Search Results

Search found 4644 results on 186 pages for 'iis7 rewrite'.

Page 172/186 | < Previous Page | 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179  | Next Page >

• Service Bus / Request Forwarding

  - by codputer

  I'm doing some development with a thrid party that issues either a Get or POST to a public URL that I specify. What I would like to do is set up a Relay service on the Azure Service Bus that my dev machine can listen to. When the request comes in, I want to forward that request as if my web service was taking the request directly from the thrid party service. When I'm ready, I'll deploy the application to a public service, change the URL that the thrid party service is sending too, and viola I should be up and running. What I'm looking for looks exactly like this: Clemens the Master of Service Bus but it's from the 2009 CTP. I'm working at it, but haven't yet got it working using all the new bits in 2012 (a.ka. its over my head at the moment). Somebody want to help? Clemens also help somebody else create a Reverse Proxy using the Service Bus, but I can't seem to find it. Yes I've also tweeted Clemens, but I'm sure he is a busy man! p.s. I know about Application Request Routing, but my dev machine is not on a public URL, I need to rewrite the URL after my client listener on the service bus recieves the message that was relayed from the Server side endpoint.

  Read the article

• How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

  - by sperling

  How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

  Read the article

• Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

  - by Ahmad

  Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

  Read the article

• What is a good automated data import method for SQL Server?

  - by Joel Potter

  I'm in the process of porting some SQL Server 2005 databases to SQL Server 2008. One of these databases has an associated import application (Windows task) which uses SSIS with a DTS package to import a large dataset from an MS Access database nightly. In upgrading to SQL Server 2008, I discovered that I can't run the same console application which has been performing the imports due to the missing manageddts DLL in SQL Server 2008. It's several years old and in need of a rewrite for various reason, plus, I've been fairly unhappy with DTS in general. The original reason DTS was chosen was for speed (5 min import time compared to 30+ for ADO.NET). The format of the data to import is out of my control (the client likes Access). I would also like to be able to run the import from a machine completely separate from the server hosting SQL Server and preferably with minimal SQL features installed. Options I've considered: Creating an Access application to connect to both databases (SQL Server and Access) and perform the import (Ugh!) Revisiting ADO.NET to see if the original implementation was poorly written. Updated SSIS packages. What other technologies should I be considering for this job?

  Read the article

• Which frameworks (and associated languages) support class replacement?

  - by Alix

  Hi, I'm writing my master thesis, which deals with AOP in .NET, among other things, and I mention the lack of support for replacing classes at load time as an important factor in the fact that there are currently no .NET AOP frameworks that perform true dynamic weaving -- not without imposing the requirement that woven classes must extend ContextBoundObject or MarshalByRefObject or expose all their semantics on an interface. You can however do this with the JVM thanks to ClassFileTransformer: You extend ClassFileTransformer. You subscribe to the class load event. On class load, you rewrite the class and replace it. All this is very well, but my project director has asked me, quite in the last minute, to give him a list of frameworks (and associated languages) that do / do not support class replacement. I really have no time to look for this now: I wouldn't feel comfortable just doing a superficial research and potentially putting erroneous information in my thesis. So I ask you, oh almighty programming community, can you help out? Of course, I'm not asking you to research this yourselves. Simply, if you know for sure that a particular framework supports / doesn't support this, leave it as an answer. If you're not sure please don't forget to point it out. Thanks so much!

  Read the article

• Need help with strange Class#getResource() issue

  - by Andreas_D

  I have some legacy code that reads a configuration file from an existing jar, like: URL url = SomeClass.class.getResource("/configuration.properties"); // some more code here using url variable InputStream in = url.openStream(); Obviously it worked before but when I execute this code, the URL is valid but I get an IOException on the third line, saying it can't find the file. The url is something like "file:jar:c:/path/to/jar/somejar.jar!configuration.properties" so it doesn't look like a classpath issue - java knows pretty well where the file can be found.. The above code is part of an ant task and it fails while the task is executed. Strange enough - I copied the code and the jar file into a separate class and it works as expected, the properties file is readable. At some point I changed the code of the ant task to URL url = SomeClass.class.getResource("/configuration.properties"); // some more code here using url variable InputStream in = SomeClass.class.getResourceAsStream("/configuration.properties"); and now it works - just until it crashes in another class where a similiar access pattern is implemented.. Why could it have worked before, why does it fail now? The only difference I see at the moment is, that the old build was done with java 1.4 while I'm trying it with Java 6 now. Workaround Today I installed Java 1.4.2_19 on the build server and made ant to use it. To my totally frustrating surprise: The problem is gone. It looks to me, that java 1.4.2 can handle URLs of this type while Java 1.6 can't (at least in my context/environment). I'm still hoping for an explanation although I'm facing the work to rewrite parts of the code to use Class#getRessourceAsStream which behaved much more stable...

  Read the article

• Rewriting a for loop in pure NumPy to decrease execution time

  - by Statto

  I recently asked about trying to optimise a Python loop for a scientific application, and received an excellent, smart way of recoding it within NumPy which reduced execution time by a factor of around 100 for me! However, calculation of the B value is actually nested within a few other loops, because it is evaluated at a regular grid of positions. Is there a similarly smart NumPy rewrite to shave time off this procedure? I suspect the performance gain for this part would be less marked, and the disadvantages would presumably be that it would not be possible to report back to the user on the progress of the calculation, that the results could not be written to the output file until the end of the calculation, and possibly that doing this in one enormous step would have memory implications? Is it possible to circumvent any of these? import numpy as np import time def reshape_vector(v): b = np.empty((3,1)) for i in range(3): b[i][0] = v[i] return b def unit_vectors(r): return r / np.sqrt((r*r).sum(0)) def calculate_dipole(mu, r_i, mom_i): relative = mu - r_i r_unit = unit_vectors(relative) A = 1e-7 num = A*(3*np.sum(mom_i*r_unit, 0)*r_unit - mom_i) den = np.sqrt(np.sum(relative*relative, 0))**3 B = np.sum(num/den, 1) return B N = 20000 # number of dipoles r_i = np.random.random((3,N)) # positions of dipoles mom_i = np.random.random((3,N)) # moments of dipoles a = np.random.random((3,3)) # three basis vectors for this crystal n = [10,10,10] # points at which to evaluate sum gamma_mu = 135.5 # a constant t_start = time.clock() for i in range(n[0]): r_frac_x = np.float(i)/np.float(n[0]) r_test_x = r_frac_x * a[0] for j in range(n[1]): r_frac_y = np.float(j)/np.float(n[1]) r_test_y = r_frac_y * a[1] for k in range(n[2]): r_frac_z = np.float(k)/np.float(n[2]) r_test = r_test_x +r_test_y + r_frac_z * a[2] r_test_fast = reshape_vector(r_test) B = calculate_dipole(r_test_fast, r_i, mom_i) omega = gamma_mu*np.sqrt(np.dot(B,B)) # write r_test, B and omega to a file frac_done = np.float(i+1)/(n[0]+1) t_elapsed = (time.clock()-t_start) t_remain = (1-frac_done)*t_elapsed/frac_done print frac_done*100,'% done in',t_elapsed/60.,'minutes...approximately',t_remain/60.,'minutes remaining'

  Read the article

• Where can a self-teacher learn general good programming habits and conventions?

  - by lucid

  A few mistakes and general childishness in early adulthood have left me in a situation where I work a menial job, with no possibility (in the near future) of attending school. I aspire to one day work in the programming field (gaming specifically), after proving myself on the indie end of things. I've gotten very confident in C++, java, and python, and I find I'm able to solve any problem I want either from previous experience, or from scouring the web for help. The solutions work, and with each attempt they become more readable, maintainable, and extensible. But this is because I'm learning from mistakes and bad programming and design habits I feel I might have avoided with actual schooling. General tips like: "if it's hard to read or getting long, or you're writing it twice, it should be in one or more functions." or "design all your classes before you start coding, so you don't have to rewrite classes later when you discover an unforeseen dependency" Is there a good book or website for learning general good programming practices and design habits? Also, naming and format conventions. I realize sometimes development houses have their own conventions, but things like "Classes in python usually have the first letter of each word capitalized". I'd like to be able to show some source code to a potential employer, and be prepared when for what's expected on a team. Is there some central database of naming and formatting conventions somewhere? Also, feel free to give any thoughts on whether or not the self-teach, garner some indie sales, use them as your resume' route is realistic

  Read the article

• Hide a single content block from search engines?

  - by jonas

  A header is automatically added on top of each content URL, but its not relevant for search and messing up the all the results beeing the first line of every page (in the code its the last line but visually its the first, which google is able to notice) Solution1: You could put the header (content to exculde from google searches) in an iframe with a static url domain.com/header.html and a <meta name="robots" content="noindex" /> ? - are there takeoffs of this solution? Solution2: You could deliver it conditionally by apache mod rewrite, php or javascript -takeoff(?): google does not like it? will google ever try pages with a standard users's useragent and compare? -takeoff: The hidden content will be missing in the google cache version as well... example: add-header.php: <?php $path = $_GET['path']; echo file_get_contents($_SERVER["DOCUMENT_ROOT"].$path); ?> apache virtual host config: RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*spider.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yahoo.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Bing.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yandex.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Baidu.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*bot.* [NC] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.htm$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.html$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.php$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /var/www/add-header.php?path=%1 [L]

  Read the article

• How does XAML set readonly CLR properties

  - by Igor Zevaka

  I am trying to create an application bar in code for WinPhone7. The XAML that does it goes like this: <PhoneApplicationPage.ApplicationBar> <shellns:ApplicationBar Visible="True" IsMenuEnabled="True"> <shellns:ApplicationBar.Buttons> <shellns:ApplicationBarIconButton IconUri="/images/appbar.feature.search.rest.png" /> </shellns:ApplicationBar.Buttons> </shellns:ApplicationBar> </PhoneApplicationPage.ApplicationBar> So I thought I'd just rewrite it in C#: var appbar = new ApplicationBar(); var buttons = new List<ApplicationBarIconButton>(); buttons.Add(new ApplicationBarIconButton(new Uri("image.png", UrlKind.Relative)); appbar.Buttons = buttons; //error CS0200: Property or indexer 'Microsoft.Phone.Shell.ApplicationBar.Buttons' cannot be assigned to -- it is read only The only problem is that Buttons property does not have a set accessor and is defined like so: public sealed class ApplicationBar { //...Rest of the ApplicationBar class from metadata public IList Buttons { get; } } How come this can be done in XAML and not C#? Is there a special way that the objects are constructed using this syntax? More importantly, how can I recreate this in code?

  Read the article

• Custom permalinks switching function. Please check this logic...

  - by Scott B

  I've got a setting in my theme options panel to allow the user to switch the permalinks setting to support friendly URLs. I'm only allowing /%postname%/ and /%postname%.html as options. I don't want to be triggering an htaccess rewrite everytime someone accesses a page on the site or views theme options, so I'm trying to code this to avoid that. I've got an input field in theme options that's called $myTheme_permalinks. The default value for this is "/%postname%/" but the user can also change it to "/%postname%.html" Here's the code at the top of theme options to handle this setting. Does this look sound? if(get_option('myTheme_permalinks') =="/%postname%/" && get_option('permalink_structure') !== "/%postname%/" || !get_option('myTheme_permalinks')) { require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/misc.php'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/file.php'); global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->set_permalink_structure('/%postname%/'); $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); update_option('permalink_structure','/%postname%/'); update_option('myTheme_permalinks','/%postname%/'); } else if (get_option('myTheme_permalinks') =="/%postname%.html" && get_option('permalink_structure') !== "/%postname%.html" && ) { require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/misc.php'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/file.php'); global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->set_permalink_structure('/%postname%.html'); $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); update_option('permalink_structure','/%postname%.html'); }

  Read the article

• Which languages support class replacement?

  - by Alix

  Hi, I'm writing my master thesis, which deals with AOP in .NET, among other things, and I mention the lack of support for replacing classes at load time as an important factor in the fact that there are currently no .NET AOP frameworks that perform true dynamic weaving -- not without imposing the requirement that woven classes must extend ContextBoundObject or MarshalByRefObject or expose all their semantics on an interface. You can however do this in Java thanks to ClassFileTransformer: You extend ClassFileTransformer. You subscribe to the class load event. On class load, you rewrite the class and replace it. All this is very well, but my project director has asked me, quite in the last minute, to give him a list of languages that do / do not support class replacement. I really have no time to look for this now: I wouldn't feel comfortable just doing a superficial research and potentially putting erroneous information in my thesis. So I ask you, oh almighty programming community, can you help out? Of course, I'm not asking you to research this yourselves. Simply, if you know for sure that a particular language supports / doesn't support this, leave it as an answer. If you're not sure please don't forget to point it out. Thanks so much!

  Read the article

• Why are compilers so stupid?

  - by martinus

  I always wonder why compilers can't figure out simple things that are obvious to the human eye. They do lots of simple optimizations, but never something even a little bit complex. For example, this code takes about 6 seconds on my computer to print the value zero (using java 1.6): int x = 0; for (int i = 0; i < 100 * 1000 * 1000 * 1000; ++i) { x += x + x + x + x + x; } System.out.println(x); It is totally obvious that x is never changed so no matter how often you add 0 to itself it stays zero. So the compiler could in theory replace this with System.out.println(0). Or even better, this takes 23 seconds: public int slow() { String s = "x"; for (int i = 0; i < 100000; ++i) { s += "x"; } return 10; } First the compiler could notice that I am actually creating a string s of 100000 "x" so it could automatically use s StringBuilder instead, or even better directly replace it with the resulting string as it is always the same. Second, It does not recognize that I do not actually use the string at all, so the whole loop could be discarded! Why, after so much manpower is going into fast compilers, are they still so relatively dumb? EDIT: Of course these are stupid examples that should never be used anywhere. But whenever I have to rewrite a beautiful and very readable code into something unreadable so that the compiler is happy and produces fast code, I wonder why compilers or some other automated tool can't do this work for me.

  Read the article

• Unit testing, mocking - simple case: Service - Repository

  - by rafek

  Consider a following chunk of service: public class ProductService : IProductService { private IProductRepository _productRepository; // Some initlization stuff public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { return _productRepository.GetProduct(id); } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } } Let's consider a simple unit test: [Test] public void GetProduct_return_the_same_product_as_getProduct_on_productRepository() { var product = EntityGenerator.Product(); _productRepositoryMock.Setup(pr => pr.GetProduct(product.Id)).Returns(product); Product returnedProduct = _productService.GetProduct(product.Id); Assert.AreEqual(product, returnedProduct); _productRepositoryMock.VerifyAll(); } At first it seems that this test is ok. But let's change our service method a little bit: public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { var product = _productRepository.GetProduct(id); product.Owner = "totallyDifferentOwner"; return product; } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } How to rewrite a given test that it'd pass with the first service method and fail with a second one? How do you handle this kind of simple scenarios? HINT: A given test is bad coz product and returnedProduct is actually the same reference.

  Read the article

• Index an array expression directly in PostgreSQL

  - by wich

  I'm trying to insert data into a table from a template table. I need to rewrite one of the columns for which I wanted to use a directly indexed array expression, but I can't seem to find how to do this, if it is even possible. The scenario: create table template ( id integer, index integer, foo integer); insert into template values (0, 1, 23), (0, 2, 18), (0, 3, 16), (0, 4, 7), (1, 1, 17), (1, 2, 26), (1, 3, 11), (1, 4, 3); create table data ( data_id integer, foo integer); Now what I'd like to do is the following: insert into data select (array[3,7,5,2])[index], foo from template where id = 1; But this doesn't work, the (array[3,7,5,2])[index] syntax isn't valid. I tried a few variants, but was unable to get anything working and wasn't able to find the correct syntax in the docs, nor even whether this is at all possible or not. As a current workaround I've devised the following, but it is less than ideal, from an elegance perspective at least, but it may also be a performance hit, I haven't looked into that yet. insert into data select arr[index], foo from template, (select array[3,7,5,2] as arr) as q where id = 1; If anyone could suggest a (better) alternative to accomplish this I'd like to hear that as well.

  Read the article

• Validation on ManyToManyField before Save in Models.py

  - by Heyl1

  I have the following models: class Application(models.Model): users = models.ManyToManyField(User, through='Permission') folder = models.ForeignKey(Folder) class Folder(models.Model): company = models.ManyToManyField(Compnay) class UserProfile(models.Model): user = models.OneToOneField(User, related_name='profile') company = models.ManyToManyField(Company) What I would like to do is to check whether one of the users of the Application has the same company as the Application (via Folder). If this is the case the Application instance should not be saved. The problem is that the ManyToManyFields aren't updated until after the 'post-save' signal. The only option seems to be the new m2m_changed signal. But I'm not sure how I then roll back the save that has already happened. Another option would be to rewrite the save function (in models.py, because I'm talking about the admin here), but I'm not sure how I could access the manytomanyfield content. Finally I've read something about rewriting the save function in the admin of the model in admin.py, however I still wouldn't know how you would access the manytomanyfield content. I have been searching for this everywhere but nothing I come across seems to work for me. If anything is unclear, please tell me. Thanks for your help! Heleen

  Read the article

• New record may be written twice in clusterd index structure

  - by Cupidvogel

  As per the article at Microsoft, under the Test 1: INSERT Performance section, it is written that For the table with the clustered index, only a single write operation is required since the leaf nodes of the clustered index are data pages (as explained in the section Clustered Indexes and Heaps), whereas for the table with the nonclustered index, two write operations are required—one for the entry into the index B-tree and another for the insert of the data itself. I don't think that is necessarily true. Clustered Indexes are implemented through B+ tree structures, right? If you look at at this article, which gives a simple example of inserting into a B+ tree, we can see that when 8 is initially inserted, it is written only once, but then when 5 comes in, it is written to the root node as well (thus written twice, albeit not initially at the time of insertion). Also when 8 comes in next, it is written twice, once at the root and then at the leaf. So won't it be correct to say, that the number of rewrites in case of a clustered index is much less compared to a NIC structure (where it must occur every time), instead of saying that rewrite doesn't occur in CI at all?

  Read the article

• Extracting function declarations from a PHP file

  - by byronh

  I'm looking to create an on-site API reference for my framework and application. Basically, say I have a class file model.class.php: class Model extends Object { ... code here ... // Separates results into pages. // Returns Paginator object. final public function paginate($perpage = 10) { ... more code here ... } } and I want to be able to generate a reference that my developers can refer to quickly in order to know which functions are available to be called. They only need to see the comments directly above each function and the declaration line. Something like this (similar to a C++ header file): // Separates results into pages. // Returns Paginator object. final public function paginate($perpage = 10); I've done some research and this answer looked pretty good (using Reflection classes), however, I'm not sure how I can keep the comments in. Any ideas? EDIT: Sorry, but I want to keep the current comment formatting. Myself and the people who are working on the code hate the verbosity associated with PHPDocumentor. Not to mention a comment-rewrite of the entire project would take years, so I want to preserve just the // comments in plaintext.

  Read the article

• redirecting the root domain - SEO and other issues, need some guidance!

  - by Jim Sp

  I'm not familiar with some of these forwarding methods and I need help. My issue is this: I have a site hosted on discountasp.net. My domain was registered through 1&1 and I redirected the DNS to what discountasp.net wanted. So when a user types www.mydomain.com, he/she sees the ASP.NET site hosted on discountasp.net, which is all fine My main page is Index.aspx, I really suck at html page design and I don't have time or the talent to fiddle with it (or money to get it done by a pro). The rest of the pages are fine. I want to use a good theme from tumblr or bloggr - one of the blog sites and create a page that I want to use as the first page - directly on blogger or tumblr - say yyy.blogspot.com (I have many reasons, so for now please don't bash my decision - let's just say that's what I want). That means when a user types www.mydomain.com, it should redirect it to the blogger or tumblr page. Everything else stays the sme - the links on the blogger page will say www.mydomain.com/xxxx and show up what's on the hosted website. I have setup the IIS rewrite rules etc. etc. so that all works just fine The bottom line is I want to show an external site's web page as my root page. I suppose I'm struggling to even explain what I want! I can of course do a response.redirect on the Index.aspx page - which is the simplest way to manage this, but the big question is will this hurt SEO in some way? If not, that would be what I do and leave the rest of the infrastructure intact (I have already done this to test and it works fine) Thank you very much j

  Read the article

• How do I deliver mail for wildcard addresses to a particular user/alias/program?

  - by David M

  I need to configure sendmail so that mail delivered for wildcard addresses is accepted for delivery and then delivered to a user, alias, or directly to a script. I can rewrite the envelope/headers any number of ways, but I don't know how to accept the wildcard address when it's provided in RCPT TO: Everything I've tried so far winds up with a 550 user unknown error. So here's a specific example: I want to be able to handle any address that consists of a series of digits followed by a dot followed by a word, then pipe that to a script. If the headers get rewritten, that's OK, but I need the envelope to contain the actual Delivered-To address. Here's the sort of SMTP session I need: 220 blah.foo.com ESMTP server ready; Thu, 22 Apr 2010 20:41:08 -0700 (PDT) HELO blort.foo.com 250 blah.foo.com Hello blort.foo.com [10.1.2.3], pleased to meet you MAIL FROM: <[email protected]> 250 2.1.0 <[email protected]>... Sender ok RCPT TO: <[email protected]> 250 2.1.5 <[email protected]>... Recipient ok I tried some stuff with regex maps, but I never got past 550 user unknown.

  Read the article

• alternatyve in php (from java)

  - by Valdas

  I have some problem have class in java. But now need have in php. it's possible rewrite? Code: public class RealityStream { public RealityStream(byte abyte0[]) { m_dstream = null; m_dstream = new DataInputStream(new ByteArrayInputStream(abyte0)); } public int available() throws IOException { return m_dstream.available(); } public float readFloat() throws IOException { byte byte0 = m_dstream.readByte(); byte byte1 = m_dstream.readByte(); byte byte2 = m_dstream.readByte(); byte byte3 = m_dstream.readByte(); int i = (byte3 & 0xff) << 24 | (byte2 & 0xff) << 16 | (byte1 & 0xff) << 8 | byte0 & 0xff; return Float.intBitsToFloat(i); } public int readInt() throws IOException { byte byte0 = m_dstream.readByte(); byte byte1 = m_dstream.readByte(); byte byte2 = m_dstream.readByte(); byte byte3 = m_dstream.readByte(); return (byte3 & 0xff) << 24 | (byte2 & 0xff) << 16 | (byte1 & 0xff) << 8 | byte0 & 0xff; } public int readShort() throws IOException { byte byte0 = m_dstream.readByte(); byte byte1 = m_dstream.readByte(); return byte1 << 8 | byte0 & 0xff; } public int readUnsignedChar() throws IOException { return m_dstream.readUnsignedByte(); } private DataInputStream m_dstream; } very need. very thaks.

  Read the article

• Java Play Mustache NPE Error

  - by zanedev

  We are getting a mustache play error in production (amazon linux EC2 AMI) but not in development (MACs) and we have tried upgrading the jvm, using the jdk instead, and changing from a tomcat deploy model to match our development environments as much as possible but nothing is working. Please any help would be greatly appreciated. We have lots of shared code in java and javascript using mustache and it would be a big deal to rewrite everything if we had to ditch mustache on the java side. 20:48:52,403 ERROR ~ @6al2dd0po Internal Server Error (500) for request GET /mystuff/people Execution exception (In {module:mustache-0.2}/app/play/modules/mustache/MustacheTags.java around line 32) NullPointerException occured : null play.exceptions.JavaExecutionException at play.templates.BaseTemplate.throwException(BaseTemplate.java:90) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.internalRender(GroovyTemplate.java:257) at play.templates.Template.render(Template.java:26) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.render(GroovyTemplate.java:187) at play.mvc.results.RenderTemplate.<init>(RenderTemplate.java:24) at play.mvc.Controller.renderTemplate(Controller.java:660) at play.mvc.Controller.renderTemplate(Controller.java:640) at play.mvc.Controller.render(Controller.java:695) at controllers.MyStuff.people(MyStuff.java:183) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeWithContinuation(ActionInvoker.java:548) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invoke(ActionInvoker.java:502) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeControllerMethod(ActionInvoker.java:478) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invokeControllerMethod(ActionInvoker.java:473) at play.mvc.ActionInvoker.invoke(ActionInvoker.java:161) at Invocation.HTTP Request(Play!) Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException at play.modules.mustache.MustacheTags._template(MustacheTags.java:32) at play.modules.mustache.MustacheTags$_template.call(Unknown Source) at /app/views/User/people.html.(line:22) at play.templates.GroovyTemplate.internalRender(GroovyTemplate.java:232) ... 13 more

  Read the article

• Should I use a regular server instead of AWS?

  - by Jon Ramvi

  Reading about and using the Amazon Web Services, I'm not really able to grasp how to use it correctly. Sorry about the long question: I have a EC2 instance which mostly does the work of a web server (apache for file sharing and Tomcat with Play Framework for the web app). As it's a web server, the instance is running 24/7. It just came to my attention that the data on the EC2 instance is non persistent. This means I lose my database and files if it's stopped. But I guess it also means my server settings and installed applications are lost as they are just files in the same way as the other data. This means that I will either have to rewrite the whole app to use amazon CloudDB or write some code which stores the db on S3 and make my own AMI with the correct applications installed and configured. Or can this be quick-fixed by using EBS somehow? My question is 1. is my understanding of aws is correct? and 2. is it's worth it? It could be a possibility to just set up a regular dedicated server where everything is persistent, as you would expect. Would love to have the scaleability of aws though..

  Read the article

• Detect a USB drive being inserted - Windows Service

  - by Tom Bell

  I am trying to detect a USB disk drive being inserted within a Windows Service, I have done this as a normal Windows application. The problem is the following code doesn't work for volumes. Registering the device notification: DEV_BROADCAST_DEVICEINTERFACE notificationFilter; HDEVNOTIFY hDeviceNotify = NULL; ::ZeroMemory(&notificationFilter, sizeof(notificationFilter)); notificationFilter.dbcc_size = sizeof(DEV_BROADCAST_DEVICEINTERFACE); notificationFilter.dbcc_devicetype = DBT_DEVTYP_DEVICEINTERFACE; notificationFilter.dbcc_classguid = ::GUID_DEVINTERFACE_VOLUME; hDeviceNotify = ::RegisterDeviceNotification(g_serviceStatusHandle, &notificationFilter, DEVICE_NOTIFY_SERVICE_HANDLE); The code from the ServiceControlHandlerEx function: case SERVICE_CONTROL_DEVICEEVENT: PDEV_BROADCAST_HDR pBroadcastHdr = (PDEV_BROADCAST_HDR)lpEventData; switch (dwEventType) { case DBT_DEVICEARRIVAL: ::MessageBox(NULL, "A Device has been plugged in.", "Pounce", MB_OK | MB_ICONINFORMATION); switch (pBroadcastHdr->dbch_devicetype) { case DBT_DEVTYP_DEVICEINTERFACE: PDEV_BROADCAST_DEVICEINTERFACE pDevInt = (PDEV_BROADCAST_DEVICEINTERFACE)pBroadcastHdr; if (::IsEqualGUID(pDevInt->dbcc_classguid, GUID_DEVINTERFACE_VOLUME)) { PDEV_BROADCAST_VOLUME pVol = (PDEV_BROADCAST_VOLUME)pDevInt; char szMsg[80]; char cDriveLetter = ::GetDriveLetter(pVol->dbcv_unitmask); ::wsprintfA(szMsg, "USB disk drive with the drive letter '%c:' has been inserted.", cDriveLetter); ::MessageBoxA(NULL, szMsg, "Pounce", MB_OK | MB_ICONINFORMATION); } } return NO_ERROR; } In a Windows application I am able to get the DBT_DEVTYP_VOLUME in dbch_devicetype, however this isn't present in a Windows Service implementation. Has anyone seen or heard of a solution to this problem, without the obvious, rewrite as a Windows application?

  Read the article

• php request variables assigning $_GEt

  - by chris

  if you take a look at a previous question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2690742/mod-rewrite-title-slugs-and-htaccess I am using the solution that Col. Shrapnel proposed- but when i assign values to $_GET in the actual file and not from a request the code doesnt work. It defaults away from the file as if the $_GET variables are not set The code I have come up with is- if(!empty($_GET['cat'])){ $_GET['target'] = "category"; if(isset($_GET['page'])){ $_GET['pageID'] = $_GET['page']; } $URL_query = "SELECT category_id FROM cats WHERE slug = '".$_GET['cat']."';"; $URL_result = mysql_query($URL_query); $URL_array = mysql_fetch_array($URL_result); $_GET['category_id'] = $URL_array['category_id']; }elseif($_GET['product']){ $_GET['target'] = "product"; $URL_query = "SELECT product_id FROM products WHERE slug = '".$_GET['product']."';"; $URL_result = mysql_query($URL_query); $URL_array = mysql_fetch_array($URL_result); print_r($URL_array); $_GET['product_id'] = $URL_array['product_id']; The original variable string that im trying to represent is /cart.php?Target=product&product_id=16142&category_id=249 And i'm trying to build the query string variables with code and including cart.php so i can use cleaner URL's So I have product/product-title-with-clean-url/ going to slug.php?product=slug Then the slug searches the db for a record with the matching slug and returns the product_id as in the code above.Then built the query string and include cart.php

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179  | Next Page >