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  • Linker error: wants C++ virtual base class destructor

    - by jdmuys
    Hi, I have a link error where the linker complains that my concrete class's destructor is calling its abstract superclass destructor, the code of which is missing. This is using GCC 4.2 on Mac OS X from XCode. I saw http://stackoverflow.com/questions/307352/g-undefined-reference-to-typeinfo but it's not quite the same thing. Here is the linker error message: Undefined symbols: "ConnectionPool::~ConnectionPool()", referenced from: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool::~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool()in RKConnector.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Here is the abstract base class declaration: class ConnectionPool { public: static ConnectionPool* newPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b); virtual ~ConnectionPool() =0; virtual int keepAlive() =0; virtual int disconnect() =0; virtual sql::Connection * getConnection(char *compression_scheme = NULL) =0; virtual void releaseConnection(sql::Connection * theConnection) =0; }; Here is the concrete class declaration: class AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool: public ConnectionPool { protected: <snip data members> public: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b); virtual ~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(); virtual int keepAlive(); // will make sure the connection doesn't time out. Call regularly virtual int disconnect(); // disconnects/destroys all connections. virtual sql::Connection * getConnection(char *compression_scheme = NULL); virtual void releaseConnection(sql::Connection * theConnection); }; Needless to say, all those members are implemented. Here is the destructor: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool::~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool() { printf("AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool destructor call"); // nothing to destruct in fact } and also maybe the factory routine: ConnectionPool* ConnectionPool::newPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b) { return new AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(h, p, u, pw, b); } I can fix this by artificially making my abstract base class concrete. But I'd rather do something better. Any idea? Thanks

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  • retrieving multiple versions through API through hbase

    - by sammy
    hello , this is a continuation of my previous question where id used hbase shell.. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3024417/facing-problems-while-updating-rows-in-hbase i tried the same with API.. im not able to figure out how to retrieve all versions , iterate and print their values for a specific row... i've spending hours reading... please help me out... Scan s = new Scan(Bytes.toBytes("row1")); s.addColumn(Bytes.toBytes("column"),Bytes.toBytes("address")); SETTING RANGE FOR THE VERSIONS s.setTimeRange(0L,6L); ResultScanner scanner = table.getScanner(s); for (Result r : scanner) { for(KeyValue kv : r.sorted()) { System.out.println("To"+kv.getTimestamp()); System.out.println("from "+Bytes.toString(kv.getKey())); System.out.println("To "+Bytes.toString(kv.getValue())); } scanner.close(); } here im intending to print all versions of the column..... but it gives the most recent one... im stuck here...

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  • ASP MVC - Routing Required?

    - by evo_9
    I've been reading up on MVC2 which came in VS2010 and it sounds pretty interesting. I'm actually in the middle of a large multi-tenant application project, and have just started coding the UI. I'm considering changing to MVC as I'm not that far along at this point. I have some questions about the Routing capabilities, namely are they required to use MVC or can I more or less ignore Routing? Or do I have to setup a default routing record that will make things work like standard ASPX (as far as routing alone is concerned)? The reason why I don't want to use Routing is because I've already defined a custom URL 'rewrite' mechanism of my own (which fires on session_start). In addition, I'm using jquery and opens-standards for the entire UI, and MVC's aspx overhead-free approach seems like a better fit based on how I've already started to build the application (I am not using viewstate at all, for example). I guess my big concern is whether the routing can be ignored, of if I will have to re-implement my custom URL rewriting to work with MVC, and if that's the case, how would I do that? As a new Routing routine, or stick with the session_start (if that's even possible?). Lastly, I don't want to use anything even remotely 'intelligent/readable' for the url - for a site like StackOverflow, the readability of the URL is a positive, but the opposite is true if it's not a public website like this one. In fact, it would seem to me that the more friendly MVC routing URL (which indirectly show method names) could pose a security risk on a private, non-public website app like I'm developing. For all these reasons I would love to use the lightweight aspects of MVC but skip the Routing entirely - is this possible?

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  • Better way to summarize data about stop times?

    - by Vimvq1987
    This question is close to this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2947963/find-the-period-of-over-speed Here's my table: Longtitude Latitude Velocity Time 102 401 40 2010-06-01 10:22:34.000 103 403 50 2010-06-01 10:40:00.000 104 405 0 2010-06-01 11:00:03.000 104 405 0 2010-06-01 11:10:05.000 105 406 35 2010-06-01 11:15:30.000 106 403 60 2010-06-01 11:20:00.000 108 404 70 2010-06-01 11:30:05.000 109 405 0 2010-06-01 11:35:00.000 109 405 0 2010-06-01 11:40:00.000 105 407 40 2010-06-01 11:50:00.000 104 406 30 2010-06-01 12:00:00.000 101 409 50 2010-06-01 12:05:30.000 104 405 0 2010-06-01 11:05:30.000 I want to summarize times when vehicle had stopped (velocity = 0), include: it had stopped since "when" to "when" in how much minutes, how many times it stopped and how much time it stopped. I wrote this query to do it: select longtitude, latitude, MIN(time), MAX(time), DATEDIFF(minute, MIN(Time), MAX(time)) as Timespan from table_1 where velocity = 0 group by longtitude,latitude select DATEDIFF(minute, MIN(Time), MAX(time)) as minute into #temp3 from table_1 where velocity = 0 group by longtitude,latitude select COUNT(*) as [number]from #temp select SUM(minute) as [totaltime] from #temp3 drop table #temp This query return: longtitude latitude (No column name) (No column name) Timespan 104 405 2010-06-01 11:00:03.000 2010-06-01 11:10:05.000 10 109 405 2010-06-01 11:35:00.000 2010-06-01 11:40:00.000 5 number 2 totaltime 15 You can see, it works fine, but I really don't like the #temp table. Is there anyway to query this without use a temp table? Thank you.

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  • PHP 5.2 Function needed for GENERIC sorting FOLLOWUP

    - by donbriggs
    OK, you guys gave me a great solution for sorting a recordset array last Friday. (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2884325/php-5-2-function-needed-for-generic-sorting-of-a-recordset-array) But now when I implement it, I end up with an extra element in the recordset array. I won't wast space reposting the same info, as the link is above. But the bottom line is that when I sort an array of 5 records, the resulting array has 6 records. The last element in the array is not a record array, but rather just a element containing an integer value of 1. I presume that it is somehow getting the output value of the "strnatcasecmp" function, but I have no idea how it is happening. Here is the function that you fine folks provided last week: function getSortCommand($field, $sortfunc) { return create_function('$var1, $var2', 'return '.$sortfunc.'($var1["'.$field.'"], $var2["' .$field .'"]);'); } And here is the line I am calling to sort the array: $trek[] = usort($trek, getSortCommand('name', 'strnatcasecmp')); This produces the following output, with an extra element tacked on to the end. Array ( [0] = Array ( [name] = Kirk [shirt] = Gold [assign] = Bridge ) [1] => Array ( [name] => McCoy [shirt] => Blue [assign] => Sick Bay ) [2] => Array ( [name] => Scotty [shirt] => Red [assign] => Engineering ) [3] => Array ( [name] => Spock [shirt] => Blue [assign] => Bridge ) [4] => Array ( [name] => Uhura [shirt] => Red [assign] => Bridge ) [5] => 1 )

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  • EOFException in ObjectInputStream thrown accessing Servlet. Only for Webstart ?!

    - by Houtman
    Hi, My app. is started from both the commandline and by using an JNLP file. Im running java version 1.6.0_14 First i had the problem that i created the Buffered input and output streams in incorrect order. Found the solution here at StackOverflow . So starting from the commandline works fine now. But when starting the app using Webstart, it ends here java.io.EOFException at java.io.ObjectInputStream$PeekInputStream.readFully(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream$BlockDataInputStream.readShort(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readStreamHeader(Unknown Source) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.<init>(Unknown Source) at <..>remoting.thinclient.RemoteSocketChannel.<init>(RemoteSocketChannel.java:76) I found some posts regarding similar problems; at bugs.sun.com - identifies problem as solved in 6u10(b12)? at ibm.com - identifies cookies problem The latter suggests that there is a problem in Webstart with cookies. It doesn't seem to be acknowledged as a proper java bug though.. Still i am a bit lost in the solution provided regarding the cookies. Can anyone expand on the cookie solution? Many thanks.

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  • Stack Overflow like Watermarks in Forms

    - by Kaushik Gopal
    Hey people, I remember seeing a tutorial somewhere that talks of how to style your input forms in a more "usable" way. Essentially, you have a placeholder value and when you enter the input, it hides the hint so to speak. Now, just to be clear: I don't want the hint (placeholder value text) to disappear onFocus, but rather to go lighter when I first start typing something. Good e.gs: Check out the forms on Aardvark http://vark.com/. This is exactly how I wish to have my input forms. Our very own stackoverflow. When you try to ask a question, on clicking inside any input form, it doesn't hide the text right away. You see your cursor as well as the hint. but when you start to type, it hides the hint(I would prefer having it go to a much lighter shade rather than hiding all together, like above example). I remember very clearly reading a tutorial somewhere on the interwebz with this exact requirement, but darn forgot to bookmark it. Any suggestions/links?

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  • Creating an mailto: URL with a URL in the body iPhone SDK

    - by Sjakelien
    UPDATE: I just found a similar post here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/730101/how-do-i-encode-in-a-url-in-an-html-attribute-value Please consider the code below: I try to send an email message from within my iPhone app. The problem I encounter is that I want to put a URL in the body of the email. This URL contains two ampersands. I am encoding all the strings using "stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding", but the URL ends up in my new mail messagd truncated after the first ampersand. IE: "http://www.mydomain.nl/?cm=79&ctime=1246572000&cid=4772" becomes "http://www.mydomain.nl/?cm=79". Any suggestion what I could do to escape? NSString *eMailSubject = @"My Subject"; NSString *encodedSubject = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[eMailSubject stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSString *eMailBody = @"http://www.mydomain.nl?cm=79&ctime=1246572000&cid=4772"; NSString *encodedBody = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[eMailBody stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSString *urlString = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"mailto:?subject=%@&body=%@", encodedSubject, encodedBody]]; NSString *encodedURL = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[urlString stringByAddingPercentEscapesUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSURL *url = [[NSURL alloc] initWithString:encodedURL]; [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL:url];

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  • jquery: Writing a method

    - by Mark
    This is the same question as this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2890620/jquery-running-a-function-in-a-context-and-adding-to-a-variable But that question was poorly posed. Trying again, I'm trying to do something like this: I have a bunch of elements I want to grab data from, the data is in the form of classes of the element children. <div id='container'> <span class='a'></span> <span class='b'></span> <span class='c'></span> </div> <div id='container2'> <span class='1'></span> <span class='2'></span> <span class='3'></span> </div> I have a method like this: jQuery.fn.grabData = function(expr) { return this.each(function() { var self = $(this); self.find("span").each(function (){ var info = $(this).attr('class'); collection += info; }); }); }; I to run the method like this: var collection = ''; $('#container').grabData(); $('#container2').grabData(); The collection should be adding to each other so that in the end I get this console.log(collection); : abc123 But collection is undefined in the method. How can I let the method know which collection it should be adding to? Thanks.

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  • How to access different domain data using Java script

    - by shoaibmohammed
    Hello there, Here is the issue. Suppose there is a DOMAIN A which is going to be the server containing a PHP Script file. The data from Domain A is to be accessed by a Client at DOMAIN B. I know it cannot be accessed directly using JavaScript. So what I did is, in Domain A I created a a JavaScript file as front-end for the PHP Script which AJAXes the PHP and returns the data. But unfortunately it din't work I came across an example having PHP as a Middle Man in the client side. But I donot want to keep any server side PHP code as a middle man in the client side. I just want to give out the Javascript to the client domain. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/578095/how-to-get-data-with-javascript-from-another-server DOMAIN A PHP - data.php <?php echo "Server returns data"; ?> JS - example.js Does the Ajax to the PHP function getData() { //assume ajax is done for data.php and data is retrieved, now return the data return ajaxed_data; } Domain B JS Client includes the example.js file from Domain A in his HTML <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.DomainA.com/example.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> alert(getData()); </script> I hope I have made myself understandable ! Can this be established ? Its something like Google friend connect, what I mean is, just provide JavaScript to the client and thats it. Every thing carried out in server side Thankx for providing this forum

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  • ADODB.Connection undefined

    - by Wes Groleau
    Reference http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1690622/excel-vba-to-sql-server-without-ssis After I got the above working, I copied all the global variables/constants from the routine, which included Const CS As String = "Driver={SQL Server};" _ & "Server=**;" _ & "Database=**;" _ & "UID=**;" _ & "PWD=**" Dim DB_Conn As ADODB.Connection Dim Command As ADODB.Command Dim DB_Status As Stringinto a similar module in another spreadsheet. I also copied Sub Connect_To_Lockbox() If DB_Status < "Open" Then Set DB_Conn = New Connection DB_Conn.ConnectionString = CS DB_Conn.Open ' problem! DB_Status = "Open" End If End SubI added the same reference (ADO 2.8) The first spreadsheet still works; the seccond at DB_Conn.Open pops up "Run-time error '-214767259 (80004005)': [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified" Removing the references on both, saving files, re-opening, re-adding the references doesn't help. The one still works and the other gets the error. ?!?

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  • Implementation/interface inheritance design question.

    - by Neil G
    I would like to get the stackoverflow community's opinion on the following three design patterns. The first is implementation inheritance; the second is interface inheritance; the third is a middle ground. My specific question is: Which is best? implementation inheritance: class Base { X x() const = 0; void UpdateX(A a) { y_ = g(a); } Y y_; } class Derived: Base { X x() const { return f(y_); } } interface inheritance: class Base { X x() const = 0; void UpdateX(A a) = 0; } class Derived: Base { X x() const { return x_; } void UpdateX(A a) { x_ = f(g(a)); } X x_; } middle ground: class Base { X x() const { return x_; } void UpdateX(A a) = 0; X x_; } class Derived: Base { void UpdateX(A a) { x_ = f(g(a)); } } I know that many people prefer interface inheritance to implementation inheritance. However, the advantage of the latter is that with a pointer to Base, x() can be inlined and the address of x_ can be statically calculated.

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  • Java - Problem in deploying Web Application

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I have built a Java Web Application and packed it in a .war file and tested it on my local tomcat server and it is running fine. But when I deployed it on my client's server, it is showing an error. According to the remote server (my client's server), it is not finding a tld file packed in a jar file which I had placed in WEB-INF/lib directory. But when I checked the WEB-INF/lib directory for the jar file, i found that it was there. The contents of META-INF/MANIFEST.MF is as follows: Manifest-Version: 1.0 Class-Path: I think that there is no need to explicitly mention the classpath of WEB-INF/lib directory as it is in the classpath of any web application by default. Then, why the server can't find the jar file in the lib directory when I deployed it on a remote server and why it is working when I deployed the same application on my local server. I posted a question for this at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2441254/struts-1-struts-taglib-jar-is-not-being-found-by-my-web-application but found that the problem is unusual as nobody could answer it. So my questions are as follows: Q1. Is WEB-INF/lib still remains on the classpath if I leave the classpath entry blank as shown above in the MANIFEST.MF file or I should delete the classpath entry completely from the file or I should explicitly enter Class-Path: /WEB-INF/lib as the classpath entry? Q2. I have JSP pages, Servlets and some helper classes in the web application. Jsp pages are located at the root. Servlets and helper classes are located in WEB-INF/classes folder. So Is there any problem if my helper classes are located in the WEB-INF/classes folder? Note: Please note that this question is not same as my previous question. It is a follow-up question of my previous question. Both the servers (local and remote) are tomcat servers.

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  • Python - Things one MUST avoid

    - by Anurag Uniyal
    Today I was bitten again by "Mutable default arguments" after many years. I usually don't use mutable default arguments unless needed but I think with time I forgot about that, and today in the application I added tocElements=[] in a pdf generation function's argument list and now 'Table of Content' gets longer and longer after each invocation of "generate pdf" :) My question is what other things should I add to my list of things to MUST avoid? 1 Mutable default arguments 2 import modules always same way e.g. 'from y import x' and 'import x' are totally different things actually they are treated as different modules see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1459236/module-reimported-if-imported-from-different-path 3 Do not use range in place of lists because range() will become an iterator anyway, so things like this will fail, so wrap it by list myIndexList = [0,1,3] isListSorted = myIndexList == range(3) # will fail in 3.0 isListSorted = myIndexList == list(range(3)) # will not same thing can be mistakenly done with xrange e.g myIndexList == xrange(3). 4 Catching multiple exceptions try: raise KeyError("hmm bug") except KeyError,TypeError: print TypeError It prints "hmm bug", though it is not a bug, it looks like we are catching exceptions of type KeyError,TypeError but instead we are catching KeyError only as variable TypeError, instead use try: raise KeyError("hmm bug") except (KeyError,TypeError): print TypeError

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  • Cufon selector problems

    - by meep
    Hello StackOverflow. I am using Cufon (http://cufon.shoqolate.com/generate/) to replace some text in a menu. Problem is that I only need to style the first <li> of the first <ul>. I have tried using: Cufon.replace('#menu ul li > a', { fontFamily: 'Christopherhand', hover: { color: '#99c635'}}); With the > seperator, but it does not work. It still replaces the #menu ul li ul li a This is my markup: <div id="menu"> <ul> <li class="current"> <a href="#1">About JW</a> <ul> <li><a href="#2">Subpage 1</a></li> <li><a href="#3">Subpage 2</a></li> <li><a href="#4">Subpage 3</a></li> <li><a href="#5">Subpage 4</a></li> </ul> </li> <li><a href="#2">Our Products</a></li> <li><a href="#3">Best Recipes</a></li> <li><a href="#4">Health &amp; Diet</a></li> <li><a href="#5">Our Ads</a></li> </ul> </div> Can anyone see the problem? It should work without adding a class to sub <ul>. :-) Thank you.

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  • Reversing a circular deque without a sentinel

    - by SDLFunTimes
    Hey Stackoverflow I'm working on my homework and I'm trying to reverse a circular-linked deque without a sentinel. Here are my data structures: struct DLink { TYPE value; struct DLink * next; struct DLink * prev; }; struct cirListDeque { int size; struct DLink *back; }; Here's my approach to reversing the deque: void reverseCirListDeque(struct cirListDeque* q) { struct DLink* current; struct DLink* temp; temp = q->back->next; q->back->next = q->back->prev; q->back->prev = temp; current = q->back->next; while(current != q->back->next) { temp = current->next; current->next = current->prev; current->prev = temp; current = current->next; } } However when I run it and put values 1, 2 and 3 on it (TYPE is just a alias for int in this case) and reverse it I get 2, 3, null. Does anyone have any ideas as to what I may be doing wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • DotNetNuke and Subversion guidelines

    - by David Stratton
    I've Googled, Binged, and here at StackOverflow, looked through the related questions and searched, but I'm not finding what I'm looking for. I've also searched documentation on DNN. What I'm looking for is any guidance (tutorials, blogs, step-by-step instructions for setting up a repository) etc from people who are experienced in using DotNetNuke with SVN. We use SVN for all our source control, and have no problem with standard applications, because we pretty much built the repository and directory structure to work with our processes. This means when we do web sites, in Visual Studio, we do file based web sites, rather than setting them up in the local IIS. It just makes things easier for us. However, with DNN, it appears that even if you get the source code, it is expecting to be set up in the local IIS, which means additional headaches for us. For example, we are moving all of our source code off our local C drives, and onto a shared drive on a server. This is to enable backups in addition to our normal source control. (This was a management decision). So that means that we need to change the virtual web app when we make the move. Has anyone come up with a good way to work around this? Can DNN be set up so that the developer web server in Visual Studio can be used, so that we can treat it just like any normal web app? Am I missing something obvious? Edit - added I'm willing to accept answers like "We tried it and never got it to work", and "It can't be done" as answers. I'm always open to hearing "It can't be done the way you want. You need to change your procedures to match how it works" if necessary. I guess if you've got experience trying this and just couldn't get it to work, I can learn from your experience that way as well, but some detail would be good.

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  • Remove redundant SQL code

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Code The following code calculates the slope and intercept for a linear regression against a slathering of data. It then applies the equation y = mx + b against the same result set to calculate the value of the regression line for each row. Can the two separate sub-selects be joined so that the data and its slope/intercept are calculated without executing the data gathering part of the query twice? SELECT AVG(D.AMOUNT) as AMOUNT, Y.YEAR * ymxb.SLOPE + ymxb.INTERCEPT as REGRESSION_LINE, Y.YEAR as YEAR, MAKEDATE(Y.YEAR,1) as AMOUNT_DATE FROM CITY C, STATION S, YEAR_REF Y, MONTH_REF M, DAILY D, (SELECT ((avg(t.AMOUNT * t.YEAR)) - avg(t.AMOUNT) * avg(t.YEAR)) / (stddev( t.AMOUNT ) * stddev( t.YEAR )) as CORRELATION, ((sum(t.YEAR) * sum(t.AMOUNT)) - (count(1) * sum(t.YEAR * t.AMOUNT))) / (power(sum(t.YEAR), 2) - count(1) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2))) as SLOPE, ((sum( t.YEAR ) * sum( t.YEAR * t.AMOUNT )) - (sum( t.AMOUNT ) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2)))) / (power(sum(t.YEAR), 2) - count(1) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2))) as INTERCEPT FROM ( SELECT AVG(D.AMOUNT) as AMOUNT, Y.YEAR as YEAR, MAKEDATE(Y.YEAR,1) as AMOUNT_DATE FROM CITY C, STATION S, YEAR_REF Y, MONTH_REF M, DAILY D WHERE $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' GROUP BY Y.YEAR ) t ) ymxb WHERE $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' GROUP BY Y.YEAR Question How do I execute the duplicate bits only once per query, instead of twice? The duplicate bit is the WHERE clause: $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' Related http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1595659/how-to-eliminate-duplicate-calculation-in-sql Thank you!

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  • How to generate lots of redundant ajax elements like checkboxes and pulldowns in Django?

    - by iJames
    Hello folks. I've been getting lots of answers from stackoverflow now that I'm in Django just be searching. Now I hope my question will also create some value for everybody. In choosing Django, I was hoping there was some similar mechanism to the way you can do partials in ROR. This was going to help me in two ways. One was in generating repeating indexed forms or form elements, and also in rendering only a piece of the page on the round trip. I've done a little bit of that by using taconite with a simple URL click but now I'm trying to get more advanced. This will focus on the form issue which boils down to how to iterate over a secondary object. If I have a list of photo instances, each of which has a couple of parameters, let's say a size and a quantity. I want to generate form elements for each photo instance separately. But then I have two lists I want to iterate on at the same time. Context: photos : Photo.objects.all() and forms = {} for photo in photos: forms[photo.id] = PhotoForm() In other words we've got a list of photo objects and a dict of forms based on the photo.id. Here's an abstraction of the template: {% for photo in photos %} {% include "photoview.html" %} {% comment %} So here I want to use the photo.id as an index to get the correct form. So that each photo has its own form. I would want to have a different action and each form field would be unique. Is that possible? How can I iterate on that? Thanks! {% endcomment %} Quantity: {{ oi.quantity }} {{ form.quantity }} Dimensions: {{ oi.size }} {{ form.size }} {% endfor %} What can I do about this simple case. And how can I make it where every control is automatically updating the server instead of using a form at all? Thanks! James

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  • Can't write to dynamic iframe using jQuery

    - by Fremont Troll
    My goal is to dynamically create an iframe and write ad JavaScript into it using jQuery (e.g. Google AdSense script). My code works on Chrome, but fails intermittently in Firefox i.e. sometimes the ad script runs and renders the ad, and other times it doesn't. When it doesn't work, the script code itself shows up in the iframe. My guess is these intermittent failures occur because the iframe is not ready by the time I write to it. I have tried various iterations of *iframe_html* (my name for the function which is supposed to wait for the iframe to be ready), but no luck. Any help appreciated! PS: I have read various threads (e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/205087/jquery-ready-in-a-dynamically-inserted-iframe). Just letting everyone know that I've done my research on this, but I'm stuck :) Iteration 1: function iframe_html(html){ $('<iframe name ="myiframe" id="myiframe"/>').appendTo('#maindiv'); $('#myiframe').load( function(){ $('#myiframe').ready( function(){ var d = $("#myiframe")[0].contentWindow.document; d.open(); d.close(); d.write(html); }); } ); }; Iteration 2: function iframe_html(html){ $('<iframe id="myiframe"/>').appendTo('#maindiv').ready( function(){ $("#myiframe").contents().get(0).write(html); } ); };

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  • How to suppress jqgrid from initially loading data?

    - by Steve Johnston
    I have a page that has a couple of jqGrids on it, along with a few other fields. I want to make one AJAX call myself that pulls back a JSON object that has the data that should be used to fill the entire page. So, I would like to make the call myself, populate the "other fields" and then pull a couple of collections off of the main JSON object that was returned and populate each of the jqGrids with those collections "manually". I have this much working, but I can't get jqGrid to stop attempting to make an AJAX request itself. Shouldn't there be a way to tell jqGrid to NOT attempt an AJAX call when it is initialized? I found a similar question asked here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1850159/how-to-suppress-jqgrid-from-initially-loading-data But I don't have the option that solved it for the poster. It seems pretty logical to me that some people may want to use this plugin without having the table attempt to get its own data upon initialization. Am I missing an option somewhere in the documentation (wiki - options)? Thanks.

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  • Problems with display of UTF-8 encoded content from a DB

    - by LookUp Webmaster
    Dear members of the Stackoverflow community, We are developing a web application using the Zend Framework, and we are facing some encoding issues that we hope you might help us solve. The situation goes something like this: There are certain tables on a MySQL database that need to be displayed as html. Because the site is designed using the Spanish language, the database contains some characters like "á" or "ñ". Our internal policy is to set all the encodings as UTF-8, including all the databases and the tables. The problem is, that when we retrieve the content from the DB, some characters are displayed as question marks. We are out of ideas. These are all the things that we have already tried and double-checked: 1. The SQL file from which we load all the data is properly UTF-8 encoded. 2. The SQL is loaded through phpmyadmin (which is configured as UTF-8), and the resulting tables are displayed properly. 3. The netbeans environment used for coding is also set as UTF-8. The weird thing is that all the content that is hard-coded either as php or html is displayed properly. Only the values that are extracted from the database have issues. Any ideas? Thank you very much.

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  • How do I use price data in one table for a calculation that is stored in another table?

    - by shane
    I'm still leanring PHP/MySQL but have learned quite a bit thanks to codies on StackOverflow. I'm trying to setup a sort of room reservations system using two tables: SETUP: Room price table: Has, prices for a type room a client may want to rent as well as the dates (day of week) they wish to use it. Pricing varies based on day of the week and per room. I've setup a different table for each room type as each room type carries different pricing for each day of the week. So, There is an Alpha room table, Bravo room, etc. Within Alpha table are headers for the days of the week with pricing pre-entered into the rows. Client info table: Has the name, address, date of room use, etc data for the specific client. EXAMPLE: Alpha-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Bravo-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Client data table: ClientName; date-of-room-use; address; day_subtotal; grand_total. QUESTION: I'm trying to find PHP code that will: look at the date of room use in the client data table, look up the associated cost for that date in the specific room pricing table, record that unit cost in the day subtotal of the client data table and sum a grand total in the grand total row of the client data table (assuming the room may be used more than one day by the customer). I know there's something to do with join but I'm finding it difficult to grasp the concept and, if someone can demonstrate using this example, I think I will have a better understanding of how to work this sort of transaction. Thank you ALL in advance for your suggestions or alternatvie approaches.

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  • Navigating through code with keyboard shortcuts

    - by MarceloRamires
    I'm starting to feel the need to run fastly through code with keyboard shortcuts, to arrive faster where I want to make any changes (avoiding use of mouse or long times holding [up], [left], [right] and [down]). I'm already using some: [home] - first position in current line [end] - last position in current line [ctrl] + [home] - first line of the entire code [ctrl] + [end] - last line of the entire code [pageup] - same vertical position, one screen above [pagedown] - same vertical position, one screen below [ctrl] + [pageup] - first line in current screen [ctrl] + [end] - last line in current screen [ctrl] + [left/right] - skipping word per word What have you got ? I use Visual Studio. (but I'm open to any answer, as I maybe can use others soon) obs: I've searched through stackoverflow and didn't find a nice question with this content, nor a list of keyboard code searching. If it's repeated, I'm sorry for not finding it, I'm here in my best intentions. This question is NOT about any shortcuts, and not only about visual studio, it's about running through code with shortcuts. Answers that suit the question so far: [Ctrl] + [-] - jumps to last cursor position [Ctrl] + [F3] - Jumps to next occurance of the word the curson is in [Shift] + [F3] - Same as the above, backwards. [F12] - Goes to definition of method/variable the cursor is in [Ctrl] + [ ] ] - Jumps to matching brace and select I'll ad more as there are answers.

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  • Sort latitude and longitude coordinates into clockwise quadrangle

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Problem Users can provide up to four latitude and longitude coordinates, in any order. They do so with Google Maps. Using Google's Polygon API (v3), the coordinates they select should highlight the selected area between the four coordinates. Solutions and Searches http://stackoverflow.com/questions/242404/sort-four-points-in-clockwise-order Graham's scan seems too complicated for four coordinates Sort the coordinates into two arrays (one by latitude, the other longitude) ... then? Question How do you sort the coordinates in (counter-)clockwise order, using JavaScript? Code Here is what I have so far: // Ensures the markers are sorted: NW, NE, SE, SW function sortMarkers() { var ns = markers.slice( 0 ); var ew = markers.slice( 0 ); ew.sort( function( a, b ) { if( a.lat() < b.lat() ) { return -1; } else if( a.lat() > b.lat() ) { return 1; } return 0; }); ns.sort( function( a, b ) { if( a.lng() < b.lng() ) { return -1; } else if( a.lng() > b.lng() ) { return 1; } return 0; }); } What is a better approach? Thank you.

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