroup("AOD", addGroup, ref status, ref message); } // Inside the WCF service [OperationBehavior(Impersonation = ImpersonationOption.Required)] public void RemoveAppGroup(string AppName, string GroupName, ref string Status, ref string Message) { string accessOnDemandDomain = "MyDomain"; RemoveAppGroupFromDomain(AppName, accessOnDemandDomain, GroupName, ref Status, ref Message); } public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(AppName)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We tried to step into the .NET source code to see what value string.IsNullOrEmpty was receiving, but the IDE printed this message when we attempted to evaluate the variable: 'Cannot obtain value of local or argument 'value' as it is not available at this instruction pointer, possibly because it has been optimized away.' (None of the projects involved have optimizations enabled). So, we decided to try explicitly setting the value of the variable inside the method itself, immediately before the length check -- but that didn't help. // Lets try this again. public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { // Explicitly set the value for testing purposes. AppName = "AOD"; if (AppName == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } if (AppName.Length == 0) { // This exception gets thrown, even though it obviously isn't a zero length string. throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We're really pulling our hair out on this one. Has anyone else experienced behavior like this? Any tips on debugging it?

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• why does entity framework+mysql provider enumeration returns partial results with no exceptions

  - by Freddy Rios

  I'm trying to make sense of a situation I have using entity framework on .net 3.5 sp1 + MySQL 6.1.2.0 as the provider. It involves the following code: Response.Write("Products: " + plist.Count() + "<br />"); var total = 0; foreach (var p in plist) { //... some actions total++; //... other actions } Response.Write("Total Products Checked: " + total + "<br />"); Basically the total products is varying on each run, and it isn't matching the full total in plist. Its varies widely, from ~ 1/5th to half. There isn't any control flow code inside the foreach i.e. no break, continue, try/catch, conditions around total++, anything that could affect the count. As confirmation, there are other totals captured inside the loop related to the actions, and those match the lower and higher total runs. I don't find any reason to the above, other than something in entity framework or the mysql provider that causes it to end the foreach when retrieving an item. The body of the foreach can have some good variation in time, as the actions involve file & network access, my best shot at the time is that when the .net code takes beyond certain threshold there is some type of timeout in the underlying framework/provider and instead of causing an exception it is silently reporting no more items for enumeration. Can anyone give some light in the above scenario and/or confirm if the entity framework/mysql provider has the above behavior? Update: I can't reproduce the behavior by using Thread.Sleep in a simple foreach in a test project, not sure where else to look for this weird behavior :(.

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• Can I join two tables whereby the joined table is sorted by a certain column?

  - by Ferdy

  I'm not much of a database guru so I need some help on a query I'm working on. In my photo community project I want to richly visualize tags by not only showing the tag name and counter (# of images inside them), I also want to show a thumb of the most popular image inside the tag (most karma). The table setup is as follow: Image table holds basic image metadata, important is the karma field Imagefile table holds multiple entries per image, one for each format Tag table holds tag definitions Tag_map table maps tags to images In my usual trial and error query authoring I have come this far: SELECT * FROM (SELECT tag.name, tag.id, COUNT(tag_map.tag_id) as cnt FROM tag INNER JOIN tag_map ON (tag.id = tag_map.tag_id) INNER JOIN image ON tag_map.image_id = image.id INNER JOIN imagefile on image.id = imagefile.image_id WHERE imagefile.type = 'smallthumb' GROUP BY tag.name ORDER BY cnt DESC) as T1 WHERE cnt > 0 ORDER BY cnt DESC [column clause of inner query snipped for the sake of simplicity] This query gives me somewhat what I need. The outer query makes sure that only tags are returned for which there is at least 1 image. The inner query returns the tag details, such as its name, count (# of images) and the thumb. In addition, I can sort the inner query as I want (by most images, alphabetically, most recent, etc) So far so good. The problem however is that this query does not match the most popular image (most karma) of the tag, it seems to always take the most recent one in the tag. How can I make sure that the most popular image is matched with the tag?

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• Eclipse - Import existing mult-rep CVS project folder

  - by iQ

  Hey guys, Wondering if anyone can help me out with eclipse in terms of importing an existing CVS managed project. I am currently trying to shift my work on to the eclipse IDE. Some details about my project and environment below. I'm working in Linux Ubuntu, the project folder is located on a mounted shared network drive, I have installed the "Eclipse CVS Client" plug-in for my version of eclipse (helios). I've tried many ways for eclipse to use my existing folder as a project and recognize the CVS data in the CVS folders. I have done the following options: Created a new project, selected existing source, located my project folder and clicked OK to finish creating. In the end the CVS files weren't automatically read. Did the same as above and after project creation I wen to the option "project menu-team-share project", it asks me to choose a repository and doesn't automatically find the CVS information in the subfolders. If your wondering I have set-up both repositories in my eclipse and can browse the repositories through the CVS browser. My project directory layout is like this: +-Project Folder (no CVS folder at this level) +---Repo A folder +-----CVS meta-info folder is INSIDE, along with all checked out files from Repo A + +---Repo B folder +-----CVS meta-info folder is INSIDE, along with all checked out files from Repo B + +-(couple of random files, not in CVS) Thanks for the help

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• using an alternative string quotation syntax in python

  - by Cawas

  Just wondering... I find using escape characters too distracting. I'd rather do something like this: print ^'Let's begin and end with sets of unlikely 2 chars and bingo!'^ Let's begin and end with sets of unlikely 2 chars and bingo! Note the ' inside the string, and how this syntax would have no issue with it, or whatever else inside for basically all cases. Too bad markdown can't properly colorize it (yet), so I decided to <pre> it. Sure, the ^ could be any other char, I'm not sure what would look/work better. That sounds good enough to me, tho. Probably some other language already have a similar solution. And, just maybe, Python already have such a feature and I overlooked it. I hope this is the case. But if it isn't, would it be too hard to, somehow, change Python's interpreter and be able to select an arbitrary (or even standardized) syntax for notating the strings? I realize there are many ways to change statements and the whole syntax in general by using pre-compilators, but this is far more specific. And going any of those routes is what I call "too hard". I'm not really needing to do this so, again, I'm just wondering.

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• Binding a Value from a View-Model to the View-Model of a child User Control in Silverlight?

  - by andrej351

  Hi there, So i have a UserControl for one of my Views and have another 'child' UserControl inside that. The outer 'parent' UserControl has a Collection on its View-Model and a Grid control on it to display a list of Items. I want to place another UserControl inside this UserControl to display a form representing the details of one Item. The outer / parent UserControl's View-Model already has a property on it to hold the currently selected Item and i would like to bind this to a DependancyProperty on the inner / child UserControl. I would then like to bind that DependancyProperty to a property on the child UserControl's View-Model. I can then set the DependancyProperty once in XAML with a binding expression and have the child UserControl do all its work in its View-Model like it should. The code i have looks like this.. Parent UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemsListView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel}"> <!-- Grid Control here... --> <ItemDetailsView Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel.SelectedItem}" /> </UserControl> Child UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemDetailsView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel}" ItemDetailsView.Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel.Item, Mode=TwoWay}"> <!-- Form controls here... --> </UserControl> The selected Item is bound to the DependancyProperty fine. However from the DependancyProperty to the child View-Model does not. I've used this sort of apporach in a WPF app without problems. It appears to be a situation where there are two concurrent bindings which need to work but with the same target for two sources. Why won't the second (in the child UserControl) binding work?? Is there a way to acheive the behaviour I'm after?? Cheers.

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• Apache/Rails/Passenger directory URLs that don't end in '/' fail to 404.

  - by Portamento

  I'm using Apache with passenger to run a rails app. In my rails app, I have some static content in subdirectories of the public directory. Each subdirectory has an index.html in it. So, inside the public directory, I have a subdir called 'b' and inside it, is an index.html. So it's like this: /public/b/index.html I have links to these pages, of the form: http://a.com/b If I do this in my regular non-rails web directory, Apache correctly rewrites this URL to be http://a.com/b/ which then, subsequently shows the index.html. It's only when accessing my rails app that it doesn't work. In fact, if I turn off passenger mod... so it just accesses my rails app like a regular document root, it works correctly also. What the heck do I need to do to get this to work properly with passenger? Again, it works fine in apache itself when passenger is not involved. I am running passenger 2.1.3. I have another server running passenger 2.0 that doesn't seem to have this problem, but I don't see anything different in the config other than the different versions of passenger itself. HELP! Been working on this for two days solid with no improvement!

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• Change with jQuery a cell of a table created with JSF

  - by perissf

  From within a xhtml page created with JSF, I need to use JavaScript / jQuery for changing the content of a cell of a table. I know how to assign a unique id to the div containing the table, and to the tbody. I can also assign unique class names to the div itself and to the target column. The target row is identified by the data-rk attribute. <div id="tabForm:centerTabView:personsTable" class="ui-datatable ui-widget personsTable"> <table role="grid"> <tbody id="tabForm:centerTabView:personsTable_data" > <tr data-rk="2" > <td ... /> <td class="lastNameCol" role="gridcell"> <div> To Be Edited </div> </td> <td ... /> </tr> <tr ... /> </tbody> </table> </div> I have tried with many combinations of different jQuery selectors, but I am really lost. I need to search my target row and my target column inside that particular div or inside that particular table, because the xhtml page may contain other tables with different unique ids (and accidentally with the same row and column ids).

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• File Hierarchy system with a web application logic question: List searching

  - by molleman

  I need to search through a list of folders that could have more folders inside it, and add a new folder depending what folder is its parent.(the path is stored as a String for eg = "root/MyCom/home/") Then i fill in a field with a new folder name and add it to the final folder(eg "home/"). Below as you can see , I can navigate to the right location and add the new folder to a current folder, My trouble is that i cannot ensure that currentFolder element is placed back in the list it came from how could i add a folder to a list of folders, that could be within a list of folders,that could be within a list of folders and endless more? YFUser user = (YFUser)getSession().getAttribute(SESSION_USER); Folder newFolder = new Folder(); newFolder.setFolderName(foldername); // this is the path string (root/MyCom/home/) split in the different folder names String folderNames[] = folderLocationString.split("/"); int folderNamesLength = folderNames.length; Folder root = user.getRoot(); Folder currentFolder = root; for(int i=0;i<=folderNamesLength; i++){ // because root is folderNames[i] String folderName = folderNames[i++]; int currentFolderSize = currentFolder.getChildren.getSize(); for(int o=1; o<= currentFolderSize ; o++){ if(currentFolder.getChildren().get(o) instanceof Folder){ if(folderName.equals(currentFolder.getChildren().get(o).getFolderName())){ currentFolder = currentFolder.getChildren().get(o); if (i == counter){ //now i am inside the correct folder and i add it to the list of folders within it //the trouble is knowing how to re add this changed folder back to the list before it currentFolder.getChildren.add(newFolder); } } } } }

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• In CSS, how to not float a 300px wide Div to the next line?

  - by Jian Lin

  Say, there is a bar that is styled at the bottom of the viewport, using position: fixed; bottom: 0; left: 0; width: 100%; height 50px; overflow: hidden and then there are 4 Divs inside it, each one floated to the left. Each Div is about 300px wide or can be more (depending on the content) Now, when the window is 1200 pixel wide, and we see all 4 Divs, but when the window is resize to be 1180 pixel wide (just 20 pixels less), then the whole 300px wide Div will disappear, because it is "floated" to the next line. So how can this be made so that, the Div will stay there and showing 280px of itself, rather than totally disappear? By the way, white-space: nowrap won't work as that probably has to do with not wrapping inline content. I was thinking of putting another Div inside this Div, having a fixed width of 1200px or 2000px, so that all Divs will float on the same level in this inner Div, and the outer Div will cut it off with the overflow: hidden. But this seems more like a hack... since the wide of all those Divs can be dynamic, and setting a fixed width of 1200px or 2000px seems like too much of a hack.

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• Selectively disabling WebControl elements

  - by NeilD

  I have an ASP.Net MasterPage with a PlaceHolder element. The contents of the PlaceHolder can be viewed in two modes: read-write, and read-only. To implement read only, I wanted to disable all inputs inside the PlaceHolder. I decided to do this by recursively looping through the controls collection of the PlaceHolder, finding all the ones which inherit from WebControl, and setting control.Enabled = false;. Here's what I originally wrote: private void DisableControls(Control c) { if (c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl))) { WebControl wc = c as WebControl; wc.Enabled = false; } //Also disable all child controls. foreach (Control child in c.Controls) { DisableControls(child); } } This worked fine, and all controls are disabled... But then the requirement changed ;) NOW, we want to disable all controls except ones which have a certain CssClass. So, my first attempt at the new version: private void DisableControls(Control c) { if (c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl))) { WebControl wc = c as WebControl; if (!wc.CssClass.ToLower().Contains("someclass")) wc.Enabled = false; } //Also disable all child controls. foreach (Control child in c.Controls) { DisableControls(child); } } Now I've hit a problem. If I have (for example) an <ASP:Panel> which contains an <ASP:DropDownList>, and I want to keep the DropDownList enabled, then this isn't working. I call DisableControls on the Panel, and it gets disabled. It then loops through the children, and calls DisableControls on the DropDownList, and leaves it enabled (as intended). However, because the Panel is disabled, when the page renders, everything inside the <div> tag is disabled! Can you think of a way round this? I've thought about changing c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(WebControl)) to c.GetType().IsSubclassOf(typeof(SomeParentClassThatAllInputElementsInheritFrom)), but I can't find anything appropriate!

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• jqtouch load content with ajax

  - by ndrizza

  I am loading this page directly inside of jqtouch. First the page shows "Loading..." Then it should execute a GET Request and refresh the content of the div ("tagcloud") as soon as it get's the content from another php file. (I prefer to load the content this way as otherwise jqtouch freezes for 2 seconds until the content is loaded and then animates to the next page.) <?php $link = $_GET['link']; ?> <div id="TagNews"> <div class="toolbar"> <h1>TagNews</h1> <a href="#" class="back">NZZ</a> </div> <div id="tagcloud">Loading...</div> <script type="text/javascript"> $.get("cloudnews2.php?link=<?php echo $link; ?>", function(data){ document.getElementById("tagcloud").innerHTML = data; }); </script> </div> Howewer, the request never gets loaded. The code is working outside of jqtouch. But inside jqtouch the GET Request doesn't work. I can't figure out why. Could you please help me to do this request?

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• Get controls ClientID/UniqueID between DetailsView and UpdatePanel

  - by robertpnl

  Hi guys, I like to know how to get the ClientID/UniqueID of a control inside a Detailsview controls EditItemTemplate element and when DetailsViews changing to Edit mode and DetailsView is inside a AJAX UpdatePanel. Without UpdatePanel, during PostBack I can get the ClientID's control, but now with an UpdatePanel. <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:DetailsView ID="DetailsView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" AllowPaging="true" AutoGenerateEditButton="true"> <Fields> <asp:TemplateField> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox runat="server" ID="chkboxTest" Text="CHECKBOX" /> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> As you see, the EditItemTemplate contains a Checkbox control. So i'm trying to get the ClientID of this checkbox when Detailsview is changing to the Edit mode. I need this value for handling Javascript. Catching the events ChangingMode/ChangedMode doesn't work; chkbox is null: void DetailsView1_ModeChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (DetailsView1.CurrentMode == DetailsViewMode.Edit) var chkbox = DetailsView1.Rows[0].FindControl("chkxboxTest"); // <== is null } Maybe i'm using the wrong event? Someone can give me a tip about this? Thanks.

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