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  • Remove duplicate records/objects uniquely identified by multiple attributes

    - by keruilin
    I have a model called HeroStatus with the following attributes: id user_id recordable_type hero_type (can be NULL!) recordable_id created_at There are over 100 hero_statuses, and a user can have many hero_statuses, but can't have the same hero_status more than once. A user's hero_status is uniquely identified by the combination of recordable_type + hero_type + recordable_id. What I'm trying to say essentially is that there can't be a duplicate hero_status for a specific user. Unfortunately, I didn't have a validation in place to assure this, so I got some duplicate hero_statuses for users after I made some code changes. For example: user_id = 18 recordable_type = 'Evil' hero_type = 'Halitosis' recordable_id = 1 created_at = '2010-05-03 18:30:30' user_id = 18 recordable_type = 'Evil' hero_type = 'Halitosis' recordable_id = 1 created_at = '2009-03-03 15:30:00' user_id = 18 recordable_type = 'Good' hero_type = 'Hugs' recordable_id = 1 created_at = '2009-02-03 12:30:00' user_id = 18 recordable_type = 'Good' hero_type = NULL recordable_id = 2 created_at = '2009-012-03 08:30:00' (Last two are not a dups obviously. First two are.) So what I want to do is get rid of the duplicate hero_status. Which one? The one with the most-recent date. I have three questions: How do I remove the duplicates using a SQL-only approach? How do I remove the duplicates using a pure Ruby solution? Something similar to this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2790004/removing-duplicate-objects. How do I put a validation in place to prevent duplicate entries in the future?

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  • ADODB.Connection undefined

    - by Wes Groleau
    Reference http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1690622/excel-vba-to-sql-server-without-ssis After I got the above working, I copied all the global variables/constants from the routine, which included Const CS As String = "Driver={SQL Server};" _ & "Server=**;" _ & "Database=**;" _ & "UID=**;" _ & "PWD=**" Dim DB_Conn As ADODB.Connection Dim Command As ADODB.Command Dim DB_Status As Stringinto a similar module in another spreadsheet. I also copied Sub Connect_To_Lockbox() If DB_Status < "Open" Then Set DB_Conn = New Connection DB_Conn.ConnectionString = CS DB_Conn.Open ' problem! DB_Status = "Open" End If End SubI added the same reference (ADO 2.8) The first spreadsheet still works; the seccond at DB_Conn.Open pops up "Run-time error '-214767259 (80004005)': [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified" Removing the references on both, saving files, re-opening, re-adding the references doesn't help. The one still works and the other gets the error. ?!?

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  • PHP 5.2 Function needed for GENERIC sorting FOLLOWUP

    - by donbriggs
    OK, you guys gave me a great solution for sorting a recordset array last Friday. (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2884325/php-5-2-function-needed-for-generic-sorting-of-a-recordset-array) But now when I implement it, I end up with an extra element in the recordset array. I won't wast space reposting the same info, as the link is above. But the bottom line is that when I sort an array of 5 records, the resulting array has 6 records. The last element in the array is not a record array, but rather just a element containing an integer value of 1. I presume that it is somehow getting the output value of the "strnatcasecmp" function, but I have no idea how it is happening. Here is the function that you fine folks provided last week: function getSortCommand($field, $sortfunc) { return create_function('$var1, $var2', 'return '.$sortfunc.'($var1["'.$field.'"], $var2["' .$field .'"]);'); } And here is the line I am calling to sort the array: $trek[] = usort($trek, getSortCommand('name', 'strnatcasecmp')); This produces the following output, with an extra element tacked on to the end. Array ( [0] = Array ( [name] = Kirk [shirt] = Gold [assign] = Bridge ) [1] => Array ( [name] => McCoy [shirt] => Blue [assign] => Sick Bay ) [2] => Array ( [name] => Scotty [shirt] => Red [assign] => Engineering ) [3] => Array ( [name] => Spock [shirt] => Blue [assign] => Bridge ) [4] => Array ( [name] => Uhura [shirt] => Red [assign] => Bridge ) [5] => 1 )

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  • What is the best way to store site configuration data?

    - by DaveDev
    I have a question about storing site configuration data. We have a platform for web applications. The idea is that different clients can have their data hosted and displayed on their own site which sits on top of this platform. Each site has a configuration which determines which panels relevant to the client appear on which pages. The system was originally designed to keep all the configuration data for each site in a database. When the site is loaded all the configuration data is loaded into a SiteConfiguration object, and the clients panels are generated based on the content of this object. This works, but I find it very difficult to work with to apply change requests or add new sites because there is so much data to sift through and it's difficult maintain a mental model of the site and its configuration. Recently I've been tasked with developing a subset of some of the sites to be generated as PDF documents for printing. I decided to take a different approach to how I would define the configuration in that instead of storing configuration data in the database, I wrote XML files to contain the data. I find it much easier to work with because instead of reading meaningless rows of data which are related to other meaningless rows of data, I have meaningful documents with semantic, readable information with the relationships defined by visually understandable element nesting. So now with these 2 approaches to storing site configuration data, I'd like to get the opinions of people more experienced in dealing with this issue on dealing with these two approaches. What is the best way of storing site configuration data? Is there a better way than the two ways I outlined here? note: StackOverflow is telling me the question appears to be subjective and is likely to be closed. I'm not trying to be subjective. I'd like to know how best to approach this issue next time and if people with industry experience on this could provide some input.

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  • dealing cards in Clojure

    - by Ralph
    I am trying to write a Spider Solitaire player as an exercise in learning Clojure. I am trying to figure out how to deal the cards. I have created (with the help of stackoverflow), a shuffled sequence of 104 cards from two standard decks. Each card is represented as a (defstruct card :rank :suit :face-up) The tableau for Spider will be represented as follows: (defstruct tableau :stacks :complete) where :stacks is a vector of card vectors, 4 of which contain 5 cards face down and 1 card face up, and 6 of which contain 4 cards face down and 1 card face up, for a total of 54 cards, and :complete is an (initially) empty vector of completed sets of ace-king (represented as, for example, king-hearts, for printing purposes). The remainder of the undealt deck should be saved in a ref (def deck (ref seq)) During the game, a tableau may contain, for example: (struct-map tableau :stacks [[AH 2C KS ...] [6D QH JS ...] ... ] :complete [KC KS]) where "AH" is a card containing {:rank :ace :suit :hearts :face-up false}, etc. How can I write a function to deal the stacks and then save the remainder in the ref?

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  • Structuring input of data for localStorage

    - by WmasterJ
    It is nice when there isn't a DB to maintain and users to authenticate. My professor has asked me to convert a recent research project of his that uses Bespin and calculates errors made by users in a code editor as part of his research. The goal is to convert from MySQL to using HTML5 localStorage completely. Doesn't seem so hard to do, even though digging in his code might take some time. Question: I need to store files and state (last placement of cursor and active file). I have already done so by implementing the recommendations in another stackoverflow thread. But would like your input considering how to structure the content to use. My current solution Hashmap like solution with javascript objects: files = {}; // later, saving files[fileName] = data; And then storing in localStorage using some recommendations localStorage.setObject(files): Currently I'm also considering using some type of numeric id. So that names can be changed without any hassle renaming the key in the hashmap. What is your opinion on the way it is solved and would you do it any differently?

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  • Sort latitude and longitude coordinates into clockwise quadrangle

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Problem Users can provide up to four latitude and longitude coordinates, in any order. They do so with Google Maps. Using Google's Polygon API (v3), the coordinates they select should highlight the selected area between the four coordinates. Solutions and Searches http://stackoverflow.com/questions/242404/sort-four-points-in-clockwise-order Graham's scan seems too complicated for four coordinates Sort the coordinates into two arrays (one by latitude, the other longitude) ... then? Question How do you sort the coordinates in (counter-)clockwise order, using JavaScript? Code Here is what I have so far: // Ensures the markers are sorted: NW, NE, SE, SW function sortMarkers() { var ns = markers.slice( 0 ); var ew = markers.slice( 0 ); ew.sort( function( a, b ) { if( a.lat() < b.lat() ) { return -1; } else if( a.lat() > b.lat() ) { return 1; } return 0; }); ns.sort( function( a, b ) { if( a.lng() < b.lng() ) { return -1; } else if( a.lng() > b.lng() ) { return 1; } return 0; }); } What is a better approach? Thank you.

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  • How to customize the process employed by WCF when serializing contract method arguments?

    - by mark
    Dear ladies and sirs. I would like to formulate a contrived scenario, which nevertheless has firm actual basis. Imagine a collection type COuter, which is a wrapper around an instance of another collection type CInner. Both implement IList (never mind the T). Furthermore, a COuter instance is buried inside some object graph, the root of which (let us refer to it as R) is returned from a WCF service method. My question is how can I customize the WCF serialization process, so that when R is returned, the request to serialize the COuter instance will be routed through my code, which will extract CInner and pass it to the serializer instead. Thus the receiving end still gets R, only no COuter instance is found in the object graph. I hoped that http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2220516/how-does-wcf-serialize-the-method-call will contain the answer, unfortunately the article mentioned there (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc163569.aspx) only barely mentions that advanced serialization scenarios are possible using IDataContractSurrogate interface, but no details are given. I am, on the other hand, would really like to see a working example. Thank you very much in advance.

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  • Passing arguments and values from HTML to jQuery (events)

    - by Jaroslav Moravec
    What is the practice to pass arguments from HTML to jQuery events function. For example getting id of row from db: <tr class="jq_killMe" id="thisItemId-id"> ... </tr> and jQuery: $(".jq_killMe").click(function () { var tmp = $(this).attr('id).split("-"); var id = tmp[0] // ... } What's the best practise, if I want to pass more than one argument? Is it better not to use jQuery? For example: <tr onclick="killMe('id')"> ... </tr> I didn't find the answer on my question, I will be glad even for links. Thanks. Edit (pre solution) So you suggested two methods to do that: Add custom attributes to element (XHTML) Use attribute ID and parse it by regex Attribute data-* attributes in HTML5 Use hidden children elements I like first solution, but... I would like to (I have to (employer)) produce valid code. Here is a nice question and answers: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/994856/so-what-if-custom-html-attributes-arent-valid-xhtml And the second is not so pretty as the first, but valid. So the compromise is... The third is the solution for future, but here is a lot of CMS where we have to use XHTML or HTML4. (And HTML5 is the long process)

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  • How to create platform independent 3D video on 3D TV via HDMI 1.4?

    - by artif
    I am writing a real-time, interactive 3D visualization program and at each point in the program, I can compute 2 images (bitmaps) that are meant to look 3D together by means of stereoscopy. How do I get my program to display the image pairs such that they look 3D on a 3D TV? Is there a platform independent way of accomplishing it? (By platform I mean independent of GPU brand, operating system, 3D TV vendor, etc.) If not, which is preferable-- to lock in by GPU, OS, or 3D TV? I suppose I need to be using an HDMI 1.4 cable with the 3D TV? HDMI 1.4 can encode stereoscopy via side-by-side method. But how do I send such an encoded signal to the monitor? What kind of libraries do I use for this sort of thing? Windows DirectShow? If DirectShow is correct, is there a cross platform equivalent available? If anyone asks, yes I have seen this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2811350/generating-3d-tv-stereoscopic-output-programmatically. However, correct me if I am wrong, it does not appear to be what I'm looking for. I do not have an OpenGL or Direct3D program that generates polygons, for which a Nvidia card can do ad-hoc impromptu stereoscopy simply by rendering the scene from 2 slightly offset points of view and then displaying those 2 images on the monitor-- my program already has those image pairs and needs to display them (and they are not the result of rendering polygons). Btw, I have never done any major multimedia programming before and know very little about HDMI, Direct Show, 3D TVs, etc so pardon me if any parts of this question did not make any sense at all.

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  • Old dll.config problem !

    - by user313421
    Since 2005 as I googled it's a problem for who needs to read the configuration of an assembly from it's config file "*.dll.config" and Microsoft didn't do anything yet. Story: If you try to read a setting from a class library (plug-in) you fail. Instead the main application domain (EXE which is using the plug-in) config is read and because probably there's not such a config your plug-in will use default setting which is hard-coded when you create it's settings for first time. Any change to .dll.config wouldn't see by your plug-in and you wonder why it's there! If you want to replace it and start searching you may find something like this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/594298/c-dll-config-file But just some ideas and one line code. A good replacement for built-in config shouldn't read from file system each time we need a config value, so we can store them in memory; Then what if user changes config file ? we need a FileSystemWatcher and we need some design like singleton ... and finally we are at the same point configuration of .NET is except our one's working. It seems MS did everything but forgot why they built the ".dll.config". Since no DLL is gonna execute by itself, they are referenced from other apps (even if used in web) and so why there's such a "*.dll.config" file ? I'm not gonna argue if it's good to have multiple config files or not. It's my design (plug-able components). Finally { After these years, is there any good practice such as a custom setting class to add in each assemly and read from it's own config file ? }

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  • "One or more breakpoints cannot be set and have been disabled. Execution will stop at the beginning

    - by sam
    I set a breakpoint in my code in Visual-C++, but when I run, I see the error mentioned in the title. I know this question has been asked before on Stack Overflow (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/657470/breakpoints-cannot-be-set-and-have-been-disabled-problem), but none of the answers there fully explained the problem I'm seeing. The closest I can see is something about the linker, but I don't understand that - so if someone could explain in more detail that would be great. In my case, I have 2 projects in Visual C++ - the production dsw, and the test code dsw. I have loaded and rebuilt both dsws in debug mode. I want a breakpoint in the production code, which is run via the test scripts. My issue is I get the error message when I run the test code, because the break point is in the production code, which isn't loaded up when the test starts. Near the beginning of the test script there is a mytest_initialize() command. I imagine this goes off and loads up the production dll. Once this line has executed, I can put the breakpoint in my production code and run until I hit it. But it's quite annoying to have to run to this line, set the breakpoint and continue every time I want to run the test. So I think the problem is Visual C++ doesn't realise the two projects are related. Is this a linker issue? What does the linker do and what settings should I change to make this work? Thanks in advance. Apologies if instead I should be appending this question to the existing one, this is my first post so not quite sure how this should work.

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  • jQuery and jQuery UI (Dual Licensing)

    - by John Hartsock
    OK I have read many posts regarding Dual Licensing using MIT and GPL licenses. But Im curious still, as the wording seems to be inclusive. Many of the Dual Licenses state that the software is licensed using "MIT AND GPL". The "AND" is what confuses me. It seems to me that the word "AND" in the terms, means you will be licensing the product using both licenses. Most of the posts, here on stackoverflow, say you can license the software using one "OR" the other. JQuery specifically states "OR", whereas JQuery UI specifically States "AND". Another Instance of the "AND" would be JQGrid. Im not a lawyer but, it seems to me that a legal interpretation of this would state that use of the software would mean that your using the software under both licenses. Has anyone who has contacted a lawyer gotten clarification or a definitive answer as to what is true? Can you use Dual licensed software products that state "AND" in the terms of agreement under either license?

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  • In Ruby, why does a method invocation not be able to be treated as a unit when "do" and "end" is use

    - by Jian Lin
    The following question is related to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2127836/ruby-print-inject-do-syntax The question is, can we insist on using DO and END and make it work with puts or p? This works: a = [1,2,3,4] b = a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end puts b # prints out 10 so, is it correct to say, inject is a class method of the Array class, which takes a block of code, and then returns a number. If so, then it should be no different from calling a function and getting back a return value: b = foo(3) puts b or b = circle.getRadius() puts b In the above two cases, we can directly say puts foo(3) puts circle.getRadius() so, there is no way to make it work directly by using the following 2 ways: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end but it gives ch01q2.rb:7:in `inject': no block given (LocalJumpError) from ch01q2.rb:4:in `each' from ch01q2.rb:4:in `inject' from ch01q2.rb:4 grouping the method call using ( ) doesn't work either: a = [1,2,3,4] puts (a.inject do |sum, x| sum + x end) and this gives: ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected kDO_BLOCK, expecting ')' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:4: syntax error, unexpected '|', expecting '=' puts (a.inject do |sum, x| ^ ch01q3.rb:6: syntax error, unexpected kEND, expecting $end end) ^ finally, the following version works: a = [1,2,3,4] puts a.inject { |sum, x| sum + x } but why doesn't the grouping of the method invocation using ( ) work? What if a programmer insists that he uses do and end, can it be made to work directly with p or puts, without an extra temporary variable?

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  • How to access different domain data using Java script

    - by shoaibmohammed
    Hello there, Here is the issue. Suppose there is a DOMAIN A which is going to be the server containing a PHP Script file. The data from Domain A is to be accessed by a Client at DOMAIN B. I know it cannot be accessed directly using JavaScript. So what I did is, in Domain A I created a a JavaScript file as front-end for the PHP Script which AJAXes the PHP and returns the data. But unfortunately it din't work I came across an example having PHP as a Middle Man in the client side. But I donot want to keep any server side PHP code as a middle man in the client side. I just want to give out the Javascript to the client domain. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/578095/how-to-get-data-with-javascript-from-another-server DOMAIN A PHP - data.php <?php echo "Server returns data"; ?> JS - example.js Does the Ajax to the PHP function getData() { //assume ajax is done for data.php and data is retrieved, now return the data return ajaxed_data; } Domain B JS Client includes the example.js file from Domain A in his HTML <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.DomainA.com/example.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> alert(getData()); </script> I hope I have made myself understandable ! Can this be established ? Its something like Google friend connect, what I mean is, just provide JavaScript to the client and thats it. Every thing carried out in server side Thankx for providing this forum

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  • How to generate XML from an Excel VBA macro?

    - by SuperNES
    So, I've got a bunch of content that was delivered to us in the form of Excel spreadsheets. I need to take that content and push it into another system. The other system takes its input from an XML file. I could do all of this by hand (and trust me, management has no problem making me do that!), but I'm hoping there's an easy way to write an Excel macro that would generate the XML I need instead. This seems like a better solution to me, as this is a job that will need to be repeated regularly (we'll be getting a LOT of content in Excel sheets) and it just makes sense to have a batch tool that does it for us. However, I've never experimented with generating XML from Excel spreadsheets before. I have a little VBA knowledge but I'm a newbie to XML. I guess my problem in Googling this is that I don't even know what to Google for. Can anyone give me a little direction to get me started? Does my idea sound like the right way to approach this problem, or am I overlooking something obvious? Thanks StackOverflow!

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  • Where in maven project's path should I put configuration files that are not considered resources

    - by Paralife
    I have a simple java maven project. One of my classes when executing needs to load an xml configuration file from the classpath. I dont want to package such xml file when producing the jar but I want to include a default xml file in a zip assemply under a conf subfolder and I also want this default xml to be available in the unit tests to test against it. As I see it there are 2 possible places of this default xml: src/main/resources/conf/default.xml src/main/conf/default.xml Both solutions demand special pom actions: In solution 1, I get the auto copy to target folder during build which means it is available in testing but I also get it in the produced jar which i dont want. In solution 2, I get the jar as I want it(free of the xml) but I manually have to copy the xml to the target folder to be available for testing. (I dont want to add src's subfolders in test classpath. I think it is bad practice). The question is what is the best solution of the two? If the correct is 2, what is the best way to copy it to target folder? Is there any other solution better and more common than those two? (I also read http://stackoverflow.com/questions/465001/where-should-i-put-application-configuration-files-for-a-maven-project but I would like to know the most "correct solution" from the "convention over configuration" point of view and this link provides some configuration type solutions but not any convention oriented. Maybe there isnt one but I ask anyway. Also the solutions provided include AntRun plugin and appAssembler plugin and I wonder if I could do it with out them.)

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  • Button Template does not render Image clearly.

    - by Akash Kava
    Here is my button template, <Microsoft_Windows_Themes:ButtonChrome x:Name="Chrome" Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" BorderBrush="{TemplateBinding BorderBrush}" RenderDefaulted="{TemplateBinding IsDefaulted}" RenderMouseOver="{TemplateBinding IsMouseOver}" RenderPressed="{TemplateBinding IsPressed}"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> <ColumnDefinition/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Image Source="{TemplateBinding ImageSource}" RenderOptions.BitmapScalingMode="NearestNeighbor" SnapsToDevicePixels="True" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center" Stretch="None" /> <ContentPresenter Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="{TemplateBinding HorizontalContentAlignment}" Margin="{TemplateBinding Padding}" VerticalAlignment="{TemplateBinding VerticalContentAlignment}" SnapsToDevicePixels="{TemplateBinding SnapsToDevicePixels}" RecognizesAccessKey="True"/> </Grid> </Microsoft_Windows_Themes:ButtonChrome> Now you can see as per this question My Images are blurry on StackOverflow I tried .. RenderOptions.BitmapScalingMode="NearestNeighbor" On all levels, grid, chrome .. and tried various combinations of SnapsToDevicePixels but images just wont show up correctly. I set Stretch=None, image is aligned at center, still why it stretches automatically? here is the output and its very frustrating. Actual size of the image is 16x16 but I some how figured out by using Windows Maginifier that no matter what I do, the image is actually trying to render as 20x20, for the bigger images its even cropping the right most and bottom part. I think image should be rendered correctly 16x16 when Stretch=None, can anyone clarify whats problem here?

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  • Cufon selector problems

    - by meep
    Hello StackOverflow. I am using Cufon (http://cufon.shoqolate.com/generate/) to replace some text in a menu. Problem is that I only need to style the first <li> of the first <ul>. I have tried using: Cufon.replace('#menu ul li > a', { fontFamily: 'Christopherhand', hover: { color: '#99c635'}}); With the > seperator, but it does not work. It still replaces the #menu ul li ul li a This is my markup: <div id="menu"> <ul> <li class="current"> <a href="#1">About JW</a> <ul> <li><a href="#2">Subpage 1</a></li> <li><a href="#3">Subpage 2</a></li> <li><a href="#4">Subpage 3</a></li> <li><a href="#5">Subpage 4</a></li> </ul> </li> <li><a href="#2">Our Products</a></li> <li><a href="#3">Best Recipes</a></li> <li><a href="#4">Health &amp; Diet</a></li> <li><a href="#5">Our Ads</a></li> </ul> </div> Can anyone see the problem? It should work without adding a class to sub <ul>. :-) Thank you.

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  • Use different configurations with Simple Injection

    - by Ruben.Canton
    I'm using the library "Simple Injector" (http://simpleinjector.codeplex.com) and it looks cool and nice. But after building a configuration and use it, now I want to know how to change from one configuration to another. Scenario: Let's imagine I've set up a configuration in the Global Asax and I have the public and global Container there. Now I want to make some tests and I want them to use mock classes so I want to change the configuration. I can, of course, build another configuration and assign it to the global Container created by default, so that every time I run a test the alternative configuration will be set. But on doing that and though I'm in development context the Container is changed for everyone, even for normal requests. I know I'm testing in this context and that shouldn't matter, but I have the feeling that this is not the way for doing this... and I wonder how to change from one configuration to another in the correct way. Note: At Simple Injector documentation says that you can ask questions in stackoverflow so that's why I'm here. =P PD: I'm new in this IoC and DI world so try to be easy with me when explaining it :)

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  • Java - Problem in deploying Web Application

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I have built a Java Web Application and packed it in a .war file and tested it on my local tomcat server and it is running fine. But when I deployed it on my client's server, it is showing an error. According to the remote server (my client's server), it is not finding a tld file packed in a jar file which I had placed in WEB-INF/lib directory. But when I checked the WEB-INF/lib directory for the jar file, i found that it was there. The contents of META-INF/MANIFEST.MF is as follows: Manifest-Version: 1.0 Class-Path: I think that there is no need to explicitly mention the classpath of WEB-INF/lib directory as it is in the classpath of any web application by default. Then, why the server can't find the jar file in the lib directory when I deployed it on a remote server and why it is working when I deployed the same application on my local server. I posted a question for this at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2441254/struts-1-struts-taglib-jar-is-not-being-found-by-my-web-application but found that the problem is unusual as nobody could answer it. So my questions are as follows: Q1. Is WEB-INF/lib still remains on the classpath if I leave the classpath entry blank as shown above in the MANIFEST.MF file or I should delete the classpath entry completely from the file or I should explicitly enter Class-Path: /WEB-INF/lib as the classpath entry? Q2. I have JSP pages, Servlets and some helper classes in the web application. Jsp pages are located at the root. Servlets and helper classes are located in WEB-INF/classes folder. So Is there any problem if my helper classes are located in the WEB-INF/classes folder? Note: Please note that this question is not same as my previous question. It is a follow-up question of my previous question. Both the servers (local and remote) are tomcat servers.

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  • Facebook offline access step-by-step

    - by Ben
    After searchinge litteraly 1 day on fb and google for an up-to-date and working way to do something seemingly simple: I am looking for a step-by-step explanation to get offline_access for a user for a facebook app and then using this (session key) to retrieve offline & not within a browser friends & profile data. Preferrably doing this in the Fb Java API. Thanks. And yes I did check the facebook wiki. Update: Anyone? this: http://www.facebook.com/authorize.php?api_key=<api-key>&v=1.0&ext_perm=offline_access gives me offline_Access, however how to retrieve the session_key? Why can't facebook just do simple documentation, I mean there are like 600 people working there? The seemingly same question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/617043/getting-offlineaccess-to-work-with-facebook Does not answer how to retrieve the session key Edit: I am still stuck with that. I guess nobody really tried such a batch access out yet...

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  • key-words highlight in <textarea> (again)

    - by Halst
    Wait, I know! I know that this "syntax highlight in textarea"-question was raised like a million times on stackoverflow! But, please, listen. offtopic: I'm not a web-developer, and technically I'm not a programmer at all. I study mechatronics and deal mostly with control-engineering and digital-hardware. And I'm so pissed off that whenever I want to share some application (that would be helpful in my field) and embed it into the web, I need to know such a crazy amount of technologies, like html, css, javascript, flash, etc.. that takes time, which I could have been spending for the benefit of my own field. Right now I'm playing with hardware-description-languages and I'm writing some Python-libraries to convert one HDL into another. And I wanted to embed such feature on the web: http://xhdl2vhdl.appspot.com/ I wanted to implement some basic syntax highlighting (only keywords highlighting will be enough) so that the code could be readable. But the whole idea highlighting something in textarea is not trivial at all. The other difficulty is that the languages I work with are rare, and there are no out-of-box solutions for them. I tried to dig into these solutions, but they are very complicated for me: http://www.nicolarizzo.com/gamesroom/experimental/CodeEditor.html http://marijn.haverbeke.nl/codemirror/jstest.html and there is no clear descriptions how to use them (for my level of knowledge of web-development). So, is there a simple solution, just to highlight a bunch of key-words in textarea or perform something equivalent? Thank you.

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  • Creating an mailto: URL with a URL in the body iPhone SDK

    - by Sjakelien
    UPDATE: I just found a similar post here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/730101/how-do-i-encode-in-a-url-in-an-html-attribute-value Please consider the code below: I try to send an email message from within my iPhone app. The problem I encounter is that I want to put a URL in the body of the email. This URL contains two ampersands. I am encoding all the strings using "stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding", but the URL ends up in my new mail messagd truncated after the first ampersand. IE: "http://www.mydomain.nl/?cm=79&ctime=1246572000&cid=4772" becomes "http://www.mydomain.nl/?cm=79". Any suggestion what I could do to escape? NSString *eMailSubject = @"My Subject"; NSString *encodedSubject = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[eMailSubject stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSString *eMailBody = @"http://www.mydomain.nl?cm=79&ctime=1246572000&cid=4772"; NSString *encodedBody = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[eMailBody stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSString *urlString = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"mailto:?subject=%@&body=%@", encodedSubject, encodedBody]]; NSString *encodedURL = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[urlString stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSURL *url = [[NSURL alloc] initWithString:encodedURL]; [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:url];

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  • Remove redundant SQL code

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Code The following code calculates the slope and intercept for a linear regression against a slathering of data. It then applies the equation y = mx + b against the same result set to calculate the value of the regression line for each row. Can the two separate sub-selects be joined so that the data and its slope/intercept are calculated without executing the data gathering part of the query twice? SELECT AVG(D.AMOUNT) as AMOUNT, Y.YEAR * ymxb.SLOPE + ymxb.INTERCEPT as REGRESSION_LINE, Y.YEAR as YEAR, MAKEDATE(Y.YEAR,1) as AMOUNT_DATE FROM CITY C, STATION S, YEAR_REF Y, MONTH_REF M, DAILY D, (SELECT ((avg(t.AMOUNT * t.YEAR)) - avg(t.AMOUNT) * avg(t.YEAR)) / (stddev( t.AMOUNT ) * stddev( t.YEAR )) as CORRELATION, ((sum(t.YEAR) * sum(t.AMOUNT)) - (count(1) * sum(t.YEAR * t.AMOUNT))) / (power(sum(t.YEAR), 2) - count(1) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2))) as SLOPE, ((sum( t.YEAR ) * sum( t.YEAR * t.AMOUNT )) - (sum( t.AMOUNT ) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2)))) / (power(sum(t.YEAR), 2) - count(1) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2))) as INTERCEPT FROM ( SELECT AVG(D.AMOUNT) as AMOUNT, Y.YEAR as YEAR, MAKEDATE(Y.YEAR,1) as AMOUNT_DATE FROM CITY C, STATION S, YEAR_REF Y, MONTH_REF M, DAILY D WHERE $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' GROUP BY Y.YEAR ) t ) ymxb WHERE $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' GROUP BY Y.YEAR Question How do I execute the duplicate bits only once per query, instead of twice? The duplicate bit is the WHERE clause: $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' Related http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1595659/how-to-eliminate-duplicate-calculation-in-sql Thank you!

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