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  • Invalid table view update with insertRowsAtIndexPaths:

    - by Crystal
    I'm having trouble with insertRowsAtIndexPaths:. I'm not quite sure how it works. I watched the WWDC 2010 video on it, but I'm still getting an error. I thought I was supposed to update the model, then wrap the insertRowsAtIndexPaths: in the tableView beginUpdates and endUpdates calls. What I have is this: self.customTableArray = (NSMutableArray *)sortedArray; [_customTableView beginUpdates]; [tempUnsortedArray enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id obj, NSUInteger idx, BOOL *stop) { [sortedArray enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id sortedObj, NSUInteger sortedIdx, BOOL *sortedStop) { if ([obj isEqualToString:sortedObj]) { NSIndexPath *newRow = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:sortedIdx inSection:0]; [_customTableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:newRow] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationAutomatic]; *sortedStop = YES; } }]; }]; [_customTableView endUpdates]; customTableArray is my model array. sortedArray is just the sorted version of that array. When I run this code when I hit my plus button to add a new row, I get this error: Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 0. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (2) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (1), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (2 inserted, 0 deleted) and plus or minus the number of rows moved into or out of that section (0 moved in, 0 moved out).' I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Thoughts? Thanks.

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  • Apache Cordova (Phonegap): is jsop needed for cross-site scripting?

    - by DEX
    I've just started using Apache Cordova. I have an library that makes calls (via ajax) to a soap server. When I run these on my local machine in chrome, I get cross site scripting errors when trying to make calls to the service. When I run the same exact code using the Cordova browser in the iOS emulator, the scripts seem to hit the server fine and the response data is received properly. So my question is how is the Cordova browser able to make these requests without cross-site scripting permissions & JSONP ? One thing I noticed is that when the request is sent from iOS, there is no "Origin" header. Is this allowing the Cordova browser to stealthily circumvent cross-site scripting requirements? Is it possible that the node.js server on the device (I believe this is how Cordova works) is manipulating the headers to allow this? I'd like to avoid enabling cross-site scripting on my site so I think this "feature" is nice, but I'm wondering if it's a security hole as well. Anyone have experience with this?

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  • Phonegap: Will my mobile app 'feel' faster or slower once ported to phonegap?

    - by user15872
    So I'm designing everything in mobile Safari and I know that phonegap is essentially a stripped webview but... Question: Will my application will run better in phonegap? (revised below) a)I imagine my navigation and core app will load faster as the scripts and images are on the hard drive. Is this True? b)I assume since they've been working on it for 2 years now that they may have made some optimizations to make it quicker than just an average safari window. Is this true? (Assuming both html5/js/css code bases are pretty much the same and app is running on iOS.) Update: Sorry, I meant to compare apples to slightly different apples. Question 1 revised: Will my app see any performance benefits running with in a phonegap environment vs standard mobile safari? (compare mobile - to mobile) 1b) In what ways, other than loading time has phonegap optimized performance over standard mobile safari? Follow ups: 1) Are there any pitfalls, other than large libraries, that may cause phonegap to suffer a serious performance hit vs stand mobile safari? 2) Can I mix native and webview rendering? (i.e the top half of my app is rendered in with html/css/js and the bottom half native)

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  • Navigating the timeline

    - by Dean 'Deacon' Beard
    O.K, being a little new to this, I have hit a brick wall, I'm using AS3 in Flash CS5. All I want to do is have a tweened animation which stops at a frame and which has a clickable button to access another part of the maintime line. Also there will be a button on the animation to skip it. How does one set this up? Obviously you need a stop(); at the stop frame of the time line and an event listener and function for both buttons right? Any more help besides that. I have it set up like this; totalSlides:Number = 60; currentSlideNumber:Number = 1; skipbutton.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK,skipbuttonPress); function skipbuttonPress(evt:MouseEvent):void{ currentframelabel = currentframelabel+1; if(currentSlideNumber>=0){ currentframelabel = introstop; } framelabel.gotoAndStop(introstop); } and the frame it stops on is set up as follows stop(); totalSlides:Number = 60; currentSlideNumber:Number = 5; click01.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK,click01Press); function click01Press( evt : MouseEvent ) : void { currentSlideNumber = currentSlideNumber+1; if (currentSlideNumber >= 0) { currentSlideNumber = 25; } framelabel.gotoAndStop(mainpage); } As I need this for a project, any help would be greatly valued. Many Thanks

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  • Asynchronous javascript issue

    - by amit
    I am trying to create a function which takes values from various html elements of the page to create a string and pass on to a variable. now this works great for all browsers except IE 8 and 9. IE tends to skip the part of fetching the values and goes straight to the variable and finds nothing.. is there a way to sync it all so that it works in IE? function seturl() { var qstring = returnQString(); $('span.keyword').text($.trim($('#hdnKeyWord').attr('value'))); $('input.search_box').attr('value', $.trim($('#hdnKeyWord').attr('value'))); $('#hdnSearchKeyword').attr('value', $.trim($('#hdnKeyWord').attr('value'))); $(".search_box").val($.trim($("#hdn_span_hdnKeyWord").text())); $(".header_inner input[type='text']").focus(); $(".search_term input[type='text']").focus(); $('#locationurl').attr('value', qstring); } function returnQString(){ var qstring = $.trim($('#locationurl').attr('init')); //initial value of the url qstring += "?type=" + $('#hdnSTSearch').attr('value'); // type of handler hit qstring += "&keyword=" + encodeURIComponent($('#hdnKeyWord').attr('value')); // keyword addition qstring += "&pagestart=" + $('#current_page').attr('value'); // pagestart(current page) addition qstring += "&pagesize=" + $('#show_per_page').attr('value'); // per page size addition qstring += "&facets=" // facetsearch $.each(selectedFilter.items, function (index, value) { qstring += value.filter + ","; }); qstring += "&selectedSection=" + selectedSection // Section Select return qstring; }

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  • How do I migrate from a basic plaintext password authentication to an OAuth based system?

    - by different
    Hello, Found out today that Twitter will be discontinuing its basic authentication for its API; the push is now towards OAuth but I don’t have a clue as to how to use it or whether it’s the right path for me. All I want to be able to do is post a tweet linking to the most recently published post when I hit publish. Currently I’m sending the login credentials for my Twitter account as plaintext, which I realise isn’t that secure but as my site is fairly small it isn’t an issue at least for now. I’m using this basic PHP code: $status = urlencode(stripslashes(urldecode("Test tweet"))); $tweetUrl = 'http://www.twitter.com/statuses/update.xml'; $curl = curl_init(); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_URL, "$tweetUrl"); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 2); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, "status=$status"); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_USERPWD, "$username:$password"); $result = curl_exec($curl); $resultArray = curl_getinfo($curl); if ($resultArray['http_code'] == 200) { curl_close($curl); $this->redirect(""); } else { curl_close($curl); echo 'Could not post to Twitter. Please go back and try again.'; } How do I move from this to an OAuth system? Do I need to?

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  • Is it possible to create a null function that will not produce warnings?

    - by bbazso
    I have a logger in a c++ application that uses defines as follows: #define FINEST(...) Logger::Log(FINEST, _FILE, __LINE, __func, __VA_ARGS_) However what I would like to do is to be able to switch off these logs since they have a serious performance impact on my system. And, it's not sufficient to simply have my Logger not write to the system log. I really need to get rid of the code produced by the logs. In order to do this, I changed the define to: #define FINEST(...) Which works, but this produces a whole bunch of warning in my code since variables are unused now. So what I would like to have is a sort of NULL FUNCTION that would not actually exist, but would not produce warnings for the unused variables. So, said another way, I would like it to compile with no warnings (i.e. the compiler thinks that the variables are used for a function) but the function does not actually exist in the application (i.e. produces no performance hit). Is this possible? Thanks!

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  • Elements of a Java Object Array are created but without correct names

    - by Greenhouse Gases
    Hi all Im having rather an annoying problem. I have a class called Person and a class called Event which serve to create objects to be used for competitors that compete in a certain event. When I add a competitor thats fine and the GUI list updates accordingly, however when I add an event the element in the array does not take on the value of the instance variable name in the class Event and so the GUI does not show the event name, though it is being added in the array correctly. How can I make it so that the event object in each element of the listOfEvents array (which is an array of event objects) has the name of the event. I should add this is for university though this isnt the part for which we will be assessed, it is somethign i have come across and due to not being able to see the code for the GUI, I've hit the proverbial brick wall. I wont include the whole load of code Ive been writing but hopefully my description and snippets below will suffice. Any advice I would appreciate greatly. No doubt I have overlooked something simple! Many thanks. listOfEvents is declared as: Event[] listOfEvents = new Event[20]; A snippet from the Event class: public class Event { String name; Person[] participants = new Person[10]; // array of competitors for the event public Event(String name) { this.name = name; } } and its use in the addEvent method (p is a global variable): public void addEvent(String eventName) { listOfEvents[p] = new Event(eventName); p++; }

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  • I cannot seem to load an XML document using ASP (Classic), IIS6. Details inside.

    - by carny666
    So I am writing a web application for use within my organization. The application requires that it know who the current user is. This is done by calling the Request.ServerVariables("AUTH_USER") function, which works great as long as 'Anonymous Access' is disabled (unchecked) and 'Integrated Windows Authentication' is enabled (checked) within IIS for this subweb. Unfortunately by doing this I get an 'Access Denied' error when I hit the load method of the XML DOM. Example code: dim urlToXmlFile urlToXmlFile = "http://currentwebserver/currentsubweb/nameofxml.xml" dim xmlDom set xmlDom = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") xmlDom.async = false xmlDom.load( urlToXmlFile ) ' <-- this is where I get the error! I've looked everywhere and cannot find a solution. I should be able to load an XML file into the DOM regardless of the authentication method. Any help would be appreciated. So far the only two solutions I can come up with are: a) create a new subweb that JUST gets the current user name and somehow passes it back to my XML reading subweb. b) open up security on the entire system to 'Everyone', which works but our IS department wouldn't care for that.

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  • Where do I control the behavior of the "X" close button in the upper right of a winform?

    - by John at CashCommons
    I'm venturing into making my VB.NET application a little better to use by making some of the forms modeless. I think I've figured out how to use dlg.Show() and dlg.Hide() instead of calling dlg.ShowDialog(). I have an instance of my modeless dialog in my main application form: Public theModelessDialog As New dlgModeless To fire up the modeless dialog I call theModelessDialog.Show() and within the OK and Cancel button handlers in dlgModeless I have Private Sub OK_Button_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles OK_Button.Click Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.OK Me.Hide() End Sub Private Sub Cancel_Button_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Cancel_Button.Click Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.Cancel Me.Hide() End Sub and that seems to work fine. The "X" button in the upper right is getting me, though. When I close the form with that button, then try to reopen the form, I get ObjectDisposedException was unhandled. Cannot access a disposed object. I feel like I'm most of the way there but I can't figure out how to do either of the following: Hide that "X" button Catch the event so I don't dispose of the object (just treat it like I hit Cancel) Any ideas? The class of this dialog is System.Windows.Forms.Form. Thanks as always!

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  • How can I add two models in one form, where one model is a has_many :through?

    - by Angela
    How do I model having multiple Addresses for a Company and assign a single Address to a Contact? Contacts belong_to a Company. A Company has_many Contacts. A Company also has_many Addresses. And each Contact has_one Address. I want to be able, whenever I create a New Contact, to access all the addresses in all Contacts that belong to the Company. Here is are my Models: class Company < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :phone, :addresses has_many :contacts has_many :addresses, :through => :contacts end class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :first_name, :last_name, :title, :phone, :fax, :email, :company, :date_entered, :campaign_id, :company_name, :address belongs_to :company has_one :address accepts_nested_attributes_for :address end class Address < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :street1 has_many :contacts end How do I create the View in the _form for Contacts so that I can 1) Add an Address when creating a Contact; 2) Display the options of the Address. Here is how I am doing step 1, which is just to add a new address for a new contact: <% f.fields_for :addresses do |builder| %> <p> <%= builder.label :street1, "Street 1" %> </br> <%= builder.text_field :street1 %> <p> Right now, what I have doesn't work. The console says I cannot mass-assign addresses when I hit "submit" on this New contact form.

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  • trying to reenter IT field after a break of over 5 years

    - by josephj1989
    Hello I have had some misfortune in life - I was unwell and had to stay out of work for an extended period of about 5 years.Before that I used to work as an Oracle/Oracle Ebusiness suite consultant (I was charging very good contract rates). But now I am fully recovered ,feeling sharper than ever. But there arent many opportunities in my areas of expertise in a small market like New Zealand and the long absence is no help either. So for the last 5 months I have been training myself in C# ,ASP .NET,WEB technologies like HTML,JQuery,CSS and also SQL Server.I had some previous experience with JAVA and VB .NET (few months). But I am fully confident of my abilities and believe I can hit the ground running given a chance.I used to be an expert with SQL and C language and these skills are portable to SQL Server and C#. Another problem I face is my age- I am over 50. What is your opinion - Am I doing the right thing. Can I get back into an IT career-I am willing to start all over again at a junior level, I am really facing a crisis in my life.

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  • Anyone Experiencing Slow Builds With VS2010?

    - by MrKWatkins
    Hi, We've recently upgraded to the final release of VS2010 and are experiencing very slow build times compared to the same code under 2008. I was wondering if anyone else is experiencing the same so I can work out whether it's just our environment or not? A few details: Using VS2010 Ultimate on Windows 7 with fairly beefy machines, talking to TFS 2010. The solution has been upgraded from VS2008 but still builds against .NET 3.5 and ASP.NET MVC 1.0. It doesn't seem to be the compilation itself taking long but something else in the build process. This is because even projects that are up to date and don't need compiling are taking a few seconds or so to process. It's not due to an Visual Studio addin because a couple guys in the team haven't installed any. The first build after loading VS2010 is pretty quick, then they seem to slow down over time. For example on of the projects in my solution just took 00:00:00.08 to process after a restart. (The project was up to date and didn't need compiling) I then immediately hit rebuild and it jumps to 00:00:01.33. We're also experiencing the problem with another solution that uses .NET 4.0 that was building perfectly fine under VS2010 RC. There are no build events or anything like that I can blame, just straightforward assembly builds. The IDE is not very responsive during the slow builds. Anyone else has similar problems? Update: It looks like the resolving assembly references is taking a long time. Looking at the MSBuild diagnostic output or the example above the first build has 30ms for ResolveAssemblyReferences, the second build has 800ms. Subsequent builds seem to be taking longer copying stuff around, e.g. CopyFilesToOutputDirectory jumps from 1ms to 27ms.

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  • Tree iterator, can you optimize this any further?

    - by Ron
    As a follow up to my original question about a small piece of this code I decided to ask a follow up to see if you can do better then what we came up with so far. The code below iterates over a binary tree (left/right = child/next ). I do believe there is room for one less conditional in here (the down boolean). The fastest answer wins! The cnt statement can be multiple statements so lets make sure this appears only once The child() and next() member functions are about 30x as slow as the hasChild() and hasNext() operations. Keep it iterative <-- dropped this requirement as the recursive solution presented was faster. This is C++ code visit order of the nodes must stay as they are in the example below. ( hit parents first then the children then the 'next' nodes). BaseNodePtr is a boost::shared_ptr as thus assignments are slow, avoid any temporary BaseNodePtr variables. Currently this code takes 5897ms to visit 62200000 nodes in a test tree, calling this function 200,000 times. void processTree (BaseNodePtr current, unsigned int & cnt ) { bool down = true; while ( true ) { if ( down ) { while (true) { cnt++; // this can/will be multiple statesments if (!current->hasChild()) break; current = current->child(); } } if ( current->hasNext() ) { down = true; current = current->next(); } else { down = false; current = current->parent(); if (!current) return; // done. } } }

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  • Do I need to using locking against integers in c++ threads

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    The title says it all really. If I am accessing a single integer type (e.g. long, int, bool, etc...) in multiple threads, do I need to use a synchronisation mechanism such as a mutex to lock them. My understanding is that as atomic types, I don't need to lock access to a single thread, but I see a lot of code out there that does use locking. Profiling such code shows that there is a significant performance hit for using locks, so I'd rather not. So if the item I'm accessing corresponds to a bus width integer (e.g. 4 bytes on a 32 bit processor) do I need to lock access to it when it is being used across multiple threads? Put another way, if thread A is writing to integer variable X at the same time as thread B is reading from the same variable, is it possible that thread B could end up a few bytes of the previous value mixed in with a few bytes of the value being written? Is this architecture dependent, e.g. ok for 4 byte integers on 32 bit systems but unsafe on 8 byte integers on 64 bit systems? Edit: Just saw this related post which helps a fair bit.

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  • What's the best practice for handling system-specific information under version control?

    - by Joe
    I'm new to version control, so I apologize if there is a well-known solution to this. For this problem in particular, I'm using git, but I'm curious about how to deal with this for all version control systems. I'm developing a web application on a development server. I have defined the absolute path name to the web application (not the document root) in two places. On the production server, this path is different. I'm confused about how to deal with this. I could either: Reconfigure the development server to share the same path as the production Edit the two occurrences each time production is updated. I don't like #1 because I'd rather keep the application flexible for any future changes. I don't like #2 because if I start developing on a second development server with a third path, I would have to change this for every commit and update. What is the best way to handle this? I thought of: Using custom keywords and variable expansion (such as setting the property $PATH$ in the version control properties and having it expanded in all the files). Git doesn't support this because it would be a huge performance hit. Using post-update and pre-commit hooks. Possibly the likely solution for git, but every time I looked at the status, it would report the two files as being changed. Not really clean. Pulling the path from a config file outside of version control. Then I would have to have the config file in the same location on all servers. Might as well just have the same path to begin with. Is there an easy way to deal with this? Am I over thinking it?

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  • Building a J2EE dev/test setup on a single PC

    - by John
    It's been a while since I did Java work, and even then I was never responsible for starting a large project from the very start... there were test/staging/production systems already running, etc, etc. Now I am looking to start a J2EE project from scratch on my trusty workstation, which has never been used for Java development and runs Windows 7 64bit. First of all, I'll be getting Eclipse. As far as writing the code goes I'm pretty happy. And running it through Eclipse is OK, but what I'd really want is to have a VM running MySQL and TomCat on which I can properly deploy my project and run/debug it 'remotely' from my dev PC. And I guess this should be done using Ant instead of letting Eclipse build the WAR for me, so that I don't end up with a dependence on Eclipse. I'm certain Eclipse can do this, so you hit a button and it runs Ant scripts, deploys and debugs for instance, but very hazy on it. Are there any good guides on this? I don't want to be taught Java, or even Ant, but rather the 'glue' parts like getting my test VM up and running under Windows, getting a build/test/deploy/run pipeline running through Eclipse, etc. One point, I only plan to use Windows... hosting a Windows VM on my Windwos desktop. And while I can use command-line tools like ant/svn, I'm much more a GUI person who loves IDE integration... I'd rather this didn't end up an argument about Linux or Vi, etc! I am looking for free, but am a MAPS subscriber, and run Win7 Ultimate in case that makes a difference as far as free VM solutions.

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  • Android Socket Connection

    - by DrCoPe
    I'm guessing this will be such a newbee question but I hit a wall and... I am running the jWebSocket (http://jwebsocket.org) stand-alone server. For a client I am using Weberknecht (http://code.google.com/p/weberknecht/) And Eclipse is my IDE of choice. Now, when I start the server and run the Weberknecht client like a normal Java application I get a connection. Granted, the connection is quickly dropped because the handshake needs to be configured but at least the server shows me a connection was attempted. However, when I use the exact same code in my hello world Android app I get nothing :( I am also not seeing any console outputs even thought I used both Log.i and Log.v Log.i(TAG, "YEI! connectToWS 1!"); Log.v(TAG, "YEI! connectToWS 1!"); Maybe I am calling the connect method in the wrong place? @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); connectToWS(); ... Any help would be GREATLY appreciated!

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  • Calculating collission for a moving circle, without overlapping the boundaries

    - by Robert Vella
    Let's say I have circle bouncing around inside a rectangular area. At some point this circle will collide with one of the surfaces of the rectangle and reflect back. The usual way I'd do this would be to let the circle overlap that boundary and then reflect the velocity vector. The fact that the circle actually overlaps the boundary isn't usually a problem, nor really noticeable at low velocity. At high velocity it becomes quite clear that the circle is doing something it shouldn't. What I'd like to do is to programmitically take reflection into account and place the circle at it's proper position before displaying it on the screen. This means that I have to calculate the point where it hits the boundary between it's current position and it's future position -- rather than calculating it's new position and then checking if it has hit the boundary. This is a little bit more complicated than the usual circle/rectangle collission problem. I have a vague idea of how I should do it -- basically create a bounding rectangle between the current position and the new position, which brings up a slew of problems of it's own (Since the rectangle is rotated according to the direction of the circle's velocity). However, I'm thinking that this is a common problem, and that a common solution already exists. Is there a common solution to this kind of problem? Perhaps some basic theories which I should look into?

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  • Can I create an activity for a particular task without that task coming to the foreground?

    - by Neil Traft
    Here's my use case: The app starts at a login screen. You enter your credentials and hit the "Login" button. Then a progress dialog appears and you wait for some stuff to download. Once the stuff has downloaded, you are taken to a new activity. Exactly which activity you are taken to depends on the server response. Here's my problem: If you go HOME during this login/download process, at some point in the near future your download will complete and will invoke startActivity(). So then the new activity will be pushed to the foreground, rudely interrupting the user. I can't start the activity before I start the download, because, as I mentioned earlier, the activity I start depends on the result of the download. I would obviously not like to interrupt the user like this. One way to solve this is to refrain from calling startActivity() until the user returns to the app. I can do this by keeping track of the LoginActivity's onStop() and onRestart(). But I'm wondering, is there any way to create the activity while it is in the background? That way the user returns to the app and he is ready to go... otherwise he would have to wait for the new activity to be created (which could take some time because the new activity also has to download and display some data). Update: Guess what? I LIED! I could have sworn that starting this activity was causing it to come to the foreground, but I went back to test it again and the problem has magically disappeared. I tested in both 1.6 and 2.0.1 and both OSes were smart enough not to bring a backgrounded task to the front.

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  • Design for fastest page download

    - by mexxican
    I have a file with millions of URLs/IPs and have to write a program to download the pages really fast. The connection rate should be at least 6000/s and file download speed at least 2000 with avg. 15kb file size. The network bandwidth is 1 Gbps. My approach so far has been: Creating 600 socket threads with each having 60 sockets and using WSAEventSelect to wait for data to read. As soon as a file download is complete, add that memory address(of the downloaded file) to a pipeline( a simple vector ) and fire another request. When the total download is more than 50Mb among all socket threads, write all the files downloaded to the disk and free the memory. So far, this approach has been not very successful with the rate at which I could hit not shooting beyond 2900 connections/s and downloaded data rate even less. Can somebody suggest an alternative approach which could give me better stats. Also I am working windows server 2008 machine with 8 Gig of memory. Also, do we need to hack the kernel so as we could use more threads and memory. Currently I can create a max. of 1500 threads and memory usage not going beyond 2 gigs [ which technically should be much more as this is a 64-bit machine ]. And IOCP is out of question as I have no experience in that so far and have to fix this application today. Thanks Guys!

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  • Dom Traversal to Automate Keyboard Focus - Spatial Navigation

    - by Steve
    I'm going to start with a little background that will hopefully help my question make more sense. I am developing an application for a television. The concept is simple and basically works by overlaying a browser over the video plane of the TV. Now being a TV, there is no mouse or additional pointing device. All interaction is done through a remote control. Therefore, the user needs to be able to visually tell which element they are currently focused upon. To indicate that an element is focused, I currently append a colored transparent image over the element to indicate focus. Now, when a user hits the arrow keys, I need to respond by focusing on the correct elements according to the key pressed. So, if the down arrow is pressed I need to focus on the next focusable element in the DOM tree (which may be a child or sibling), and if they hit the up arrow, I need to respond to the previous element. This would essentially simulate spatial navigation within a browser. I am currently setting an attribute (focusable=true) on any DOM elements that should be able to receive focus. What I would like to do is determine the previous or next focusable element (i.e. attribute focusable=true) and apply focus to the element. I was hoping to traverse the DOM tree to determine the next and previously focusable elements, but I am not sure how to perform this in JQuery, or in general. I was leaning towards trying to use the JQuery tree travesal methods like next(), prev(), etc. What approach would you take to solve this type of issue? Thanks

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  • Are workflows good for web service business logic?

    - by JL
    I have a series of complex web services that are getting used in my SOA application. I am generally happy with the overall design of the application, but as the complexity grows, I was wondering if Windows Workflow might be the way to go. My motivations for this are that you can get a graphic representation of the applications functionality, so it would be easier to maintain the code by its business function, rather than what I have now ( a standard 3 tier class library structure). My concerns are: I would be inducing an abstraction in my code, and I don't want to spend time having to deal with possible WF quirks or bugs. I've never worked with WF, is it a solid technology? I don't want to hit any WF limitations that prevent me from developing my solution. Is a WF even the right solution for the task? Simply put I am considering writing my next web service in this app to call a WF, and in this work flow manage the tasks the web service needs to carry out. I think it will be much neater and easier to maintain than a regular c# class library (maintainable by namespaces, classes ). Do you think this is the right thing to do? I'm hoping for positive feedback on WF (.net 4), but brutal honestly at the end of the day would help more. Thanks

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  • Getting values from another winform and passing it to current!

    - by klm9971
    Hello: I have 2 windows forms. The 1st one who gets active during start of the program has a button in which another 2nd windows form appears which has text field in which user type their name and HIT okay. Now in the 1st form I have a variable name: nameproccessed which takes the name from the second form. But the problem is my button which is in the 1st form has more functions besides taking name, how can I stop the flow of the compiler to take first the name from the second form and then process the rest execution of the function??? Here is the snippet of my code: //1st form //Class1 public string _nameProcessed = ""; private void btnGetSomething_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { showdial(); //some more functionalities in this function!!! } private void showdial() { InputName inm = new InputName(); inm.Show(); } //2nd form //Class2 public string name; private void btnEnterName_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { name = tbxName.Text; Class1 ict = new Class1(); ict._nameProcessed = name; this.Close(); } Now I want to take the 'name' from the second form put it on the _nameprocessed in the 1st form and then execute the rest of the function. How can I do that? Any help!

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  • Calling a network State check from other activities

    - by Laurent
    I realize this question has been answered before but couldn't find an answer that deals with my specific case. I want to create a class called "InternetConnectionChecks" that will handle checking a network state and http timeouts. I'll call the methods twice in the app (once at the beginning to get data from a server, and once at the end to send user orders to the server). For good form I'd like to put all these methods in a single class rather than copy/paste at different points in my code. To check the network state, I'm using ConnectivityManager; thing is, getSystemService requires a class that extends Activity. package arbuckle.app; import android.app.Activity; import android.app.Service; import android.content.Context; import android.net.ConnectivityManager; import android.net.NetworkInfo; public class InternetConnectionChecks extends Activity { public boolean isNetworkAvailable(){ ConnectivityManager connectivityManager = (ConnectivityManager) getSystemService(Context.CONNECTIVITY_SERVICE); NetworkInfo activeNetworkInfo = connectivityManager.getActiveNetworkInfo(); if ((activeNetworkInfo != null)&&(activeNetworkInfo.isConnected())){ return true; }else{ return false; } } } QUESTION: if I call the method isNetworkAvailable from another activity, am I: - going to hit up serious errors. - violating good coding form? *If this isn't the right way to do things, can you point me in the right direction to set up a separate class I can call on to check internet connection? Thanks everyone!

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