Search Results

Search found 5286 results on 212 pages for 'the third'.

Page 178/212 | < Previous Page | 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185  | Next Page >

• LNK4221 and LNK4006 Warnings!

  - by user295030

  Hi, I basically making a static library of my own. I have taken my code which works and now put it into a static library for another program to use. In my library I am using another static library which I don't want the people who will be using my API to know. Since, I want to hide that information from them I can't tell them to install the other static library. Anyway, I used the command line Lib.exe to extract and create a smaller lib file of just the obj's I used. However, I get a bunch of "LNK4006 :second definition ignored" linker warnings for each obj I use followed by "LNK4221 no public symbols found;archive member will be inaccessible". I am doing this work in vs2008 and I am not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using the #pragma comment line in my .cpp file I have also modified the librarian to add my smaller .lib along with its location. my code simply makes calls to a couple functions which it should be able to get from those Obj file in the smaller lib. All my functions are implemented in .cpp file and my header just have the includes of the third party header files and come standard c++ header files. nothing fancy. I have actually no function definitions in there atm. I was going to put the API definition in there and implement that in the .cpp for this static lib that i was going to make. However, I just wanted to build my code before I added more to it. s Any help would be appreciated. is this a vs2008 configuration issue? or a program issue I am not sure. thanks for the help!

  Read the article

• HTTP post using php and curl failing

  - by user2916484

  I am trying to send an XML file to an external system. I am using the below code for doing so, which I got over the internet. But I observed that when i put an echo on the xml variable, it does not show me the XML as a string, but it is parsing the xml and showing me the values. Same is happening when I am sending this to external system. Which is failing. Can you please tell me a way, in which the XML is not parsed and I can send the entire XML text as a string to external system? My code is below. <?php $xml = '<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding="UTF-8" ?><shiporder><orderID>1234</orderID> <orderperson>John Smith</orderperson></shiporder>'; $xml2 = ''; $headers = array( "Content-type: text/xml", "Content-length: " . strlen($xml), "Connection: close", ); // give the path of the Third party site $url = "http://<server>:<port>/XMII/Illuminator?service=WSMessageListener&mode=WSMessageListenerServer&NAME=shiporder&IllumLoginName=<name>&IllumLoginPassword=<pswd>"; echo $xml; echo $url; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL,$url); //curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_MUTE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 10); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $xml); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $output = curl_exec($ch); echo $output; curl_close($ch); ?> Regards, Gita

  Read the article

• Pointer reference and dereference

  - by ZhekakehZ

  I have the following code: #include <iostream> char ch[] = "abcd"; int main() { std::cout << (long)(int*)(ch+0) << ' ' << (long)(int*)(ch+1) << ' ' << (long)(int*)(ch+2) << ' ' << (long)(int*)(ch+3) << std::endl; std::cout << *(int*)(ch+0) << ' ' << *(int*)(ch+1) << ' ' << *(int*)(ch+2) << ' ' << *(int*)(ch+3) << std::endl; std::cout << int('abcd') << ' ' << int('bcd') << ' ' << int('cd') << ' ' << int('d') << std::endl; } My question is why the pointer of 'd' is 100 ? I think it should be: int('d') << 24; //plus some trash on stack after ch And the question is why the second and the third line of the stdout are different ? 6295640 6295641 6295642 6295643 1684234849 6579042 25699 100 1633837924 6447972 25444 100 Thanks.

  Read the article

• Strange behaviour of DataTable with DataGridView

  - by Paul

  Please explain me what is happening. I have created a WinForms .NET application which has DataGridView on a form and should update database when DataGridView inline editing is used. Form has SqlDataAdapter _da with four SqlCommands bound to it. DataGridView is bound directly to DataTable _names. Such a CellValueChanged handler: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { _da.Update(_names); } does not update database state although _names DataTable is updated. All the rows of _names have RowState == DataRowState.Unchanged Ok, I modified the handler: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { DataRow row = _names.Rows[e.RowIndex]; row.BeginEdit(); row.EndEdit(); _da.Update(_names); } this variant really writes modified cell to database, but when I attempt to insert new row into grid, I get an error about an absence of row with index e.RowIndex So, I decided to improve the handler further: private void dataGridView1_CellValueChanged(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { if (_names.Rows.Count<e.RowIndex) { DataRow row = _names.Rows[e.RowIndex]; row.BeginEdit(); row.EndEdit(); } else { DataRow row = _names.NewRow(); row["NameText"] = dataGridView1["NameText", e.RowIndex].Value; _names.Rows.Add(row); } _da.Update(_names); } Now the really strange things happen when I insert new row to grid: the grid remains what it was until _names.Rows.Add(row); After this line THREE rows are inserted into table - two rows with the same value and one with Null value. The slightly modified code: DataRow row = _names.NewRow(); row["NameText"] = "--------------" _names.Rows.Add(row); inserts three rows with three different values: one as entered into the grid, the second with "--------------" value and third - with Null value. I really got stuck in guessing what is happening.

  Read the article

• Cant get JavaScipt to check for null objects

  - by CountMurphy

  I really don't know what the issue is here. Far as I can see, the code is simple and should work fine. var Prices=""; for (var PriceCount = 1; PriceCount <= 120; PriceCount++) { var CurrentPrice = "Price" + PriceCount; if (prevDoc.getElementById(CurrentPrice).value != null) { if (Prices == "") { Prices = prevDoc.getElementById(CurrentPrice).value; } else { Prices += "," + prevDoc.getElementById(CurrentPrice).value; } } else { break; } } There could be up to 120 hidden inputs on the form. The moment we check for an input that doesn't exist the loop should break. My test page has two input elements that get pulled. On the third (the null) I get this error in firebug: prevDoc.getElementById(CurrentPrice) is null if (prevDoc.getElementById(CurrentPrice).value != null) { Yes it is null...that's what the check is for ?_? Does any one know what I'm doing wrong? This seems like it should be really straight forward. EDIT: for clarity's sake, prevDoc=window.opener.document

  Read the article

• How can I dynamically define the named route in a :partial in rails?

  - by Angela

  I have the following partial. It can be called from three different times in a view as follows: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => email} %> Second time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => call} %> Third time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => letter} %> In each instance, call, email, letter refer to a specific instance of a Model Call, Email, or Letter. Here is the content of the partial "contact_event": <%= link_to_remote "Skip #{event} Remote", :url => skip_contact_email_url(contact_event, event), :update => "update-area-#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}" %> <span id='update-area-<%="#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}"%>'> </span> </p> My challenge: skip_contact_email_url only works when the event refers to an email. How can I dynamically define skip_contact_email_url to be skip_contact_letter_url if the local variable is letter? Even better, how can I have a single named route that would do the appropriate action?

  Read the article

• How can I dynamically call the named route in a :partial in rails?

  - by Angela

  I have the following partial. It can be called from three different times in a view as follows: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => email} %> Second time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => call} %> Third time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => letter} %> In each instance, call, email, letter refer to a specific instance of a Model Call, Email, or Letter. Here is what I tried to do and conceptually what I'd like to do: assign the route based on the class name that has been passed to the :event from the :partial. What I did was create what the actual url should be. The 'text' of it is correct, but doesn't seem to recognize it as a named route. <% url = "skip_contact_#{event.class.name.tableize.singularize}_url" % <%= link_to_remote "Skip #{url} Remote", :url = skip_contact_email_url(contact_event, event), :update = "update-area-#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}" % ' My challenge: skip_contact_email_url only works when the event refers to an email. How can I dynamically define skip_contact_email_url to be skip_contact_letter_url if the local variable is letter? Even better, how can I have a single named route that would do the appropriate action?

  Read the article

• Starting a personal reuasable code repository.

  - by Rob Stevenson-Leggett

  Hi, I've been meaning to start a library of reusable code snippets for a while and never seem to get round to it. At the moment I just tend to have some transient classes/files that I drag out of old projects. I think my main problems are: Where to start. What structure should my repository take? Should it be a compiled library (where appropriate) or just classes/files I can drop into any project? Or a library project that can be included? What are the licencing implications of that? In my experience, a built/minified library will quickly become out of date and the source will get lost. So I'm leaning towards source that I can export from SVN and include in any project. Intellectual property. I am employeed, so a lot of the code I write is not my IP. How can I ensure that I don't give my own IP away using it on projects in work and at home? I'm thinking the best way would be to licence my library with an open source licence and make sure I only add to it in my own time using my own equipment and therefore making sure that if I use it in a work project the same rules apply as if I was using a third party library. I write in many different languages and often would require two or more parts of this library. Should I look at implementing a few template projects and a core project for each of my chosen reusable components and languages? Has anyone else got this sort of library and how do you organise and update it?

  Read the article

• UPDATE Table SET Field

  - by davlyo

  This is my Very first Post! Bear with me. I have an Update Statement that I am trying to understand how SQL Server handles it. UPDATE a SET a.vField3 = b.vField3 FROM tableName a INNER JOIN tableName b ON a.vField1 = b.vField1 AND b.nField2 = a.nField2 – 1 This is my query in its simplest form. vField1 is a Varchar nField2 is an int (autonumber) vField3 is a Varchar I have left the WHERE clause out so understand there is logic that otherwise makes this a nessessity. Say vField1 is a Customer Number and that Customer has 3 records The value in nField2 is 1, 2, and 3 consecutively. vField3 is a Status When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 1 there is no a.nField2 -1 so it continues When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 2, b.nField2 = 1 When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 3, b.nField2 = 2 So when the Update is on a.nField2 = 2, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 1) And it SETs the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the Update is on a.nField2 = 3, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 2) And it (should) SET the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the process is complete –the Second of three records looks as expected –hence the value in vField3 of the second record reflects the value in vField3 from the First record However, vField3 of the Third record does not reflect the value in vField3 from the Second record. I think this demonstrates that SQL Server may be producing a transaction of some sort and then an update. Question: How can I get the DB to Update after each transaction so I can reference the values generated by each transaction?

  Read the article

• Rails - Update a single attribute : link with custom action or form with hidden fields?

  - by MrRuru

  Let's say I have a User model, with a facebook_uid field corresponding to the user's facebook id. I want to allow the user to unlink his facebook account. Do do so, I need to set this attribute to nil. I currently see 2 ways of doing this First way : create a custom action and link to it # app/controllers/users_controller.rb def unlink_facebook_account @user = User.find params[:id] # Authorization checks go here @user.facebook_uid = nil @user.save # Redirection go here end # config/routes.rb ressources :users do get 'unlink_fb', :on => :member, :as => unlink_fb end # in a view = link_to "Unlink your facebook account", unlink_fb_path(@user) Second way : create a form to the existing update action # app/views/user/_unlink_fb_form.html.haml = form_for @user, :method => "post" do |f| = f.hidden_field :facebook_uid, :value => nil = f.submit "Unlink Facebook account" I'm not a big fan of either way. In the first one, I have to add a new action for something that the update controller already can do. In the second one, I cannot set the facebook_uid to nil without customizing the update action, and I cannot have a link instead of a button without adding some javascript. Still, what would you recommend as the best and most elegant solution for this context? Did I miss a third alternative?

  Read the article

• How to check if a thread is busy in C#?

  - by Sam

  I have a Windows Forms UI running on a thread, Thread1. I have another thread, Thread2, that gets tons of data via external events that needs to update the Windows UI. (It actually updates multiple UI threads.) I have a third thread, Thread3, that I use as a buffer thread between Thread1 and Thread2 so that Thread2 can continue to update other threads (via the same method). My buffer thread, Thread3, looks like this: public class ThreadBuffer { public ThreadBuffer(frmUI form, CustomArgs e) { form.Invoke((MethodInvoker)delegate { form.UpdateUI(e); }); } } What I would like to do is for my ThreadBuffer to check whether my form is currently busy doing previous updates. If it is, I'd like for it to wait until it frees up and then invoke the UpdateUI(e). I was thinking about either: a) //PseudoCode while(form==busy) { // Do nothing; } form.Invoke((MethodInvoker)delegate { form.UpdateUI(e); }); How would I check the form==busy? Also, I am not sure that this is a good approach. b) Create an event in form1 that will notify the ThreadBuffer that it is ready to process. // psuedocode List<CustomArgs> elist = new List<CustomArgs>(); public ThreadBuffer(frmUI form, CustomArgs e) { from.OnFreedUp += from_OnFreedUp(); elist.Add(e); } private form_OnFreedUp() { if (elist.count == 0) return; form.Invoke((MethodInvoker)delegate { form.UpdateUI(elist[0]); }); elist.Remove(elist[0]); } In this case, how would I write an event that will notify that the form is free? and c) an other ideas?

  Read the article

• How do I prevent a <td> from being too high?

  - by Cornflake

  It must be something stupid, but I can't figure it out so far... Here is my HTML: <table cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0" border="0"> <tr> <td style="height: 8px"><img src="/media/note2.png" width="8" height="8" border="0"></td> <td style="height: 8px"></td> <td style="height: 8px"><img src="/media/note1.png" width="8" height="8" border="0"></td> </tr> <tr> <td class="NoteCell"></td> <td class="NoteCell">{{ text }}</td> <td class="NoteCell"></td> </tr> <tr> <td style="height: 8px"><img src="/media/note4.png" width="8" height="8" border="0"></td> <td style="height: 8px"></td> <td style="height: 8px"><img src="/media/note3.png" width="8" height="8" border="0"></td> </tr> I'm expecting the first and third rows to have a height of 8 pixels, but for some reason they are much higher (as if there was text inside, but there is no text!) Puzzled... Any help will be appreciated!

  Read the article

• How to know the type of an object in a list?

  - by nacho4d

  Hi, I want to know the type of object (or type) I have in my list so I wrote this: void **list; //list of references list = new void * [2]; Foo foo = Foo(); const char *not_table [] = {"tf", "ft", 0 }; list[0] = &foo; list[1] = not_table; if (dynamic_cast<LogicProcessor*>(list[0])) { //ERROR here ;( printf("Foo was found\n"); } if (dynamic_cast<char*> (list[0])) { //ERROR here ;( printf("char was found\n"); } but I get : error: cannot dynamic_cast '* list' (of type 'void*') to type 'class Foo*' (source is not a pointer to class) error: cannot dynamic_cast '* list' (of type 'void*') to type 'char*' (target is not pointer or reference to class) Why is this? what I am doing wrong here? Is dynamic_cast what I should use here? Thanks in advance EDIT: I know above code is much like plain C and surely sucks from the C++ point of view but is just I have the following situation and I was trying something before really implementing it: I have two arrays of length n but both arrays will never have an object at the same index. Hence, or I have array1[i]!=NULL or array2[i]!=NULL. This is obviously a waste of memory so I thought everything would be solved if I could have both kind of objects in a single array of length n. I am looking something like Cocoa's (Objective-C) NSArray where you don't care about the type of the object to be put in. Not knowing the type of the object is not a problem since you can use other method to get the class of a certain later. Is there something like it in c++ (preferably not third party C++ libraries) ? Thanks in advance ;)

  Read the article

• Heapsort not working in Python for list of strings using heapq module

  - by VSN

  I was reading the python 2.7 documentation when I came across the heapq module. I was interested in the heapify() and the heappop() methods. So, I decided to write a simple heapsort program for integers: from heapq import heapify, heappop user_input = raw_input("Enter numbers to be sorted: ") data = map (int, user_input.split(",")) new_data = [] for i in range(len(data)): heapify(data) new_data.append(heappop(data)) print new_data This worked like a charm. To make it more interesting, I thought I would take away the integer conversion and leave it as a string. Logically, it should make no difference and the code should work as it did for integers: from heapq import heapify, heappop user_input = raw_input("Enter numbers to be sorted: ") data = user_input.split(",") new_data = [] for i in range(len(data)): heapify(data) print data new_data.append(heappop(data)) print new_data Note: I added a print statement in the for loop to see the heapified list. Here's the output when I ran the script: `$ python heapsort.py Enter numbers to be sorted: 4, 3, 1, 9, 6, 2 [' 1', ' 3', ' 2', ' 9', ' 6', '4'] [' 2', ' 3', '4', ' 9', ' 6'] [' 3', ' 6', '4', ' 9'] [' 6', ' 9', '4'] [' 9', '4'] ['4'] [' 1', ' 2', ' 3', ' 6', ' 9', '4']` The reasoning I applied was that since the strings are being compared, the tree should be the same if they were numbers. As is evident, the heapify didn't work correctly after the third iteration. Could someone help me figure out if I am missing something here? I'm running Python 2.4.5 on RedHat 3.4.6-9. Thanks, VSN

  Read the article

• jquery displaying table rows dynamically in dom belonging to one/more particular class

  - by whatf

  I have the basic html structure: <table> <tbody> <tr class="1"> <td> <p style="font-size:large"> <span class="muted"> This is the first object </span> </p> </td> </tr> <tr class="2"> <td> <p style="font-size:large"> <span class="muted"> This is second object </span> </p> </td> </tr> <tr class="3"> <p style="font-size:large"> <span class="muted"> this is the third object </span> </p> </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> and then I have check boxes, the functionality i want is, if checkbox 1 is checked, only the tr with class 1 be displayed. if checkbox 2 and 3 are clicked, the tr with class 1 gets hidden and 2, 3 show in the dom. again if checkbox 2,*3* are unchecked and 1 is checked tr with class 2, 3 do not show and 1 is showed. How can this be done in jQuery?

  Read the article

• SQL Server Connection Timeout C#

  - by Termin8tor

  First off I'd like to let everyone know I have searched my particular problem and can't seem to find what's causing my problem. I have an SQL Server 2008 instance running on a network machine and a client I have written connecting to it. To connect I have a small segment of code that establishes a connection to an sql server 2008 instance and returns a DataTable populated with the results of whatever query I run against the server, all pretty standard stuff really. Anyway the issue is, whenever I open my program and call this method, upon the first call to my method, regardless as to what I've set my Connection Timeout value as in the connection string, it takes about 15 seconds and then times out. Bizarrely though the second or third call I make to the method will work without a problem. I have opened up the ports for SQL Server on the server machine as outlined in this article: How to Open firewall ports for SQL Server and verified that it is correctly configured. Can anyone see a particular problem in my code? string _connectionString = "Server=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlServer + "; Initial Catalog=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlInitialCatalog + ";User Id=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlUsername + ";Password=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlPassword + "; Connection Timeout=1"; private DataTable ExecuteSqlStatement(string command) { using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) { try { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataAdapter adaptor = new SqlDataAdapter(command, conn)) { DataTable table = new DataTable(); adaptor.Fill(table); return table; } } catch (SqlException e) { throw e; } } } The SqlException that is caught at my catch is : "Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding." This occurs at the conn.Open(); line in the code snippet I have included. If anyone has any ideas that'd be great!

  Read the article

• Rails - Beginner wants feedback on how they've modeled their app and how to do it better.

  - by adam

  I think the way I've modelled my app is a bit fishy and i need to rejig things, im just not sure how. I've already re-jigged and refactored before. It took a long time ( I'm a beginner ) and I'm hesitant to it again in case i head off in the wrong direction again. Basic Idea, user can submit an answer, another user can mark it correct or incorrect. If incorrect they have to write the correct answer. Users can view their and everybody else's correct and incorrect answers. So I did it this way class Answer has_one: correction end class Correction belongs_to :answer end when a user marks an answer as correct, I set checked_at:DateTime and checked_by_id:integer on the Answer object to keep track of who checked the answer and when. For incorrect answers I create a correction object which holds the correct answer and again checked_by and checked_at details. I don't like this because I have checked_by and checked_at in both models. It just doesn't sit right. Possible solutions are: Create a third model such as VerifiedAnswer and move the checked_by/at attributes to that. It will handle the situtation where an answer is marked correct. Or are these models thin enough (they dont have any other attributes) that I can just have one model ( Answer ) that has all the attributes to store all this information?

  Read the article

• Finding occurrences of element before and after the element in Array

  - by user3718040

  I am writing a algorithm, if an array contain 3 does not contain between two 1s. like this int array={5, 2, 10, 3, 15, 1, 2, 2} the above array contain 3, before 3 there is no 1 and after 3 is one 1 it should return True. int array={3,2,18,1,0,3,-11,1,3} in this array after first element of 3 there is two 1 it should return False. I have try following code public class Third { public static void main(String[] args){ int[] array = {1,2,4,3, 1}; for(int i=0;i<array.length;i++) { if(array[i]==3) { for(int j=0;j<array[i];j++) { if(array[j]==1) { System.out.println("I foud One before "+array[j]); }else { break; } System.out.println("yes i found the array:"+array[i]); } for(int z=0;z>array[i];z++) { if(array[z]==1) { System.out.println("I found after 3 is :"+array[z]); } break; } } } } } I am not getting exact result from my above code which i want.

  Read the article

• Boolean comparison of array of strings in Ruby

  - by Kyle Kaitan

  I've got an array in Ruby that essentially represents a square boolean matrix. Dots represent zeroes, while any other character represents ones. Example: irb(main):044:0> g => [".b", "m."] # This grid has two '1' values and two '0' values. I'd like to perform a specified logical operation (say, OR) on this array with another similar array to get a third result. For example, if h is ["q.", "r."], then something akin to g.perform_or(h) should yield a new array ["qb", "r."]. (The choice of r to represent the result of 'm' || 'r' is arbitrary and not relevant; any other non-'.' character can be there.) How might I do this? Edit: I made an error in my example. Apologies!

  Read the article

• how to fetch data from Plist in Label

  - by SameSung Vs Iphone

  I have a RegistrationController screen to store email-id ,password,DOB,Height,Weight and logininController screen to match email-id and password to log-in purpose. Now In some third screen I have to fetch only the Height,Weight from the plist of the logged-in user to display it on the label.now if I Store the values of email-id and password in from LoginViewController in string and call it in the new screen to match if matches then gives Height,Weight ..if it corrects then how to fetch Height,Weight from the plist of the same one. how can i fetch from the stored plist in a string... the code which i used to match in LoginController -(NSArray*)readFromPlist { NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [documentPaths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *documentPlistPath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"XYZ.plist"]; NSDictionary *dict = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithContentsOfFile:documentPlistPath]; NSArray *valueArray = [dict objectForKey:@"title"]; return valueArray; } - (void)authenticateCredentials { NSMutableArray *plistArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray:[self readFromPlist]]; for (int i = 0; i< [plistArray count]; i++) { id object = [plistArray objectAtIndex:i]; if ([object isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) { NSDictionary *objDict = (NSDictionary *)object; if ([[objDict objectForKey:@"pass"] isEqualToString:emailTextFeild.text] && [[objDict objectForKey:@"title"] isEqualToString:passwordTextFeild.text]) { NSLog(@"Correct credentials"); return; } NSLog(@"INCorrect credentials"); } else { NSLog(@"Error! Not a dictionary"); } } }

  Read the article

• Beginner Question ; About Prime Generation in "C" - What is wrong with my code ? -

  - by alorsoncode

  I'm a third year irregular CS student and ,i just realized that i have to start coding. I passed my coding classes with lower bound grades so that i haven't a good background in coding&programming. I'm trying to write a code that generates prime numbers between given upper and lower bounds. Not knowing C well, enforce me to write a rough code then go over it to solve. I can easily set up the logic for intended function but i probably create a wrong algorithm through several different ways. Here I share my last code, i intend to calculate that when a number gives remainder Zero , it should be it self and 1 , so that count==2; What is wrong with my implementation and with my solution generating style? I hope you will warm me up to programming world, i couldn't find enough motivation and courage to get deep into programming. Thanks in Advance :) Stdio and Math.h is Included int primegen(int down,int up) { int divisor,candidate,count=0,k; for(candidate=down;candidate<=up;candidate++) { for(divisor=1;divisor<=candidate;divisor++) { k=(candidate%divisor); } if (k==0) count++; if(count==2) { printf("%d\n", candidate); count=0; } else { continue; } } } int main() { primegen(3,15); return 0; }

  Read the article

• iOS: Best Way to do This w/o Calling Method 32 Times?

  - by user1886754

  I'm currently retrieving the Top 100 Scores for one of my leaderboards the following way: - (void) retrieveTop100Scores { __block int totalScore = 0; GKLeaderboard *myLB = [[GKLeaderboard alloc] init]; myLB.identifier = [Team currentTeam]; myLB.timeScope = GKLeaderboardTimeScopeAllTime; myLB.playerScope = GKLeaderboardPlayerScopeGlobal; myLB.range = NSMakeRange(1, 100); [myLB loadScoresWithCompletionHandler:^(NSArray *scores, NSError *error) { if (error != nil) { NSLog(@"%@", [error localizedDescription]); } if (scores != nil) { for (GKScore *score in scores) { NSLog(@"%lld", score.value); totalScore += score.value; } NSLog(@"Total Score: %d", totalScore); [self loadingDidEnd]; } }]; } The problem is I want to do this for 32 leaderboards. What's the best way of achieving this? Using a third party tool (Game Center Manager), I can get the following line to return a dictionary with leaderboard ID's as keys and the Top 1 highest score as values NSDictionary *highScores = [[GameCenterManager sharedManager] highScoreForLeaderboards:leaderboardIDs]; So my question is, how can I combine those 2 segments of code to pull in the 100 values for each leaderboard, resulting in a dictionary with all of the leaderboard names as keys, and the Total (of each 100 scores) of the leaderboards for values.

  Read the article

• Get parameter values from method at run time

  - by Landin Martens

  I have the current method example: public void MethodName(string param1,int param2) { object[] obj = new object[] { (object) param1, (object) param2 }; //Code to that uses this array to invoke dynamic methods } Is there a dynamic way (I am guessing using reflection) that will get the current executing method parameter values and place them in a object array? I have read that you can get parameter information using MethodBase and MethodInfo but those only have information about the parameter and not the value it self which is what I need. So for example if I pass "test" and 1 as method parameters without coding for the specific parameters can I get a object array with two indexes { "test", 1 }? I would really like to not have to use a third party API, but if it has source code for that API then I will accept that as an answer as long as its not a huge API and there is no simple way to do it without this API. I am sure there must be a way, maybe using the stack, who knows. You guys are the experts and that is why I come here. Thank you in advance, I can't wait to see how this is done. EDIT It may not be clear so here some extra information. This code example is just that, an example to show what I want. It would be to bloated and big to show the actual code where it is needed but the question is how to get the array without manually creating one. I need to some how get the values and place them in a array without coding the specific parameters.

  Read the article

• Stop SQL returning the same result twice in a JOIN

  - by nbs189

  I have joined together several tables to get data i want but since I am new to SQL i can't figure out how to stop data being returned more than once. her's the SQL statement; SELECT T.url, T.ID, S.status, S.ID, E.action, E.ID, E.timestamp FROM tracks T, status S, events E WHERE S.ID AND T.ID = E.ID ORDER BY E.timestamp DESC The data that is returned is something like this; +----------------------------------------------------------------+ | URL | ID | Status | ID | action | ID | timestamp | +----------------------------------------------------------------+ | T.1 | 4 | hello | 4 | has uploaded a track | 4 | time | | T.2 | 3 | bye | 3 | has some news | 3 | time | | t.1 | 4 | more | 4 | has some news | 4 | time | +----------------------------------------------------------------+ That's a very basic example but does outline what happens. If you look at the third row the URL is repeated when there is a different status. This is what I want to happen; +-------------------------------------------------------+ | URL or Status | ID | action | timestamp | +-------------------------------------------------------+ | T.1 | 4 | has uploaded a track | time | | hello | 3 | has some news | time | | bye | 4 | has some news | time | +-------------------------------------------------------+ Please notice that the the url (in this case the mock one is T.1) is shown when the action is has uploaded a track. This is very important. The action in the events table is inserted on trigger of a status or track insert. If a new track is inserted the action is 'has uploaded a track' and you guess what it is for a status. The ID and timestamp is also inserted into the events table at this point. Note: There are more tables that go into the query, 3 more in fact, but I have left them out for simplicity.

  Read the article

• loading remote page into DOM with javascript

  - by scoobydoo

  I am trying to write a web widget which will allow users to display customized information (from my website) in their own web page. The mechanism I want to use (for creating the web widget) is javascript. So basically, I want to be able to write some javascript code like this (this is what the end user copies into their HTML page, to get my widget displayed in their page) <script type="text/javascript"> /* javascript here to fetch page from remote url and insert into DOM */ </script> I have two questions: how do I write a javascript code to fetch the page from the remote url? Ideally this will be PLAIN javascript (i.e. not using jQuery etc - since I dont want to force the user to get third party scripts jQuery which may conflict with other scripts on their page etc) The page I am fetching contains inline javascript, which gets executed in an body.onLoad event, as well as other functions which are used in response to user actions - my questions are: i). will the body.onLoad event be triggered for the retrieved document?. ii). If the retrieved page is dumped directly into the DOM, then the document will contain two <body> sections, which is no longer valid (X)HTML - however, I need the body.onLoad event to be triggered for the page to be setup correctly, and I also need the other functions in the retrieved page, for the retrieved page to be able to respond to the user interaction. Any suggestions/tips on how I can solve these problems?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185  | Next Page >