Search Results

Search found 46897 results on 1876 pages for 'nested class'.

Page 1709/1876 | < Previous Page | 1705 1706 1707 1708 1709 1710 1711 1712 1713 1714 1715 1716  | Next Page >

  • Absolute position <span> in <li> - strange -

    - by kevinius
    Hi, So i have a normal list <ul class="test"> <li><span><a href="">Gemeente</a><span></span></span></li> <li><span><a href="">Openingsuren</a><span></span></span></li> <li><span><a href="">Gezondheid</a><span></span></span></li> </ul> 1: The second <span> is a 100x100 block background image. 2: The list is a normal bulleted list, not floated 3: The <ul> has position:relative, the <li> has not 4: The second <span> is set to position:absolute; top:0px; left:0px; The problem The second <span> gets positioned relative to the <li> dsf not the <ul>. Why is that?

    Read the article

  • Coordinating typedefs and structs in std::multiset (C++)

    - by Sarah
    I'm not a professional programmer, so please don't hesitate to state the obvious. My goal is to use a std::multiset container (typedef EventMultiSet) called currentEvents to organize a list of structs, of type Event, and to have members of class Host occasionally add new Event structs to currentEvents. The structs are supposed to be sorted by one of their members, time. I am not sure how much of what I am trying to do is legal; the g++ compiler reports (in "Host.h") "error: 'EventMultiSet' has not been declared." Here's what I'm doing: // Event.h struct Event { public: bool operator < ( const Event & rhs ) const { return ( time < rhs.time ); } double time; int eventID; int hostID; }; // Host.h ... void calcLifeHist( double, EventMultiSet * ); // produces compiler error ... void addEvent( double, int, int, EventMultiSet * ); // produces compiler error // Host.cpp #include "Event.h" ... // main.cpp #include "Event.h" ... typedef std::multiset< Event, std::less< Event > > EventMultiSet; EventMultiSet currentEvents; EventMultiSet * cePtr = &currentEvents; ... Major questions Where should I include the EventMultiSet typedef? Are my EventMultiSet pointers obviously problematic? Is the compare function within my Event struct (in theory) okay? Thank you very much in advance.

    Read the article

  • ojspc always returns 0 on errors

    - by Matt McCormick
    In my Ant build.xml file, I am trying to compile JSPs using ojspc. The files are being compiled, however, the build process is still running to completion when the JSP compilation has errors. This is part of my build.xml: <java fork="true" jar="${env.ORACLE_HOME}\j2ee\home\ojspc.jar" resultproperty="result"> <jvmarg value="-Djava.compiler=NONE"/> <arg value="-extend"/> <arg value="com.orionserver.http.OrionHttpJspPage"/> <arg value="-batchMask"/> <arg value="*.jsp"/> <arg value="${target-directory}/build/target/ear/${module-dir-name}-jsp.war"/> </java> <echo level="info">Result Property: ${result}</echo> I have tried setting the property failonerror="true" but that does not change anything. I receive the following output: [java] Detected archive, now processing contents of ../build/target/ear/web-module-jsp.war... [java] Setting up temp area... [java] Expanding archive in temp area... [java] C:\DOCUME~1\MMCCOR~1\LOCALS~1\Temp\tmp12940\_web_2d_inf\_jsp\_password.java:60: cannot resolve symbol [java] symbol : variable reqvst [java] location: class _web_2d_inf._jsp._password [java] out.print(reqvst.getAttribute("test")); [java] ^ [java] 1 error [java] Creating D:\eclipse-workspace\jdw\build\..\build\target\ear\web-module-jsp.war ... [java] Removing temp area... [echo] Result Property: 0 ...(more commands) BUILD SUCCESSFUL In the password.jsp file, I intentionally introduced an error to test. How can I get the build to fail on an error? At the Ant Java page, I am confused by: By default the return code of a is ignored. Alternatively, you can set resultproperty to the name of a property and have it assigned to the result code (barring immutability, of course). When you set failonerror="true", the only possible value for resultproperty is 0. Any non-zero response is treated as an error and would mean the build exits.

    Read the article

  • Radiobuttons and jQuery

    - by SnowJim
    Hi, I have the following radiobuttons rendered in MVC : <div class="radio" id="ModelViewAd.TypeOfAd"> <input checked="checked" id="ModelViewAd.TypeOfAd_Ad" name="ModelViewAd.TypeOfAd.SelectedValue" type="radio" value="Ad" /> <label for="ModelViewAd.TypeOfAd_Ad">Annons</label><br> <input id="ModelViewAd.TypeOfAd_Auktion" name="ModelViewAd.TypeOfAd.SelectedValue" type="radio" value="Auktion" /> <label for="ModelViewAd.TypeOfAd_Auktion">Auktion</label><br> </div> Now I need to hide the id=divEndDate element based on the value on the radiogroup. I have tried this : $(document).ready(function () { $("#TypeOfAd_Auktion").click(function () { if ($(this).checked) { $("divEndDate").css("visibility", "visible"); } else { $("divEndDate").css("visibility", "hidden"); } }); $("#ModelViewAd.TypeOfAd_Ad").click(function () { if ($(this).checked) { $("divEndDate").css("visibility", "hidden"); } else { $("divEndDate").css("visibility", "visible"); } }); }); Now one of these are triggered when switching between the radio buttons? How to solve this?

    Read the article

  • Update Input Value With jQuery, Old Value Submitted to Form

    - by Tyler DeWitt
    I've got a form with an input with id/name league_id <form accept-charset="UTF-8" action="/user" method="post"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="utf8" type="hidden" value="?"><input name="authenticity_token" type="hidden" value="bb92urX83ivxOZZJzWLJMcr5ZSuamowO9O9Sxh5gqKo="></div> <input id="league_id" name="league_id" type="text" value="11"> <select class="sport_selector" id="sport_type_id" name="sport_type_id"><option value="5" selected="selected">Football</option> <option value="25">Women's Soccer</option> <option value="30">Volleyball</option> <option value="10">Men's Soccer</option></select> <input name="commit" type="submit" value="Save changes"> </form> In another part of my page, I have a drop down that, when changed, clears the value of league_id $("#sport_type_id").change -> $("#league_id").val(null) $(this).parents('form:first').submit() If I debug this page, I can see the value get wiped from the text box, but when the form is submitted, my controller always gets the old value. I tried changing the name of the input and got the same results.

    Read the article

  • Suggestions on error handling of Win32 C++ code: AtlThrow vs. STL exceptions

    - by EmbeddedProg
    In writing Win32 C++ code, I'd appreciate some hints on how to handle errors of Win32 APIs. In particular, in case of a failure of a Win32 function call (e.g. MapViewOfFile), is it better to: use AtlThrowLastWin32 define a Win32Exception class derived from std::exception, with an added HRESULT data member to store the HRESULT corresponding to value returned by GetLastError? In this latter case, I could use the what() method to return a detailed error string (e.g. "MapViewOfFile call failed in MyClass::DoSomething() method."). What are the pros and cons of 1 vs. 2? Is there any other better option that I am missing? As a side note, if I'd like to localize the component I'm developing, how could I localize the exception what() string? I was thinking of building a table mapping the original English string returned by what() into a Unicode localized error string. Could anyone suggest a better approach? Thanks much for your insights and suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Problem with mouse event on a user control (wpf).

    - by csciguy
    All, I have a user control, defined as follows. <UserControl x:Class="IDOView.AnimatedCharacter" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:IDOView" mc:Ignorable="d" Background="Transparent" > <Image Name="displayImage" Height="Auto" Width="Auto" Stretch="Fill" IsHitTestVisible="True"/> The control is added to a main page twice, as follows. <local:customControl x:Name="A1" Height="259" Width="197" DisplayImage="circle.png" Canvas.Left="-279" Canvas.Top="-56" MouseLeftButtonUp="DoA1"> <local:customControl x:Name="A1" Height="259" Width="197" DisplayImage="square.png" Canvas.Left="-209" Canvas.Top="-56" MouseLeftButtonUp="DoA2"> Essentially, about half of the circle is behind the square. I need the square image in this case to pass through events to the circle behind it. The square has an element cut out of it (transparent). What is happening now is that the circle event only registers if I click on the region that is not covered by the square. Surely there has to be a way to bubble this event, or click-through?

    Read the article

  • How to inject php code from database into php script ?

    - by luxquarta
    I want to store php code inside my database and then use it into my script. class A { public function getName() { return "lux"; } } // instantiates a new A $a = new A(); Inside my database there is data like "hello {$a->getName()}, how are you ?" In my php code I load the data into a variable $string $string = load_data_from_db(); echo $string; // echoes hello {$a->getName()}, how are you ? So now $string contains "hello {$a-getName()}, how are you ?" {$a-getName()} still being un-interpretated Question: I can't find how to write the rest of the code so that {$a-getName()} gets interpretated "into hello lux, how are you". Can someone help ? $new_string = ?????? echo $new_string; //echoes hello lux, how are you ? Is there a solution with eval() ? (please no debate about evil eval ;)) Or any other solution ?

    Read the article

  • HTML Helper/Text Box validation

    - by slandau
    I have this input on the view: <%= Html.TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission("EffectiveDate", Model.EffectiveDate.HasValue ? Model.EffectiveDate.Value.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") : "", new string[] { PERMISSIONS.hasICAdvanced }, new { @class = "economicTextBox", propertyName = "EffectiveDate", onchange = "parseAndSetDt(this); ", dataType = "Date" })%> Here is the custom HTML Helper: public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission( this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string name, object value, string[] permissions, object htmlAttributes ) { foreach (string permission in permissions) { if (Chatham.Web.UI.Extranet.SessionManager.DisplayUser.IsInRole(permission)) { // the user has the permission => render the textbox return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value, htmlAttributes); } } // the user has no permission => render a readonly checkbox var mergedHtmlAttributes = new RouteValueDictionary(htmlAttributes); mergedHtmlAttributes["disabled"] = "disabled"; return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value == "" ? DateTime.Now : value, mergedHtmlAttributes); } The way this works now is, when a user does NOT have the permission passed in, the box is disabled. The way it needs to be -- if the user does NOT have the permission passed in, it needs to be enabled, however the only dates it can accept are todays date AND dates in the future. So I need JQuery validation (or just plain JS), for this textbox on the page for the following case: If the textbox is enabled AND the user does not have the permission, allow the user to input the current date or future dates ONLY.

    Read the article

  • How can I compile .NET 3.5 C# code on a system without Visual Studio?

    - by JimEvans
    I have some C# code that uses some constructs specific to .NET 3.5. When you install the .NET Framework distribution, you get the C# compiler installed with it (csc.exe). Even if I specify the csc.exe in C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5, I cannot compile the code on a computer with only the .NET Framework installed, but not Visual Studio. I am able to compile code that uses v2.0 constructs without difficulty. How can I accomplish this? Here is a sample that demonstrates my problem: using System; class Program { public static void Main() { // The MacOSX value to the PlatformID enum was added after // .NET v2.0 if (Environment.OSVersion.Platform == PlatformID.MacOSX) { Console.WriteLine("Found mac"); } Console.WriteLine("Simple program"); } } When compiling this code using csc.exe, I receive the following error: test.cs(9, 58): error CS0117: 'System.PlatformID' does not contain a definition for 'MacOSX' When executing csc.exe /? I receive the banner: Microsoft (R) Visual C# 2008 Compiler version 3.5.21022.8 for Microsoft (R) .NET Framework version 3.5 Copyright (C) Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved.

    Read the article

  • Change a finder method w/ parameters to an association

    - by Sai Emrys
    How do I turn this into a has_one association? (Possibly has_one + a named scope for size.) class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id' def avatar_asset size = :thumb # The LIKE is because it might be a .jpg, .png, or .gif. # More efficient methods that can handle that are OK. ;) self.assets.find :first, :conditions => ["thumbnail = '#{size}' and filename LIKE ?", self.login + "_#{size}.%"] end end EDIT: Cuing from AnalogHole on Freenode #rubyonrails, we can do this: has_many :assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id' do def avatar size = :thumb find :first, :conditions => ["thumbnail = ? and filename LIKE ?", size.to_s, proxy_owner.login + "_#{size}.%"] end end ... which is fairly cool, and makes syntax a bit better at least. However, this still doesn't behave as well as I would like. Particularly, it doesn't allow for further nice find chaining (such that it doesn't execute this find until it's gotten all its conditions). More importantly, it doesn't allow for use in an :include. Ideally I want to do something like this: PostsController def show post = Post.get_cache(params[:id]) { Post.find(params[:id], :include => {:comments => {:users => {:avatar_asset => :thumb}} } ... end ... so that I can cache the assets together with the post. Or cache them at all, really - e.g. get_cache(user_id){User.find(user_id, :include => :avatar_assets)} would be a good first pass. This doesn't actually work (self == User), but is correct in spirit: has_many :avatar_assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id', :class_name => 'Asset', :conditions => ["filename LIKE ?", self.login + "_%"] (Also posted on Refactor My Code.)

    Read the article

  • Delphi SQLite Update causing errors to appear.

    - by NeoNMD
    I have used Inserts, selects, updates, deleted without problem all over the program but for some reason this specific section causes it to except and not run the SQL I send it. I am trying to "UPDATE SectionTable(AreaID) VALUES ('+IntToStr(ActClient.AreaID)+') WHERE SectionID='+IntToStr(iCount)" The section with the ID "iCount" exists deffinately. The ActClient.AreaID is "2" and its overwriting null data in the "SectionTable" table. What is the problem here? OpenDatabase(slDb); sltb:=sldb.GetTable('SELECT * FROM SectionTable WHERE SectionID='+IntToStr(iCount)); OutputDebugString(PAnsiChar(sltb.FieldAsString(sltb.FieldIndex['SectionID'])+sltb.FieldAsString(sltb.FieldIndex['Gender'])+sltb.FieldAsString(sltb.FieldIndex['CompetitionID']))); sSQL := 'UPDATE SectionTable(AreaID) VALUES ('+IntToStr(ActClient.AreaID)+') WHERE SectionID='+IntToStr(iCount); sldb.ExecSQL(sSQL); CloseDatabase(slDb); I get this error message appear when this is ran. --------------------------- Debugger Exception Notification --------------------------- Project CompetitionServer.exe raised exception class ESQLiteException with message 'Error executing SQL. Error [1]: SQL error or missing database. "UPDATE SectionTable(AreaID) VALUES (2) WHERE SectionID=2": near "(": syntax error'. Process stopped. Use Step or Run to continue. --------------------------- OK Help ---------------------------

    Read the article

  • Call .NET Webservice with Android

    - by Lasse P
    Hi, I know this question has been asked here before, but I don't think those answers were adequate for my needs. We have a SOAP webservice that is used for an iPhone application, but it is possible that we need an Android specific version or a proxy of the service, so we have the option to go with either SOAP or JSON. I have a few concerns about both methods: SOAP solution: Is it possible to generate java source code from a WSDL file, if so, will it include some kind of proxy class to invoke the webservice and will it work in the Android environment at all? Google has not provided any SOAP library in Android, so i need to use 3rd party, any suggestion? What about the performance/overhead with parsing and transmitting SOAP xml over the wire versus the JSON solution? JSON solution: There is a few classes in the Android sdk that will let me parse JSON, but does it support generic parsing, like if I want the result to be parsed as a complex type? Or would I need to implement that myself? I have read about 2 libraries before here on Stackoverflow, GSON an Jackson. What is the difference performance and usability (from a developers perspective) wise? Do you guys have any experince with either of those libraries? So i guess the big question is, what method to go with? I hope you can help me out. Thanks in advance :-)

    Read the article

  • how to minimize application downtime when updating database and application ORM

    - by yamspog
    We currently run an ecommerce solution for a leisure and travel company. Everytime we have a release, we must bring the ecommerce site down as we update database schema and the data access code. We are using a custom built ORM where each data entity is responsible for their own CRUD operations. This is accomplished by dynamically generating the SQL based on attributes in the data entity. For example, the data entity for an address would be... [tableName="address"] public class address : dataEntity { [column="address1"] public string address1; [column="city"] public string city; } So, if we add a new column to the database, we must update the schema of the database and also update the data entity. As you can expect, the business people are not too happy about this outage as it puts a crimp in their cash-flow. The operations people are not happy as they have to deal with a high-pressure time when database and applications are upgraded. The programmers are upset as they are constantly getting in trouble for the legacy system that they inherited. Do any of you smart people out there have some suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Spring Security ACL: NotFoundException from JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl

    - by user340202
    Hello, I've been working on this task for too long to abandon the idea of using Spring Security to achieve it, but I wish that the community will provide with some support that will help reduce the regret that I have for choosing Spring Security. Enough ranting and now let's get to the point. I'm trying to create an ACL by using JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl as follows: [code] public void addPermission(IWFArtifact securedObject, Sid recipient, Permission permission, Class clazz) { ObjectIdentity oid = new ObjectIdentityImpl(clazz.getCanonicalName(), securedObject.getId()); this.addPermission(oid, recipient, permission); } @Override @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, isolation = Isolation.READ_UNCOMMITTED, readOnly = false) public void addPermission(ObjectIdentity oid, Sid recipient, Permission permission) { SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet(); MutableAcl acl; try { acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); } catch (AlreadyExistsException e) { acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); } // try { // acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); // } catch (NotFoundException nfe) { // acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); // } acl.insertAce(acl.getEntries().length, permission, recipient, true); this.mutableAclService.updateAcl(acl); } [/code] The call throws a NotFoundException from the line: [code] // Retrieve the ACL via superclass (ensures cache registration, proper retrieval etc) Acl acl = readAclById(objectIdentity); [/code] I believe this is caused by something related to Transactional, and that's why I have tested with many TransactionDefinition attributes. I have also doubted the annotation and tried with declarative transaction definition, but still with no luck. One important point is that I have used the statement used to insert the oid in the database earlier in the method directly on the database and it worked, and also threw a unique constraint exception at me when it tried to insert it in the method. I'm using Spring Security 2.0.8 and IceFaces 1.8 (which doesn't support spring 3.0 but definetely supprorts 2.0.x, specially when I keep caling SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet()). My AppServer is Tomcat 6.0, and my DB Server is MySQL 6.0 I wish to get back a reply soon because I need to get this task off my way

    Read the article

  • Grails GORM rarely works in domain classes

    - by Vena
    I have many to many relationship between User and Organization. I want to delete user from all his organizations when the user is being deleted, so this is basically what I came up with: class User { ... def beforeDelete() { def user = User.get(id) Organization.all.each { it.removeFromMembers(user) it.save() } } } This surprisingly doesn't work because User.get(id) returns null even though the user with the given id is in the database, when I look at the log, no sql statement is even executed. So I tried to use load() method insted. ObjectNotFoundException is the result then. So I tried this as I was quite desperate: def user = User.find("from User as u where u.id = ?", [1L]) This, for some reason, works. But now, the line with it.removeFromMembers(user) throws NullPointerException. I tried to put this logic in my UserController and it works! Why is this? Why can't I do this in domain classes? This makes beforeDelete hook (and all the others too) pretty useless.

    Read the article

  • Access property of DataContext in ItemTemplate

    - by amrinder
    My datacontext has two properties: Items which is a collection and DetailsVisiblity which is enum of type Visiblity. On the page I have a Listbox with ItemsSource="{Binding Entries}". Inside the DataTemplate, I can bind stuff to properties of Items, but how do I get access to DetailsVisiblity which is a property of DataContext? DataContext has two properties: ObservableCollection<Item> Entries, and Visibility DetailsVisiblity. Item class has two properties: Title and Details. Here is the view. How do I bind Visiblity of the second TextBlock to DetailsVisiblity property? <ListBox "{Binding Items}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Title}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Details}" Visibility="{Binding ???}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox>

    Read the article

  • Java reading xml element without prefix but within the scope of a namespace

    - by wsxedc
    Functionally, the two blocks should be the same <soapenv:Body> <ns1:login xmlns:ns1="urn:soap.sof.com"> <userInfo> <username>superuser</username> <password>qapass</password> </userInfo> </ns1:login> </soapenv:Body> ----------------------- <soapenv:Body> <ns1:login xmlns:ns1="urn:soap.sof.com"> <ns1:userInfo> <ns1:username>superuser</ns1:username> <ns1:password>qapass</ns1:password> </ns1:userInfo> </ns1:login> </soapenv:Body> However, how when I read using AXIS2 and I have tested it with java6 as well, I am having a problem. MessageFactory factory = MessageFactory.newInstance(); SOAPMessage soapMsg = factory.createMessage(new MimeHeaders(), SimpleTest.class.getResourceAsStream("LoginSoap.xml")); SOAPBody body = soapMsg.getSOAPBody(); NodeList nodeList = body.getElementsByTagNameNS("urn:soap.sof.com", "login"); System.out.println("Try to get login element" + nodeList.getLength()); // I can get the login element Node item = nodeList.item(0); NodeList elementsByTagNameNS = ((Element)item).getElementsByTagNameNS("urn:soap.sof.com", "username"); System.out.println("try to get username element " + elementsByTagNameNS.getLength()); So if I replace the 2nd getElementsByTagNameNS with ((Element)item).getElementsByTagName("username");, I am able to get the username element. Doesn't username have ns1 namespace even though it doesn't have the prefix? Am I suppose to keep track of the namespace scope to read an element? Wouldn't it became nasty if my xml elements are many level deep? Is there a workaround where I can read the element in ns1 namespace without knowing whether a prefix is defined?

    Read the article

  • Dealing With Java Default Level Access Specifiers

    - by Tom Tresansky
    I've seen some code in a project recently where some fields in a couple classes have been using the default access modifier without good reason to. It almost looks like a case of "oops, forgot to make these private". Since the classes are used almost exclusively outside of the package they are defined in, the fields are not visible from the calling code, and are treated as private. So the mistake/oversight would not be very noticeable. However, encapsulation is broken. If I wanted to add a new class to the existing package, I could then mess with internal data in objects using fields with default access. So, my questions: Are there any best practices concerning default access specifiers that I should be aware of? Anything that would help prevent this type of accident from re-occurring? Are are any annotations which might say something to the effect of "I really meant for these to be default access"? Using CheckStyle, or any other Eclipse plugins, is there any way to flag instances of default fields, or disallow any not accompanied by, say, a "//default access" comment trailing them?

    Read the article

  • how to redirect user depending on user type at time of login (codeignitor)

    - by Anam Tahir
    im facing problem while redirecting my user according to its type. how can do it here's my code plz suggest how to do it. <?php if ( ! defined('BASEPATH')) exit('No direct script access allowed'); class VerifyLogin extends CI_Controller { function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } function index() { $this->load->model('user','',TRUE); //This method will have the credentials validation $this->load->library('form_validation'); $this->load->library('session'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('username', 'Username','trim|required|xss_clean'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('password', 'Password' 'trim|required|xss_clean|callback_check_database'); if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { //Field validation failed.&nbsp; User redirected to login page validation_errors(); $this->load->view('error'); } else { //Go to private area basically here i want to redirect if user is admin then redirect to admin page else redirect to home how can i do this ??? redirect('home', 'refresh'); } } function check_database($password) { //Field validation succeeded.&nbsp; Validate against database $username = $this->input->post('username'); //query the database $result = $this->user->login($username, $password); if($result) { $sess_array = array(); foreach($result as $row) { $sess_array = array( 'id' => $row->id, 'username' => $row->username ); $this->session->set_userdata('logged_in', $sess_array); } return TRUE; } else { $this->form_validation->set_message('check_database', 'Invalid username or password'); return false; } } } ?>

    Read the article

  • Backbone.js routes not firing

    - by drale2k
    I have a Base Router where i define some functions that need to be run everywhere. Every Router extends this Router. Now my problem is, that none of my routes defined in this Base router, actually fire. Every other route in other Routers work fine. I have created a test route called 'a' which calls method 'b', which should fire an alert but nothing happens. Here is the code: (This is Coffeescript, don't pay attention to the indentation, it's fine in my file) class Etaxi.Routers.Base extends Backbone.Router routes: 'register' : 'registerDevice' 'a' : 'b' b: -> alert "a" initialize: -> @registerDevice() unless localStorage.device_id? @getGeolocation() registerDevice: -> @collection = new Etaxi.Collections.Devices() @collection.fetch() view = new Etaxi.Views.RegisterDevice(collection: @collection) $('#wrapper').append(view.render().el) getGeolocation: -> navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition (position) -> lat = position.coords.latitude lng = position.coords.longitude #$('#apphead').tap -> # alert 'Position: ' + lat + " ," + lng So when i visit '/register' or '/a' it should fire the appropriate method but it does not. I wonder if it has something to do with the fact that other Router extend from this Router? Would be wired but it is the only thing i can think of because every other Router works fine.

    Read the article

  • When should we use private variables and when should we use properties.

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    In most of the cases we usually creates a private variable and its corresponding public properties and uses them for performing our functionalities. Everyone has different approach like some ppl uses properties every where and some uses private variables within a same class as they are private and opens it to be used by external environment by using properties. Suppose I takes a scenario say insertion in a database. I creates some parameters that need to be initialized. I creates 10 private variables and their corresp public properties which are given as private string name; public string Name { get{return name;} set{name=value;} } and so on. In these cases what should be used internally variables or properties. And in those cases like public string Name { get{return name;} set{name=value>5?5:0;} //or any action can be done. this is just an eg. } In such cases what should be done.

    Read the article

  • Unobstrusive pseudo-classes and attribute selectors emulation in IE

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm trying to emulate some pseudo-classes and attribute selectors in Internet Explorer 6 and 7, such as :focus, :hover or [type=text]. So far, I've managed to add a class name to the affected elements: $("input, textarea, select") .hover(function(){ $(this).addClass("hover"); }, function(){ $(this).removeClass("hover"); }) .focus(function(){ $(this).addClass("focus"); }) .blur(function(){ $(this).removeClass("focus"); }); $("input[type=text]").each(function(){ $(this).addClass("text"); }); However, I'm still forced to duplicate selector in my style sheets: textarea:focus, textarea.focus{ } And, to make things worse, IE6 seems to ignore all the selectors when it finds an attribute: input[type=text], input.text{ /* IE6 ignores this */ } And, of course, IE6 ignores selectors with multiple classes: input.text.focus{ /* IE6 ignores this */ } So I'm likely to end up with this mess: input[type=text]{ /* Rules here */ } input.text{ /* Same rules again */ } input[type=text]:focus{ } input.text_and_focus{ } input.text_and_hover{ } input.text_and_focus_and_hover{ } My question: is there any way to read the rules or computed style defined for a CSS selector and apply it to certain elements, so I only need to maintain one set of standard CSS?

    Read the article

  • webBrower Button Click without element ID?

    - by Jeremy
    I'm working on a login system for a forum and trying to make it work via a c# .net form. I need to programitically click the login button on the forum with a webBrower control. So far I have this. webPage page = new webPage(); page.URL = txtURL.Text; page.Load(); //Load the text from the specified URL WebBrowser browser = new WebBrowser(); browser.Document.GetElementById("navbar_username").SetAttribute("value", textBox1.Text); browser.Document.GetElementById("navbar_password").SetAttribute("value", textBox2.Text); HtmlElement el = browser.Document.All["btnI"]; if (el != null) { el.InvokeMember("click"); } else { MessageBox.Show("There is an issue with the program"); } The issue is that the login button on the page does not have an ID or any real information that can allow me to click on it. Does anyone have any suggestions? Here is the code for the login button. <input type="image" src="images/loginbutton.png" class="loginbutton" tabindex="104" value="Log in" title="Enter your username and password in the boxes provided to login, or click the 'register' button to create a profile for yourself." accesskey="s">

    Read the article

  • What is the difference between .get() and .fetch(1)

    - by AutomatedTester
    I have written an app and part of it is uses a URL parser to get certain data in a ReST type manner. So if you put /foo/bar as the path it will find all the bar items and if you put /foo it will return all items below foo So my app has a query like data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).get() Which works brilliantly. Now I want to send this to the UI using templates {% for datum in data %} <div class="content"> <h2>{{ datum.title }}</h2> {{ datum.content }} </div> {% endfor %} When I do this I get data is not iterable error. So I updated the Django to {% for datum in data.all %} which now appears to pull more data than I was giving it somehow. It shows all data in the datastore which is not ideal. So I removed the .all from the Django and changed the datastore query to data = Paths.all().filter('path =', self.request.path).fetch(1) which now works as I intended. In the documentation it says The db.get() function fetches an entity from the datastore for a Key (or list of Keys). So my question is why can I iterate over a query when it returns with fetch() but can't with get(). Where has my understanding gone wrong?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 1705 1706 1707 1708 1709 1710 1711 1712 1713 1714 1715 1716  | Next Page >