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  • Trouble accessing data in relationships in Ember

    - by user3618430
    I'm having trouble saving data in this model relationship. My models are as follows: App.Flow = DS.Model.extend({ title: DS.attr('string'), content: DS.attr('string'), isCustom: DS.attr('boolean'), params: DS.hasMany('parameter', {async: true}) }); App.Parameter = DS.Model.extend({ flow: DS.belongsTo('flow'), param: DS.attr('string'), param_tooltip: DS.attr('string'), param_value: DS.attr('string') }); As you can see, I want Flows to have multiple Parameters. I have a rudimentary setup using Flow and Parameter fixtures, which behave as expected in the templates. However, when I try to create new ones in the controller, I have trouble setting the flow and parameter values correctly. var p = this.store.createRecord('parameter', { param: "foo", param_tooltip: "world", param_value: "hello" }); var f = this.store.createRecord('flow', { title: 'job', content: title, isCustom: true, params: [p] // doesn't seem to work }); f.set('params', [p]); // doesn't seem to work p.set('flow', f); // also doesn't seem to work // Save the new model p.save(); f.save(); I've tried a lot of solutions after staring at this and StackOverflow for a while (not just the ones listed). I'm not really sure what to try next. One thing that I noticed in the Ember inspector was that the ids of these created elements were not integers (they were something like the string 'fixture_0'), but I'm not really sure why that would be, whether its related, or how to fix it. Thanks!

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  • Unserializing an API return object (PHP/Ebay API)

    - by DavidYell
    I have been working with the Ebay api for a project and have found it great. I have however found a problem now, more PHP related. When I read my items from Ebay, I store a bunch of details in the database. Currently, just for the sake of it really, I serialize the whole return object and store it in the database in a related table. The idea being, that when I display my information, I have all the details to hand should I need them. The problem arises in that the pricing information is always in a sub object. [ConvertedAdjustmentAmount] => __PHP_Incomplete_Class Object ( [__PHP_Incomplete_Class_Name] => eBayAmountType [_] => 0 [currencyID] => USD ) As you can see when I unserialize my object, my cunning plan falls foul of the Incomplete class problem. I have checked the following question, without success. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/965611/forcing-access-to-php-incomplete-class-object-properties The main issue lies, as far as I can see, in that the price class is stored in the Ebay api, so how do I recreate it? I have been reading this page, http://uk3.php.net/manual/en/function.unserialize.php and trying to figure out, unserialize_callback_func which I can't figure out either, so any help would be appreciated!

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  • array loop not complete

    - by user217582
    Whenever the cursor move over the note, it would call getCollision() function to store the name of the sprite. Can store more than one sprite in array but the normalNote() function failed to work correctly? When I click a button which called normalNote(), it would only loop once (one note was redraw) before the pop. After the pop, it should have continue to loop until the rest of the notes from getChildbyname is redraw. Wonder if there any missing code? private function getCollision(x:int, pt:int):void { for(var i:int=pt;i<tickArray.length;i++) { if(typeArray[i]=="eighth") { var getCurrentNote:String = "note"+i; var child:Sprite = c.getChildByName(getCurrentNote) as Sprite; drawEighthUp(child,"-","-",0xff0000); tempNote.push(getCurrentNote); } } } private function normalNote():void { for(var iii:int=0;iii<tempNote.length;iii++) { var child:Sprite = c.getChildByName(tempNote[iii]) as Sprite; trace("tt",tempNote.length); trace("iii",iii); var asd:String = tempNote[iii].toString(); var idx:int = int(asd.substr(4)); if(typeArray[idx]=="eighth") { drawEighthUp(child,"-","-",0x000000); tempNote.pop(); } } }

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  • gwt seperate modules with no code sharing

    - by Code freak
    Hi, I have to make a web application using GWT. The project has a core module that'll expose a set of apis to be used by other apps; each of these app are unrelated. Each shall be loaded in a separate iframe. My idea was to compile core into core.js and each app shall have its own app1.js app2.js and so on... App1 script type="text/javascript" src="core.js" ></script> script type="text/javascript" src="app1.js" ></script> with this design, due to browser caching, each app laod only the app.js which should be smaller ~20kb in size. Making a core module is straightforward but the apps are problematic. The reason being after compilation, each app contains the entire GWT library - this substantially increases the download size of the complete webapp. Can anyone suggest a way to get aroung this problem ? I've checked similar questions on SO, but failed to find a simple working answer fr the problem. Thanks for any help.

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  • MySql "comments" parameter as descriptor?

    - by Nick
    So, I'm trying to learn a lot at once, and this place is really helpful! I'm making a little running log website for myself and maybe a few other people, and I have it so that the user can add workouts for each day. With each workout, I have a variety of information the user can fill out for the workout, such as running distance, time, quality of run, course, etc... I store this in a MySql database as a table with fields titled "distance", "time", "runquality", etc... Now, these field titles don't match up with what I want displayed on the running log, so I was thinking of using the "Comments" attribute for a field to store its human-readable title--thus the field "runquality" would have "Quality of run" as its comment, and then I would pull the comment with a SQL query and display it instead of the field name. Is this a good theoretical/practical way of going about it? And what sort of SQL would I use to pull the comment for the field anyway? Secondly, suppose I want to add the ability for the user to create their own workout descriptors. So say a user wants to add a "temperature" descriptor for their workout. Should I create a script that adds fields to my workout table, or should I create a separate table listing only workout descriptors and somehow link the descriptor table with the "contents" table? I haven't learned any theory about database design or anything so any help is appreciated!

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  • PostgreSQL storing paths for reference in scripts

    - by Brian D.
    I'm trying to find the appropriate place to store a system path in PostgreSQL. What I'm trying to do is load values into a table using the COPY command. However, since I will be referring to the same file path regularly I want to store that path in one place. I've tried creating a function to return the appropriate path, but I get a syntax error when I call the function in the COPY command. I'm not sure if this is the right way to go about it, but I'll post my code anyway. COPY command: COPY employee_scheduler.countries (code, name) FROM get_csv_path('countries.csv') WITH CSV; Function Definition: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION employee_scheduler.get_csv_path(IN file_name VARCHAR(50)) RETURNS VARCHAR(250) AS $$ DECLARE path VARCHAR(200) := E'C:\\Brian\\Work\\employee_scheduler\\database\\csv\\'; file_path VARCHAR(250) := ''; BEGIN file_path := path || file_name; RETURN file_path; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; If anyone has a different idea on how to accomplish this I'm open to suggestions. Thanks for any help!

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  • A rectangle drawn with DrawingContext.DrawRectangle blocks mouse

    - by dharmatech
    The WPF program below puts up a window which looks like this: Mouse-movement outside the black square causes the window title to be updated with the mouse's position. The updating stops when the mouse enters the square. I'd like for MouseMove to continue to trigger even when the mouse is over the square. Is there a way to do this? using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Media; namespace Wpf_Particle_Demo { class DrawingVisualElement : FrameworkElement { public DrawingVisual visual; public DrawingVisualElement() { visual = new DrawingVisual(); } protected override int VisualChildrenCount { get { return 1; } } protected override Visual GetVisualChild(int index) { return visual; } } public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); var canvas = new Canvas(); Content = canvas; var element = new DrawingVisualElement(); canvas.Children.Add(element); CompositionTarget.Rendering += (s, e) => { using (var dc = element.visual.RenderOpen()) dc.DrawRectangle(Brushes.Black, null, new Rect(0, 0, 50, 50)); }; MouseMove += (s, e) => Title = e.GetPosition(canvas).ToString(); } } }

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  • Constructing a WeakReference<T> throws COMException

    - by ChaseMedallion
    The following code: IDisposable d = ... new WeakReference<IDisposable>(d); Has started throwing the following exception on SOME machines. What could cause this? System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException: Unspecified error (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80004005 (E_FAIL)) EDIT: the machines that experience the error are running Windows Server 2008 R2. Windows Server 2012 and desktop machines running windows 7 work fine. (this is true, but I now think a different issue is the relevant difference... see below). EDIT: as an additional note, this occurred right after updating our codebase to Entity Framework 6.1.1.-beta1. In the above code, The IDisposable is a class which wraps an EF DbContext. EDIT: why the votes to close? EDIT: the stack trace of the failure ends at the WeakReference<T> constructor called in the above code: at System.WeakReference`1..ctor(T target, Boolean trackResurrection) // from here on down it's code we wrote/simple LINQ. None of this code has changed recently; // we just upgraded to EF6 and saw this failure start happening at Core.Data.EntityFrameworkDataContext.RegisterDependentDisposable(IDisposable child) at Core.Data.ServiceFactory.GetConstructorParameter[TService](Type parameterType) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectListIterator`2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer`1..ctor(IEnumerable`1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Core.Data.ServiceFactory.CreateService[TService]() at MVC controller action method EDIT: it turns out that the machines having issues with this were running AppDynamics. Uninstalling that seems to have removed the issue.

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  • Dynamcally resising an open Accordion

    - by alavers
    I have an Accordion and the height of its content can be dynamically resized. I would like to see the Accordion dynamically respond to the child item's height, but I'm having trouble doing this. <lt:Accordion Name="MyAccordion" SelectionMode="ZeroOrOne" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"> <lt:AccordionItem Name="MyAccordionItem" Header="MyAccordion" IsSelected="True" HorizontalContentAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <StackPanel> <Button Content="Grow" Click="Grow"/> <Button Content="Shrink" Click="Shrink"/> <TextBox Name="GrowTextBox" Text="GrowTextBox" Height="400" Background="Green" SizeChanged="GrowTextBox_SizeChanged"/> </StackPanel> </lt:AccordionItem> </lt:Accordion> private void Grow(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { GrowTextBox.Height += 100; } private void Shrink(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { GrowTextBox.Height -= 100; } private void GrowTextBox_SizeChanged(object sender, System.Windows.SizeChangedEventArgs e) { MyAccordion.UpdateLayout(); MyAccordionItem.UpdateLayout(); } Mind you, if I collapse and then re-open the accordion, it takes shape just the way I want, but I'd like this resizing to occur immediately when the child resizes. I feebly attempted to fix this by adding a SizeChanged event handler that calls UpdateLayout() on the Accordion and AccordionItem, but this doesn't have any visual effect. I can't figure out where proper resizing takes place inside the Accordion control. Does anyone have an idea?

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  • Html.RadioButton group defaulting to 0

    - by awrigley
    Hi A default value of 0 is creeping into a Surveys app I am developing, for no reason that I can see. The problem is as follows: I have a group of Html.RadioButtons that represent the possible values a user can choose to answer a survey question (1 == Not at all, 2 == A little, 3 == A lot). I have used a tinyint datatype, that does not allow null, to store the answer to each question. The view code looks like this: <ol class="SurveyQuestions"> <% foreach (SurveyQuestion question in Model.Questions) { string col = question.QuestionColumn; %> <li><%=question.QuestionText%> <ul style="float:right;" class="MultiChoice"> <li><%= Html.RadioButton(col, "1")%></li> <li><%= Html.RadioButton(col, "2")%></li> <li><%= Html.RadioButton(col, "3")%></li> </ul> <%= Html.ValidationMessage(col, "*") %> </li> <% } %> </ol> [Note on the above code:] Each survey has about 70 questions, so I have put the questions text in one table, and store the results in a different table. I have put the Questions into my form view model (hence Model.Questions); the questions table has a field called QuestionColumn that allows me to link up the answer table column to the question, as shown above (<%= Html.RadioButton(col, "1")%, etc) [/Note] However, when the user DOESN'T answer the question, the value 0 is getting inserted into the database column. As a result, I don't get what I expect, ie, a validation error. In no place have I stipulated a default value of 0 for the fields in the answers table. So what is happening? Any ideas?

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  • MySQL query against pseudo-key-value pair data in WordPress custom query

    - by andrevr
    I'm writing a custom WordPress query to use some of the data which the Woothemes Diarise theme creates. Diarise is an event planner theme with calendar blah, blah... and uses custom fields to store the event start and end dates in WP custom fields in the *wp_postmeta* table, which implements a key-value store. So for each post in the "event" category, there are 2 records in *wp_postmeta*, named *event_start_date* and *event_end_date* that I'm interested in. The task is to compare a tourist's arrival and departure dates with the start and end dates of events, yielding a what's on list of events available. We thought we'd killed it with a grand flash of logic, that goes like this: Disregard any event that ends before the tourist arrives, and any that begin after the departure date. I wrote this query: SELECT wposts.* FROM wp_posts wposts LEFT JOIN wp_postmeta wpostmeta ON wposts.ID = wpostmeta.post_id LEFT JOIN wp_term_relationships ON (wposts.ID = wp_term_relationships.object_id) LEFT JOIN wp_term_taxonomy ON (wp_term_relationships.term_taxonomy_id = wp_term_taxonomy.term_taxonomy_id) WHERE wp_term_taxonomy.taxonomy = 'category' AND wp_term_taxonomy.term_id IN(3,4) AND ( wpostmeta.meta_key = 'event_start_date' AND NOT ( concat(subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,7,4),'-',subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,4,2),'-',subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,1,2) > '2010-07-31' ) ) AND ( wpostmeta.meta_key = 'event_end_date' AND NOT ( concat(subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,7,4),'-',subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,4,2),'-',subst(wpostmeta.meta_value,1,2) < '2010-05-01' ) ) ) ORDER BY wpostmeta.meta_value ASC And, of course it returns no records. The problem I believe is in the dual reference to wpostmeta.meta_key, but how to get around that?

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  • What is the correct high level schema.org microdata itemtype for a retail brand/company homepage?

    - by kpowz
    I'd like to hear which schema.org itemtype others would recommend using or have used in the case of completing a retail brand's company homepage microdata. Take for example TOMS's shoes: Example #1 - Using /Corporation as the high-level itemtype one can include a lot of great /Organization microdata, but nothing about the retail store. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Website> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype="http://schema.org/Corporation> various microdata here probably including Product microdata </body> </html> NOTE: the only schema.org property specific to /Corporation is tickerSymbol & TOMS doesn't have one. Example #2 - This code would work if TOMS started their own channel of physical retail stores & each location had it's own homepage. However, for TOMS's.com, although accurate schematically & more descriptive at the face, this is incorrect microdata markup for TOMS.com, because /ShoeStore derives from /LocalBusiness - which must represent a physical place. <html itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/Website'> <head></head> <body itemscope='itemscope' itemtype='http://schema.org/ShoeStore'> a whole bunch of jabber here </body> </html> NOTE: Since TOMS is virtual & thus can't be a /Store this means you lose really cool properties like 'currenciesAccepted', 'paymentAccepted' & 'priceRange'. Is this just a 'sit and wait' situation until more schemas are approved for 'virtual places' or is there a validation-passing way to get the best of both worlds?

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  • C# & SQL Server Authentication

    - by Peter
    Hello, I'm currently developing a C# app with an SQL Server DB back-end. I'm approaching the point of deployment and hitting a problem. The applicaiton will be deployed within an active directory network. As far as SQL authentication goes, I understand that I have 2 options - Windows Authenticaiton or Server Authenticaiton. If I use Server Authentication, I'm concerned that the username and password for the account will be stored in plain text in the app.config file, and therefore leave the database vulnerable. Using Windows Authenticaiton will avoid this issue, however it would mean giving every member of staff within our organisation read/write access to the database in order to run the app correctly. Whilst this is ok, it also means that they can easily connect to the database themselves via other means and directly alter the data outside of the app. I'm guessing there is someting really obvious I'm missing here, but I've been googling all evening to no avail. Any advice/guidance would be much appreciated! Peter Addition - my project is Windows Form based not ASP.NET - is encrypting the app.config file still the right answer? If it is, does anyone have any examples that are not ASP.NET based?

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  • php how to serialize array of objects?

    - by hequ
    Hello, I have small class called 'Call' and I need to store these calls into a flat file. I've made another class called 'CallStorage' which contains an array where I put these calls into. My problem is that I would like to store this array to disk so I could later read it back and get the calls from that array. I've tried to achieve this using serialize() and unserialize() but these seems to act somehow strange and part of the information gets lost. This is what I'm doing: //write array to disk $filename = $path . 'calls-' . $today; $serialized = serialize($this->array); $fp = fopen($filename, 'a'); fwrite($fp, $serialized); fclose($fp); //read array from serialized file $filename = $path . 'calls-' . $today; if (file_exists($filename)) { $handle = fopen($filename, 'r'); $contents = fread($handle, filesize($filename)); fclose($handle); $unserialized = unserialize($contents); $this->setArray($unserialized); } Can someone see what I'm doing wrong, or what. I've also tried to serialize and write arrays that contains plain strings. I didn't manage to get that working either.. I have a Java background so I just can't see why I couldn't just write an array to disk if it's serialized. :)

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  • Managing Many to Many relationships in asp.net Wizard Control

    - by Luis
    Say I have this entity with a lot of attributes. In the input form I have decided to implement a wizard control so I can collect information about this entity in several steps. The problem is that I need to collect information that has been modeled has many to many relationships. I am planning to use a telerik gridview to manage this (add/edit/delete), the problem is where do I store that data since the entity in a insert form is not created on the database yet. OK so I can store all that info in temporary lists residing in the viewstate, waiting for the final submit where I dump all that in the DB, but one of the steps I am collecting files...now storing files in the viewstate is out of the question, same as as storing them in the session... I have been thinking of implementing in a way that the user has to submit some info first (say first 3 steps), commit the data to the database creating the parent entity and then start inserting all the childs entities...but this will get weird as it's confusing since on the first steps you not saving the data to the DB and on the next ones you are commiting directly... Anyone has any thoughts on this? Thanks

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  • Serialization of Entity Framework Models with .NET WCF Rest Service

    - by Chris Phillips
    I'm trying to put together a very simple REST-style interface for communicating with our partners. An example object in the API is a partner, which we'd like to have serialized like this: <partner> <id>ID</id> <name>NAME</name> </partner> This is fairly simply to achieve using the .NET 4.0 WCF REST template if we simply declare a partner class as: public class Partner { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} } But when I use the Entity Framework to define and store Partner objects, the resulting serialization looks something like this: <Partner p1:Id="NCNameString" p1:Ref="NCNameString" xmlns:p1="http://schemas.microsoft.com/2003/10/Serialization/" xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/TheTradeDesk.AdPlatform.Provisioning"> <EntityKey p1:Id="NCNameString" p1:Ref="NCNameString" xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data.Objects.DataClasses"> <EntityContainerName xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data">String content</EntityContainerName> <EntityKeyValues xmlns="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/System.Data"> ... This XML is obviously unacceptable for use as an external API. What are suggested mechanisms for using EF for the data store but maintaining a simple XML serialization interface?

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  • How to map a 0..1 to 1 relationship in Entity Framework 3

    - by sako73
    I have two tables, Users, and Address. A the user table has a field that maps to the primary key of the address table. This field can be null. In plain english, Address exist independent of other objects. A user may be associated with one address. In the database, I have this set up as a foreign key relationship. I am attempting to map this relationship in the Entity Framework. I am getting errors on the following code: <Association Name="fk_UserAddress"> <End Role="User" Type="GenesisEntityModel.Store.User" Multiplicity="1"/> <End Role="Address" Type="GenesisEntityModel.Store.Address" Multiplicity="0..1" /> <ReferentialConstraint> <Principal Role="Address"> <PropertyRef Name="addressId"/> </Principal> <Dependent Role="User"> <PropertyRef Name="addressId"/> </Dependent> </ReferentialConstraint> </Association> It is giving a "The Lower Bound of the multiplicity must be 0" error. I would appreciate it if anyone could explain the error, and the best way to solve it. Thanks for any help.

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  • Deploy to web container, bundle web container or embed web container...

    - by Jason
    I am developing an application that needs to be as simple as possible to install for the end user. While the end users will likely be experience Linux users (or sales engineers), they don't really know anything about Tomcat, Jetty, etc, nor do I think they should. So I see 3 ways to deploy our applications. I should also state that this is the first app that I have had to deploy that had a web interface, so I haven't really faced this question before. First is to deploy the application into an existing web container. Since we only deploy to Suse or RedHat this seems easy enough to do. However, we're not big on the idea of multiple apps running in one web container. It makes it harder to take down just one app. The next option is to just bundle Tomcat or Jetty and have the startup/shutdown scripts launch our bundled web container. Or 3rd, embed.. This will probably provide the same user experience as the second option. I'm curious what others do when faced with this problem to make it as fool proof as possible on the end user. I've almost ruled out deploying into an existing web container as we often like to set per application resource limits and CPU affinity, which I believe would affect all apps deployed into a web container/app server and not just a specific application. Thank you.

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  • How can I get git to work with a remote server?

    - by Adrienne
    I am the CM person for a small company that just started using Git. We have two Git repositories currently hosted on a Windows box that is our all-purpose Windows server. But, we just set up a dedicated server for our CM software on an Ubuntu Linux server named "Callisto". So I created a test Git repository on Callisto. I gave its directory all of the proper permissions recursively. I had the sysadmin create a login for me on Callisto, and I created a key to use for logging in via SSH. I set up my key to use a passphrase; I don't know if that could be contributing to my problems? Anyway, I know my SSH login works because I tested it through puTTY. But, even after hours of trials and head scratching, I can't get my Windows Git bash (mSysGit) to talk to Callisto for the purposes of pushing or pulling Callisto's git repository files. I keep getting "Fatal error. The remote end hung up unexpectedly." And I've even gotten the error that Git doesn't recognize the test repository on Callisto as a git repository. I read online that the "Fatal error...hung up unexpectedly" is usually a problem with the server connection or permissions. So what am I missing or overlooking here? And why doesn't a pull using the git:// protocol work, since that only uses read-only access? Group and public permissions for the git repository's directory on Callisto are set to read and execute, but not write. If anyone could help, I would be so grateful. Thank you.

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  • S3 file Uploading from Mac app though PHP?

    - by Ilija Tovilo
    I have asked this question before, but it was deleted due too little information. I'll try to be more concrete this time. I have an Objective-C mac application, which should allow users to upload files to S3-storage. The s3 storage is mine, the users don't have an Amazon account. Until now, the files were uploaded directly to the amazon servers. After thinking some more about it, it wasn't really a great concept, regarding security and flexibility. I want to add a server in between. The user should authenticate with my server, the server would open a session if the authentication was successful, and the file-sharing could begin. Now my question. I want to upload the files to S3. One option would be to make a POST-request and wait until the server would receive the file. Problems here are, that there would be a delay, when the file is being uploaded from my server to the S3 servers, and it would double the uploading time. Best would be, if I could validate the request, and then redirecting it, so the client uploads it directly to the s3-storage. Not sure if this is possible somehow. Uploading directly to S3 doesn't seem to be very smart. After looking into other apps like Droplr and Dropmark, it looks like they don't do this. Btw. I did this using Little Snitch. They have their api on their own web-server, and that's it. Could someone clear things up for me? EDIT How should I transmit my files to S3? Is there a way to "forward" it, or do I have to upload it to my server and then upload it from there to S3? Like I said, other apps can do this efficiently and without the need of communicating with S3 directly.

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  • Phonegap Android application exiting - but not really - when home button is pressed

    - by Lucas T
    I have created an Phonegap 1.5/Android application. My client reports that, when he leaves the app using the Home button, and then relaunches it using the app icon, the app relaunches from the start instead of resuming. However, when he holds the home button, the app appears in the running apps, and when he accesses the app through this menu, the app resumes in the expected way. I thought this could be linked to the app being automatically closed by the OS due to a lack of memory, but if that was the case the app shouldn't appear in the running apps. I could not reproduce the bug on my Sony Ericsson XPERIA with Android 2.3.4, the client has experienced this behaviour on a Motorola Defy and on another phone (i'll add the reference of the other phone and the OS versions as soon as I get them). The initialization process of the app is declared this way : window.addEventListener('load', function(){ document.addEventListener('deviceready', _onDeviceReady, false); }, false); Could this be fixed by attaching the processes to other events (although I doubt it, the app really seems to be relaunched from the start) ? Is there a declaration to make in the Android Manifest to prevent this behavior ? Is that a known bug in some Android phones/versions ?

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  • Cassandra instead of MySQL for social networking app

    - by Christopher McCann
    I am in the middle of building a new app which will have very similar features to Facebook and although obviously it wont ever have to deal with the likes of 400,000,000 million users it will still be used by a substantial user base and most of them will demand it run very very quickly. I have extensive experience with MySQL but a social app offers complexities which MySQL is not well suited too. I know Facebook, Twitter etc have moved towards Cassandra for a lot of their data but I am not sure how far to go with it. For example would you store such things as user data - username, passwords, addresses etc in Cassandra? Would you store e-mails, comments, status updates etc in Cassandra? I have also read alot that something like neo4j is much better for representing the friend relationships used by social apps as it is a graph database. I am only just starting down the NoSQL route so any guidance is greatly appreciated. Would anyone be able to advise me on this? I hope I am not being too general!

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  • On XP, how do I get the tooltip to appear above a transclucent form?

    - by Daniel Stutzbach
    I have an form with an Opacity less then 1.0. I have a tooltip associated with a label on the form. When I hover the mouse over the label, the tooltip shows up under the form instead of over the form. If I leave the Opacity at its default value of 1.0, the tooltip correctly appears over the form. However, my form is obviously no longer translucent. ;-) I have tried manually adjusting the position of the ToolTip with SetWindowPos() and creating a ToolTip "by hand" using CreateWindowEx(), but the problem remains. This makes me suspect its a Win32 API problem, not a problem with the Windows Forms implementation that runs on top of Win32. Why does the tooltip appear under the form, and, more importantly, how can I get it to appear over the form where it should? Edit: this appears to be an XP-only problem. Vista and Windows 7 work correctly. I'd still like to find a workaround to get the tooltip to appear above the form on XP. Here is a minimal program to demonstrate the problem: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; public class Form1 : Form { private ToolTip toolTip1; private Label label1; [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } public Form1() { toolTip1 = new ToolTip(); label1 = new Label(); label1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(105, 127); label1.Text = "Hover over me"; label1.AutoSize = true; toolTip1.SetToolTip(label1, "This is a moderately long string, " + "designed to be very long so that it will also be quite long."); ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(292, 268); Controls.Add(label1); Opacity = 0.8; } }

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  • InputManager ignores cut/copy/paste when initiated from menu

    - by Wallstreet Programmer
    I'm using the InputManager to check if changes to controls are done by user or code. This works fine, except when user uses the context menu for cut/copy/paste. If the user do ctrl+v in a textbox, InputManager correctly notices it. However, if the paste is done from the context menu of the textbox, the InputManager never fires the PreNotifyInput or PostNotifyInput events. Anyone knows why? Or how to detect that these user actions? Below is a working sample. The lower textblock never gets updated when user uses the cut/copy/paste menu in the above textbox since PreNotifyInput never fires. XAML: <Window x:Class="InputMgrDemo.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <TextBox TextChanged="TextBox_TextChanged" /> <TextBlock Name="_text" /> </StackPanel> </Window> Code behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Input; namespace InputMgrDemo { public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); InputManager.Current.PreNotifyInput += ((sender, e) => _userInput = true); InputManager.Current.PostNotifyInput += ((sender, args) => _userInput = false); } private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { if (_userInput) { _text.Text = (sender as TextBox).Text; } } private bool _userInput; } }

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  • Schema for storing "binary" values, such as Male/Female, in a database

    - by latentflip
    Intro I am trying to decide how best to set up my database schema for a (Rails) model. I have a model related to money which indicates whether the value is an income (positive cash value) or an expense (negative cash value). I would like separate column(s) to indicate whether it is an income or an expense, rather than relying on whether the value stored is positive or negative. Question: How would you store these values, and why? Have a single column, say Income, and store 1 if it's an income, 0 if it's an expense, null if not known. Have two columns, Income and Expense, setting their values to 1 or 0 as appropriate. Something else? I figure the question is similar to storing a person's gender in a database (ignoring aliens/transgender/etc) hence my title. My thoughts so far Lookup might be easier with a single column, but there is a risk of mistaking 0 (false, expense) for null (unknown). Having seperate columns might be more difficult to maintain (what happens if we end up with a 1 in both columns? Maybe it's not that big a deal which way I go, but it would be great to have any concerns/thoughts raised before I get too far down the line and have to change my code-base because I missed something that should have been obvious! Thanks, Philip

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