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  • Can you stop a defered callback in jquery 1.5?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am wondering say you have something like this // Assign handlers immediately after making the request, // and remember the jqxhr object for this request var jqxhr = $.ajax({ url: "example.php" }) .success(function(response) { alert("success"); }) // perform other work here ... // Set another success function for the request above jqxhr.success(function(response){ alert("second success"); }); So I am thinking this. I have a general function that I want to use on all my responses that would be passed into my success. This function basically does a check to see if the server validation found any errors. If it did they it formats it and displays a message. Now I am wondering if I could some how have the second success function to then do specific stuff. Like say One ajax request needs to add a row into a table. So this should be possible. I just do what I have above and in the second success I just add the row. Is it possible though that if the first success runs through and see that there are validation errors from the server that I can stop the second success from happening? Sort of If(first success finds errors) { // print out errors // don't continue onto next success } else { // go to next success } Edit I found that there is something call deferred.reject and this does stop it but I am wondering how can I specify to stop only the success one. Since my thinking is if there are other deffered ones like complete on it will the be rejected too?

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  • If statement doesn't work? do download without filed name and email

    - by user1833871
    I've created some if / else statements to get a download when a user hit click jf he fields name and email but doesn"t work for my site http://my-easy-woodworking-projects.com because it is do download without field name and email contact.php is <?php $field_name = $_POST['cf_name']; $field_email = $_POST['cf_email']; $field_message = $_POST['cf_message']; $mail_to = '[email protected]'; $subject = 'Message from a site visitor '.$field_name; $body_message = 'From: '.$field_name."\n"; $body_message .= 'E-mail: '.$field_email."\n"; $body_message .= 'Message: '.$field_message; $headers = 'From: '.$field_email."\r\n"; $headers .= 'Reply-To: '.$field_email."\r\n"; $mail_status = mail($mail_to, $subject, $body_message, $headers); if ($mail_status) { echo <script>\n" echo "var str = \"download\"; \n"" echo "document.write(str.link("http://www.myshedplans.com/12BY8SHED.pdf"));\n" echo "</script>\n" } echo else { echo <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> echo // Print a message echo alert('Message failed. Please, send an email to [email protected]'); echo // Redirect to some page of the site. You can also specify full URL, e.g. http://template-help.com window.location = 'contact_page.html'; echo </script> }?>

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  • Using external SOAP service in Workflow service

    - by whirlwin
    I am using the .NET 4 framework and have made a WCF Workflow Service Application. I want to use a SOAP web service (.NET 3.5) I have running in another instance of VS. The only method that is exposed is the following: [WebMethod] public string Reverse(string input) { char[] chars = input.ToCharArray(); Array.Reverse(chars); return new string(chars); } I have used the following steps to add the service in my Workflow: Add Service Reference Provided the WSDL (the operation shows in the Operations box as expected) Clicked OK Build the solution to ensure that the service shows in my toolbox Drag the service from the toolbox into the workflow However, when I look at the properties of the service in the workflow, there is no way to specify the input argument or where to store the result of the invocation of the service. I only have the option of specifying some obscure parameters such as Body:InArgument<ReverseRequestBody and outBody:OutArgument<ReverseResponseBody (none of which are strings). Here is a screenshot depicting the properties of the service in the workflow: My question is therefore: Is it possible at all to use the SOAP service by specifying a string as the input argument (like it is meant to be used), and also assign the result to a workflow variable?

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  • many to many relationship mysql select

    - by zeina
    Let's consider 2 tables "schools" and "students". Now a student may belong to different schools in his life, and a school have many students. So this is a many to many example. A third table "links" specify the relation between student and school. Now to query this I do the following: Select sc.sid , -- stands for school id st.uid, -- stands for student id sc.sname, -- stands for school name st.uname, -- stands for student name -- select more data about the student joining other tables for that from students s left join links l on l.uid=st.uid -- l.uid stands for the student id on the links table left join schools sc on sc.sid=l.sid -- l.sid is the id of the school in the links table where st.uid=3 -- 3 is an example this query will return duplicate data for the user id if he has more than one school, so to fix this I added group by st.uid, yet I also need the list of school name related to the same user. Is there a way to do it with fixing the query I wrote instead of having 2 queries? So as example I want to have Luci of schools ( X, Y, Z, R, ...) etc

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  • I'm annoyed with asp .net mvc action links? Is there something better in MVC3?

    - by Jonathon Kresner
    After almost 3 years with mvc I'm scratching my head. Is it just me, or does the way we specify links in asp .net mvc suck? @Html.ActionLink("Log Off", "LogOff", "Account") In the previews for mvc 1 we had the funky generic action links which gave us intellisense and compile checking, which I LOVED. I know they removed them because of performance issues and because you could not actually guarantee that the route would resolve all the time... However the default way of doing it just doesn't make me feel safe enough in a big application. I've also used T4Mvc with MVC2, to be honest, I didn't really like it. It's not part of the Mvc framework and frustrating to develop with especially with source control in big teams and continuous integration builds. I guess I could also import Mvc Futures and keep using the generic types (it's probably what I'll do). I'm just about to start a very big project and was wondering what other people are thinking? Is anyone else annoyed with the options or has a new solution? It seems like ActionLinks are the most basic & frequently used feature. Shouldn't there be a good out of the box solution, we're just about to hit revision 3 of this framework.

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  • Read/Write Files from the Content Provider

    - by drum
    I want to be able to create a file from the Content Provider, however I get the following error: java.io.Filenotfoundexception: /0: open file failed: erofs (read-only file system) What I am trying to do is create a file whenever an application calls the insert method from my Provider. This is the excerpt of the code that does the file creation: FileWriter fstream = new FileWriter(valueKey); BufferedWriter out = new BufferedWriter(fstream); out.write(valueContent); out.close(); Originally I wanted to use openFileOutput() but the function appears to be undefined. Anyone has a workaround to this problem? EDIT: I found out that I had to specify the directory as well. Here is a more complete snippet of the code: File file = new File("/data/data/Project.Package.Structure/files/"+valueKey); file.createNewFile(); FileWriter fstream = new FileWriter(file); BufferedWriter out = new BufferedWriter(fstream); out.write(valueContent); out.close(); I also enabled the permission <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_INTERNAL_STORAGE" /> This time I got an error saying: java.io.IOException: open failed: ENOENT (No such file or directory)

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  • Google App Engine datastore encoding?

    - by sernaferna
    I'm using the GAE datastore for a Java application, and storing some text that will be in numerous languages. In my servlet, I'm first checking to see if there's any data in the data store, and, if not, I'm creating some, similar to the following: ArrayList<Lang> list = new ArrayList<Lang>(); list.add(new Lang("EN", "English", 1)); list.add(new Lang("ES", "Español", 0)); //more languages here... PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); for(Lang l : list) { pm.makePersistent(l); } Since this is using JDO, I guess I should include the relevent parts of the Lang class too: @PersistenceCapable public class Lang { @PrimaryKey private String code; @Persistent private String name; @Persistent private int popularity; // getters & setters & constructors... } However, the non-ASCII characters are giving me grief. I've set my Eclipse project to use the UTF-8 encoding instead of the default Cp1252, so I think I'm okay from that perspective, but when I use the App Engine Data Viewer to look at my data, that Español entry becomes Español, and when I click on it to view it, I get a 500 Server Error. (There are some other entries with right-to-left text that don't even show up in the Data Viewer at all, but one problem at a time...) Is there anything special I can do in my code to set the character encoding, or specify to GAE that the data I'm storing is UTF-8? Or is the problem on the Eclipse side, and is there something I should be doing with my Java code?

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  • Why do I need to give my options a value attribute in my dropdown? JQuery related.

    - by Alex
    So far in my web developing experiences, I've noticed that almost all web developers/designers choose to give their options in a select a value like so: <select name="foo"> <option value="bar">BarCheese</option> // etc. // etc. </select> Is this because it is best practice to do so? I ask this because I have done a lot of work with jQuery and dropdown's lately, and sometimes I get really annoyed when I have to check something like: $('select[name=foo]').val() == "bar"); To me, many times that seems less clear than just being able to check the val() against BarCheese. So why is it that most web developers/designers specify a value paramater instead of just letting the options actual value be its value? And yes, if the option has a value attribute I know I can do something like this: $('select[name=foo] option:contains("BarCheese")').attr('selected', 'selected'); But I would still really like to know why this is done. Thanks!!

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  • FluentNHibernate: Not.Nullable() doesn't affect output schema

    - by alex
    Hello I'm using fluent nhibernate v. 1.0.0.595. There is a class: public class Weight { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual double Value { get; set; } } I want to map it on the following table: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Weight DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) Here is the map: public class WeightMap : ClassMap<Weight> { public WeightMap() { Table("[Weight]"); Id(x => x.Id, "WeightId"); Map(x => x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable(); } } The problem is that this mapping produces table with nullable Weight column: Weight DOUBLE null Not-nullable column is generated only with default convention for column name (i.e. Map(x = x.Value).Not.Nullable() instead of Map(x = x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable()), but in this case there will be Value column instead of Weight: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Value DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) I found similiar problem here: http://code.google.com/p/fluent-nhibernate/issues/detail?id=121, but seems like mentioned workaround with SetAttributeOnColumnElement("not-null", "true") is outdated. Does anybody encountered with this problem? Is there a way to specify named column as not-nullable?

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  • Do I need to write a trigger for such a simple constraint?

    - by Paul Hanbury
    I really had a hard time knowing what words to put into the title of my question, as I am not especially sure if there is a database pattern related to my problem. I will try to simplify matters as much as possible to get directly to the heart of the issue. Suppose I have some tables. The first one is a list of widget types: create table widget_types ( widget_type_id number(7,0) primary key, description varchar2(50) ); The next one contains icons: create table icons ( icon_id number(7,0) primary key, picture blob ); Even though the users get to select their preferred widget, there is a predefined subset of widgets that they can choose from for each widget type. create table icon_associations ( widget_type_id number(7,0) references widget_types, icon_id number(7,0) references icons, primary key (widget_type_id, icon_id) ); create table icon_prefs ( user_id number(7,0) references users, widget_type_id number(7,0), icon_id number(7,0), primary key (user_id, widget_type_id), foreign key (widget_type_id, icon_id) references icon_associations ); Pretty simple so far. Let us now assume that if we are displaying an icon to a user who has not set up his preferences, we choose one of the appropriate images associated with the current widget. I'd like to specify the preferred icon to display in such a case, and here's where I run into my problem: alter table icon_associations add ( is_preferred char(1) check( is_preferred in ('y','n') ) ) ; I do not see how I can enforce that for each widget_type there is one, and only one, row having is_preferred set to 'y'. I know that in MySQL, I am able to write a subquery in my check constraint to quickly resolve this issue. This is not possible with Oracle. Is my mistake that this column has no business being in the icon_associations table? If not where should it go? Is this a case where, in Oracle, the constraint can only be handled with a trigger? I ask only because I'd like to go the constraint route if at all possible. Thanks so much for your help, Paul

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  • Why ASP.NET menu control ignores roles in Web.sitemap?

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I have a website with a menu based on sitemap. ActiveDirectoryRoleProvider is a custom class. securityTrimmingEnabled of sitemap provider is set to true. Now, nevertheless the roles set in the sitemap file, site menu displays every sitemap entity. So for example if I have in sitemap a node with roles="*", a second one with roles="Administrators" and a third one with roles="Foo" and I login as a member of Administrators group but not Foo group, the site menu will display all three items. On the other hand, if I have a node which does not specify roles attribute but has children, this node will never be displayed. If I put: <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrators") ? "Admin" : "Not admin"%> <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Foo") ? "Foo" : "Not foo"%> before the menu, it displays that I'm Admin, but Not foo, which is just fine. So if it knows that I'm Admin but Not foo, why does it continue to display Foo's sitemap nodes? Note: changing authorizations has no effect on the menu. It continues to show every item, even for the pages I'm unable to access.

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  • Insert text depending on time of day and day of week.

    - by ploughansen
    I'm trying to piece together a php script to output different text depending on what day it is and the time of day. Example: On weekdays (mon-fri), I would like to output text according to the following periods of time (24H, server time, UTC): 00:00-08:00: "Lorem ipsum" 08:00-13:00: "dolor sit amet" 13:00-15:00: "Pellentesque habitant" 15:00-15:30: "dolor sit amet" 15:30-24:00: "Lorem ipsum" On weekends (sat-sun), I would like to output the following text in this time period: 00:00-24:00 "Lorem ipsum" Can anyone help with a php script to do that? I've already gotten some help over at the css-tricks forum. They supplied this code: <?php $date = strtotime("now"); $hour = date("H", $date); switch($hour) { case 00: case 01: case 02: case 03: case 04: case 05: case 06: case 07: case 08: $dets = array("img" => "image1.png", "txt" => "Lorem ipsum"); break; case 09: case 10: case 11: case 12: case 13: $dets = array("img" => "image2.png", "txt" => "dolor sit amet"); break; case 14: case 15: case 16: $dets = array("img" => "image3.png", "txt" => "Pellentesque habitant"); break; case 17: case 18: case 19: case 20: case 21: case 22: case 23: case 24: $dets = array("img" => "image1.png", "txt" => "Lorem ipsum"); break; } echo "<img src='$dets[img]' alt='$dets[txt]' />"; ?> But it works for all days, and only in full hours. I want to be able to specify per half-hour and on a day to day basis. Still a php-noob so I'm hoping someone can help me.

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  • NHibernate's ISQLQuery returns instances that are of an unexpected type.

    - by Frederik Gheysels
    Hi all, I'm using NHibernate 2.1.2.400, and I'm having an issue with a an ISQLQuery query. The reason why I use an ISQLQuery here, is that this query uses a table for which I have no entity mapped in NHibernate. The query looks like this: ISQLQuery query = session.CreateSQLQuery ( "select p.*, price.* " + "from prestation p left outer join prestationprice price on p.PrestationId = price.PrestationId " + "where p.Id IN ( select id from prestationregistry where ..."); 'Prestationregistry' is the table that is not known by NHibernate (unmapped, so therefore the native SQL Query). my code continues like this: query.AddEntity ("p", typeof(Prestation)); query.AddJoin ("price", typeof(PrestationPrice)); query.SetResultTransformer (Transformers.DistinctRootEntity); var result = query.List(); So far so good. I expect that I'm given a list of 'Prestation' instances as a result of this query, since I declared 'Prestation' as being the root-object that has to be returned by the AddEntity method. I also expect that the PrestationPrices for each Prestation are eagerly loaded by this query (hence the AddJoin method). To my surprise, the List() method returns a collection of PrestationPrice instances instead of Prestation instances. How come ? Am I doing something wrong ? And if so, could you be so kind to tell me what I'm doing wrong ? Edit: Additional Info: When I debug, and put a watch on the 'query' instance, I can see that the queryReturns member of the query contains 2 items: - one NativeSqlQueryRootReturn instance who'se ReturnEntityName is 'Prestation' - one NativeSqlQueryJoinReturn When I do not specify the 'DistinctRootEntity' result transformer, the query returns instances of 'Prestation' instead of PrestationPrice. However, it contains multiple copies of the same instance.

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  • Java: any problems/negative sides of keeping SoftReference to ArrayList in HttpSession?

    - by westla7
    My code is doing the following (just as an example, and the reason that I specify package path to java.lang.ref.SoftReference is to note that it's not my own implementaiton :-): ... List<String> someData = new ArrayList<String>(); someData.add("Value1"); someData.add("Value2"); ... java.lang.ref.SoftReference softRef = new SoftReference(someData); ... HttpSession session = request.getSession(true); session.setAttribute("mySoftRefData", softRef); ... and later: ... java.lang.ref.SoftReference softRef = session.getAttribute("mySoftRefData"); if (softRef != null && softRef.get() != null) { List<String> someData = (List<String>)softRef.get(); // do something with it. } ... Any disadvantages? Which I do not see? Thank you!

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  • Does "delegate" mean a type or an object?

    - by Michal Czardybon
    Reading from MSDN: "A delegate is a type that references a method. Once a delegate is assigned a method, it behaves exactly like that method." Does then "delegate" mean a type or an object?! ...It cannot be both. It seems to me that the single word is used in two different meanings: a type containing a reference to a method of some specified signature, an object of that type, which can be actually called like a method. I would prefer a more precise vocabulary and use "delegate type" for the first case. I have been recently reading a lot about events and delegates and that ambiguity was making me confused many times. Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the first meaning: "Custom event delegates are needed only when an event generates event data" "A delegate declaration defines a class that is derived from the class System.Delegate" Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the second meaning: "specify a delegate that will be called upon the occurrence of some event" "Delegates are objects that refer to methods. They are sometimes described as type-safe function pointers" What do you think? Why did people from Microsoft introduced this ambiguity? Am I the only person to have conceptual problems with different notions being referenced with the same word.

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  • Is there a way to find out whether a class is a direct base of another class?

    - by user176168
    Hi I'm wondering whether there is a way to find out whether a class is a direct base of another class i.e. in boost type trait terms a is_direct_base_of function. As far as I can see boost doesn't see to support this kind of functionality which leads me to think that its impossible with the current C++ standard. The reason I want it is to do some validation checking on two macro's that are used for a reflection system to specify that one class is derived from another e.g. header.h: #define BASE A #define DERIVED B class A {}; class B : public A { #include <rtti.h> }; rtti.h: // I want to check that the two macro's are correct with a compile time assert Rtti<BASE, DERIVED> m_rtti; Although the macro's seem unnecessary in this simple example in my real world scenario rtti.h is a lot more complex. One possible avenue would be to compare the size of the this pointer with the size of a this pointer cast to the base type and some how trying to figure out whether its the size of the base class itself away or something (yeah your right I don't know how that would work either! lol)

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  • Problems applying texture to a triangle strip using glTexCoordPointer

    - by Alexey
    Hi, I'm writing a pretty simple piece of code which should draw a plane. The plane must have two different textures on its sides, like if it was a book page. I'm trying to achieve this by doing this: glFrontFace(GL_CCW); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, textures[kActiveSideLeft]); glVertexPointer(3, GL_FLOAT, 0, vertexCoordinates); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0, textureCoordinates); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP, 0, (2 * kHorizontalSegmentsCount + 4) * kVerticalSegmentsCount); glFrontFace(GL_CW); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, textures[kActiveSideRight]); glVertexPointer(3, GL_FLOAT, 0, vertexCoordinates); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0, textureCoordinates); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP, 0, (2 * kHorizontalSegmentsCount + 4) * kVerticalSegmentsCount); textures[] array contains 2 GLuint textures which specify appropriate textures. vertexCoordinates and textureCoordinates contain vertexes and texture coordinates respectively ((2 * kHorizontalSegmentsCount + 4) * kVerticalSegmentsCount) equals 15 and that's exactly how many elements I have in the arrays I set up opengl like this: glEnable(GL_DEPTH_TEST); glClearDepthf(1.0f); glDepthFunc(GL_LEQUAL); glClearColor(0.0, 1.0, 1.0, 1.0); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glEnable(GL_CULL_FACE); glCullFace(GL_BACK); glEnableClientState(GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); glDisableClientState(GL_NORMAL_ARRAY); glDisableClientState(GL_COLOR_ARRAY); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); What happens is when I run it front side of the plane looks Ok, but it appears like if texture coordinates weren't applied to the back side. It appears like texture on the back side is just tiled and not connected to vertexes by any means. Any idea what am I doing wrong? Or any idea about what can I do to debug this problem? Thanks.

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  • Silverlight Business Application template with WCF is throwing warning.

    - by Manoj
    Hi, I am using the Silvelight Business Application template. I wrote a function which uses Membership.getUserList function to return the user list. I tried exposing it as Service using WCF. But when I try to compile the client side code it throws a warning saying "Client Proxy Generation for user_authentication.Web.Service1 failed'. Why does it happen? The complete warning message is: Warning 4 Client proxy generation for service 'user_authentication.Web.Service1' failed: Generating metadata files... Warning: Unable to load a service with configName 'user_authentication.Web.Service1'. To export a service provide both the assembly containing the service type and an executable with configuration for this service. Details:Either none of the assemblies passed were executables with configuration files or none of the configuration files contained services with the config name 'user_authentication.Web.Service1'. Warning: No metadata files were generated. No service contracts were exported. To export a service, use the /serviceName option. To export data contracts, specify the /dataContractOnly option. This can sometimes occur in certain security contexts, such as when the assembly is loaded over a UNC network file share. If this is the case, try copying the assembly into a trusted environment and running it.

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  • I need an IDE for typo3 core development in php

    - by Flugan
    Php in itself is difficult for IDEs because of the dynamic nature of the language. My current development environment is mostly netbeans against a local svn copy of the codebase setup in a local development webserver. The code is full text indexed by vistas search engine for almost instant searches. I do a lot of development directly against the main development server using a combination of tools. Putty to interact with the server and deploy by updating an svn checkout on the development server. Tortoise SVN locally to have a fairly rich SVN experience. Netbeans obviously have SVN integration. Most of the changes on the remote server is commited using the putty session. WinSCP to interact with the development server with norton commander like interface as well as the good putty integration. Finally my text editor for remote editing is notepad++ out of habit and because of some nice features and good price. What I'm really missing is good php editing. Because of the way typo3 works almost all objects are instanciated through make instance abstraction that either returns the base class or the customized class if the framework has been extended. I'm not looking for a magic editing package and would like to find an editor which can use annotations to specify the type of commonly used variables.

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  • Call any webservice from the same $.ajax() call

    - by Andreas
    Hi! Im creating a usercontrol which is controled client side, it has an javascript-file attatched to it. This control has a button and upon click a popup appears, this popup shows a list of my domain entities. My entities are fetched using a call to a webservice. Im trying to get this popup usercontrol to work on all my entities, therefore i have the need to call any webservice needed (one per entity for example) with the same $.ajax() call. I have hiddenfields for the webservice url in my usercontrol which you specify in the markup via a property. So far so good. The problem arise when i need some additional parameters to the webservice (other than pagesize and pageindex). Say for example that one webservice takes an additional parameter "Date". At the moment i have my parameters set up like this: var params = JSON.stringify({ pageSize: _this.pageSize, pageIndex: _this.pageIndex }); and then i call the webservice like so: $.ajax({ webserviceUrl, params, function(result) { //some logic }); }); What i want to do is to be able to add my extra parameters (Date) to "Param" when needed, the specification of these parameters will be done via properties of the usercontrol. So, bottom line, i have a set of default parameters and want to dynamically add optional extra parameters. How is this possible? Thanks in advance.

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  • MSI install sequence - run DB scripts before services start

    - by marc_s
    Folks, we're running into some sequencing troubles with our MSI install. As part of our app, we install a bunch of services and allow the user to pick whether to start them right away or later. When they start right away, they seem to start too early in the install sequence - before our database manager had a chance to update the database. Right now, our custom action to run the database updater looks like this - it's being run after "InstallFinalize" - very late in the process. <InstallExecuteSequence> <RemoveExistingProducts After='InstallInitialize' /> <Custom Action='RunDbUpdateManagerAction' After='InstallFinalize'> DbUpdateManager=3</Custom> </InstallExecuteSequence> What would be the more appropriate step to run after or before, to make sure the DB scripts are executed before any of the installed services start up? Is there a "BeforeServiceStart" step? EDIT: Just defining the "Before='StartServices'" attribute on the tag didn't solve my problem. I am assuming the issue is this: the custom action has an "inner text", which represents a condition, and this condition is: "&DbUpdateManager=3". From what I can deduce from trial & error, this probably means "the DbUpdateManager feature must be published". Now, trouble is: "PublishFeature" comes way at the end in the install sequence, just before "InstallFinalize", and definitely AFTER InstallServices / StartServices. So when I specify the "Before=StartServices" requirement, the condition "DbUpdateManager feature must be published" isn't true yet, so the DbUpdateManager doesn't get executed :-( I tried removing the condition - in that case, my DbUpdateManager sometimes doesn't execute at all, sometimes more than once - no real clear pattern as to what happens when..... Any more ideas?? Is there a way I could check for a condition "the DbUpdateManager feature is installed" which would be true after the "InstallFiles" step?? Marc

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  • Symfony 1.4 - Don't save a blank password on a executeUpdate action.

    - by Twelve47
    I have a form to edit a UserProfile which is stored in mysql db. Which includes the following custom configuration: public function configure() { $this->widgetSchema['password']=new sfWidgetFormInputPassword(); $this->validatorSchema['password']->setOption('required', false); // you don't need to specify a new password if you are editing a user. } When the user tries to save the executeUpdate method is called to commit the changes. If the password is left blank, the password field is set to '', but I want it to retain the old password instead of overwriting it. What is the best (/most in the symfony ethos) way of doing this? My solution was to override the setter method on the model (which i had done anyway for password encryption), and ignore blank values. public function setPassword( $password ) { if ($password=='') return false; // if password is blank don't save it. return $this->_set('password', UserProfile ::encryptPassword( $password )); } It seems to work fine like this, but is there a better way? If you're wondering I cannot use sfDoctrineGuard for this project as I am dealing with a legacy database, and cannot change the schema.

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  • How to collect and inject all beans of a given type in Spring XML configuration

    - by GrzegorzOledzki
    One of the strongest accents of the Spring framework is the Dependency Injection concept. I understand one of the advices behind that is to separate general high-level mechanism from low-level details (as announced by Dependency Inversion Principle). Technically, that boils down to having a bean implementation to know as little as possible about a bean being injected as a dependency, e.g. public class PrintOutBean { private LogicBean logicBean; public void action() { System.out.println(logicBean.humanReadableDetails()); } //... } <bean class="PrintOutBean"> <property name="loginBean" ref="ShoppingCartBean"/> </bean> But what if I wanted to a have a high-level mechanism operating on multiple dependent beans? public class MenuManagementBean { private Collection<Option> options; public void printOut() { for (Option option:options) { // do something for option } //... } } I know one solution would be to use @Autowired annotation in the singleton bean, that is... @Autowired private Collection<Option> options; But doesn't it violate the separation principle? Why do I have to specify what dependents to take in the very same place I use them (i.e. MenuManagementBean class in my example)? Is there a way to inject collections of beans in the XML configuration like this (without any annotation in the MMB class)? <bean class="MenuManagementBean"> <property name="options"> <xxx:autowire by-type="MyOptionImpl"/> </property> </bean>

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  • When to use @Singleton in a Jersey resource

    - by dexter
    I have a Jersey resource that access the database. Basically it opens a database connection in the initialization of the resource. Performs queries on the resource's methods. I have observed that when I do not use @Singleton, the database is being open at each request. And we know opening a connection is really expensive right? So my question is, should I specify that the resource be singleton or is it really better to keep it at per request especially when the resource is connecting to the database? My resource code looks like this: //Use @Singleton here or not? @Path(/myservice/) public class MyResource { private ResponseGenerator responser; private Log logger = LogFactory.getLog(MyResource.class); public MyResource() { responser = new ResponseGenerator(); } @GET @Path("/clients") public String getClients() { logger.info("GETTING LIST OF CLIENTS"); return responser.returnClients(); } ... // some more methods ... } And I connect to the database using a code similar to this: public class ResponseGenerator { private Connection conn; private PreparedStatement prepStmt; private ResultSet rs; public ResponseGenerator(){ Class.forName("org.h2.Driver"); conn = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:h2:testdb"); } public String returnClients(){ String result; try{ prepStmt = conn.prepareStatement("SELECT * FROM hosts"); rs = prepStmt.executeQuery(); ... //do some processing here ... } catch (SQLException se){ logger.warn("Some message"); } finally { rs.close(); prepStmt.close(); // should I also close the connection here (in every method) if I stick to per request // and add getting of connection at the start of every method // conn.close(); } return result } ... // some more methods ... } Some comments on best practices for the code will also be helpful.

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  • Set service dependencies after install

    - by Dennis
    I have an application that runs as a Windows service. It stores various things settings in a database that are looked up when the service starts. I built the service to support various types of databases (SQL Server, Oracle, MySQL, etc). Often times end users choose to configure the software to use SQL Server (they can simply modify a config file with the connection string and restart the service). The problem is that when their machine boots up, often times SQL Server is started after my service so my service errors out on start up because it can't connect to the database. I know that I can specify dependencies for my service to help guide the Windows service manager to start the appropriate services before mine. However, I don't know what services to depend upon at install time (when my service is registered) since the user can change databases later on. So my question is: is there a way for the user to manually indicate the service dependencies based on the database that they are using? If not, what is the proper design approach that I should be taking? I've thought about trying to do something like wait 30 seconds after my service starts up before connecting to the database but this seems really flaky for various reasons. I've also considered trying to "lazily" connect to the database; the problem is that I need a connection immediately upon start up since the database contains various pieces of vital info that my service needs when it first starts. Any ideas?

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