Search Results

Search found 5718 results on 229 pages for 'apply'.

Page 180/229 | < Previous Page | 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187  | Next Page >

  • Toggle Blind Effect

    - by flipflopmedia
    Is there a way to alter this script to be used as the blind effect. // Andy Langton's show/hide/mini-accordion - updated 23/11/2009 // Latest version @ http://andylangton.co.uk/jquery-show-hide // this tells jquery to run the function below once the DOM is ready $(document).ready(function() { // choose text for the show/hide link - can contain HTML (e.g. an image) var showText=''; var hideText=''; // initialise the visibility check var is_visible = false; // append show/hide links to the element directly preceding the element with a class of "toggle" $('.toggle').prev().append(' '+showText+''); // hide all of the elements with a class of 'toggle' $('.toggle').hide(); // capture clicks on the toggle links $('a.toggleLink').click(function() { // switch visibility is_visible = !is_visible; // toggle the display - uncomment the next line for a basic "accordion" style //$('.toggle').hide();$('a.toggleLink').html(showText); $(this).parent().next('.toggle').toggle('slow'); // return false so any link destination is not followed return false; }); }); FYI- Where it says: var showText=''; var hideText=''; It was originally: var showText='Show'; var hideText='Hide'; I deleted the Show/Hide Text because I am applying the link to different areas of text. I like the Blind effect, vs. this Toggle effect, and need to know how to apply it, if possible. I cannot find a basic Blind effect script that allows the use of applying the link to ANY text, vs. a button or static text. Thanks! Hope you can help! Tracy

    Read the article

  • Can I perform some processing on the POST data before ASP.NET MVC UpdateModel happens?

    - by Domenic
    I would like to strip out non-numeric elements from the POST data before using UpdateModel to update the copy in the database. Is there a way to do this? // TODO: it appears I don't even use the parameter given at all, and all the magic // happens via UpdateModel and the "controller's current value provider"? [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index([Bind(Include="X1, X2")] Team model) // TODO: stupid magic strings { if (this.ModelState.IsValid) { TeamContainer context = new TeamContainer(); Team thisTeam = context.Teams.Single(t => t.TeamId == this.CurrentTeamId); // TODO HERE: apply StripWhitespace() to the data before using UpdateModel. // The data is currently somewhere in the "current value provider"? this.UpdateModel(thisTeam); context.SaveChanges(); this.RedirectToAction(c => c.Index()); } else { this.ModelState.AddModelError("", "Please enter two valid Xs."); } // If we got this far, something failed; redisplay the form. return this.View(model); } Sorry for the terseness, up all night working on this; hopefully my question is clear enough? Also sorry since this is kind of a newbie question that I might be able to get with a few hours of documentation-trawling, but I'm time-pressured... bleh.

    Read the article

  • Syncing two separate structures to the same master data

    - by Mike Burton
    I've got multiple structures to maintain in my application. All link to the same records, and one of them could be considered the "master" in that it reflects actual relationships held in files on disk. The other structures are used to "call out" elements of the main design for purchase and work orders. I'm struggling to come up with a pattern that deals appropriately with changes to the master data. As an example, the following trees might refer to the same data: A |_ B |_ C |_ D |_ E |_ B |_ C |_ D A |_ B E C |_ D A |_ B C D E These secondary structures follow internal rules, but their overall structure is usually user-determined. In all cases (including the master), any element can be used in multiple locations and in multiple trees. When I add a child to any element in the tree, I want to either automatically build the secondary structure for each instance of the "master" element or at least advertise the situation to the user and allow them to manually generate the data required for the secondary trees. Is there any pattern which might apply to this situation? I've been treating it as a view problem, but it turns out to be more complicated than that when you look at the initial generation of the data.

    Read the article

  • Update a PDF to include an encrypted, hidden, unique identifier?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Background The idea is this: Person provides contact information for online book purchase Book, as a PDF, is marked with a unique hash Person downloads book PDF passwords are annoying and extremely easy to circumvent. The ideal process would be something like: Generate hash based on contact information Store contact information and hash in database Acquire book lock Update an "include" file with hash text Generate book as PDF (using pdflatex) Apply hash to book Release book lock Send email with book download link Technologies The following technologies can be used (other programming languages are possible, but libraries will likely be limited to those supplied by the host): C, Java, PHP LaTeX files PDF files Linux Question What programming techniques (or open source software) should I investigate to: Embed a unique hash (or other mark) to a PDF Create a collusion-attack resistant mark Develop a non-fragile (e.g., PDF -> EPS -> PDF still contains the mark) solution Research I have looked at the following possibilities: Steganography Natural Language Processing (NLP) Convert blank pages in PDF to images; mark those images; reassemble PDF LaTeX watermark package ImageMagick Steganograhy requires keeping a master copy of the images, and I'm not sure if the watermark would survive PDF -> EPS -> PDF, or other types of conversion. LaTeX creates an image cache, so any steganographic process would have to intercept that process somehow. NLP introduces grammatical errors. Inserting blank pages as images is immediately suspect; it is easy to replace suspicious blank pages. The LaTeX watermark package draws visible marks. ImageMagick draws visible marks. What other solutions are possible? Related Links http://www.tcpdf.org/ invisible watermarks in images Thank you!

    Read the article

  • mod_rewrite with question marks and ampersands (with PHP)

    - by Chris
    I have a PHP-based web app that I'm trying to apply Apache's mod_rewrite to. Original URLs are of the form: http://example.com/index.php?page=home&x=5 And I'd like to transform these into: http://example.com/home?x=5 Note that while rewriting the page name, I'm also effectively "moving" the question mark. When I try to do this, Apache happily performs this translation: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)\?(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] But it messes up the $_GET variables in PHP. For example, a call to http://example.com/home?x=88 yields only one $_GET variable (page => home). Where did x => 88 go? However, when I change my rule to use an ampersand rather than a question mark: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)&(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] a call like http://example.com/home&x=88 will work just as I'd expect it to (i.e. both the page and x $_GET variables are set appropriately). The difference is minimal I know, but I'd like my URL variables to "start" with a question mark, if it's possible. I'm sure this reflects my own misunderstanding of how mod_rewrite redirects interact with PHP, but it seems like I should be able to do this (one way or another). Thanks in advance! Cheers, -Chris

    Read the article

  • ADO/SQL Server: What is the error code for "timeout expired"?

    - by Ian Boyd
    i'm trying to trap a "timeout expired" error from ADO. When a timeout happens, ADO returns: Number: 0x80040E31 (DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED in oledberr.h) SQLState: HYT00 NativeError: 0 The NativeError of zero makes sense, since the timeout is not a function of the database engine (i.e. SQL Server), but of ADO's internal timeout mechanism. The Number (i.e. the COM hresult) looks useful, but the definition of DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED in oledberr.h says: Execution stopped because a resource limit was reached. No results were returned. This error could apply to things besides "timeout expired" (some potentially server-side), such as a governor that limits: CPU usage I/O reads/writes network bandwidth and stops a query. The final useful piece is SQLState, which is a database-independent error code system. Unfortunately the only reference for SQLState error codes i can find have no mention of HYT00. What to do? What do do? Note: i can't trust 0x80040E31 (DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED) to mean "timeout expired", anymore than i could trust 0x80004005 (E_UNSPECIFIED_ERROR) to mean "Transaction was deadlocked on lock resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim". My pseudo-question becomes: does anyone have documentation on what the SQLState "HYT000" means? And my real question still remains: How can i specifically trap an ADO timeout expired exception thrown by ADO? Gotta love the questions where the developer is trying to "do the right thing", but nobody knows how to do the right thing. Also gotta love how googling for DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED and this question is #9, with MSDN nowhere to be found. Update 3 From the OLEdb ICommand.Execute reference: DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED Execution has been aborted because a resource limit has been reached. For example, a query timed out. No results have been returned. "For example", meaning not an exhaustive list.

    Read the article

  • WPF: Selecting the Target of an Animation

    - by Phil Sandler
    I am trying to create a simple (I think) animation effect based on a property change in my ViewModel. I would like the target to be a specific textblock in the control template of a custom control, which inherits from Window. From the article examples I've seen, a DataTrigger is the easiest way to accomplish this. It appears that Window.Triggers doesn't support DataTriggers, which led me to try to apply the trigger in the style. The problem I am currently having is that I can't seem to target the TextBlock (or any other child control)--what happens is which the code below is that the animation is applied to the background of the whole window. If I leave off StoryBoard.Target completely, the effect is exactly the same. Is this the right approach with the wrong syntax, or is there an easier way to accomplish this? <Style x:Key="MyWindowStyle" TargetType="{x:Type Window}"> <Setter Property="Template" Value="{StaticResource MyWindowTemplate}"/> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ChangeOccurred}" Value="True"> <DataTrigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard BeginTime="00:00:00" Duration="0:0:2" Storyboard.Target="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=TextBlock}}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(Background).(SolidColorBrush.Color)"> <ColorAnimation FillBehavior="Stop" From="Black" To="Red" Duration="0:0:0.5" AutoReverse="True"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </DataTrigger.EnterActions> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style>

    Read the article

  • Wordpress.. Is it a CMS?

    - by madcolor
    I recently was contacted by a client who simply wanted to increase their organic rankings in Google. My approach was to do the following: A) Take them off of their overpriced host and move them to a nicer, cheaper, more feature-rich hosting solution which included a simple Wordpress install. B) Apply a theme to WordPress which followed the look and feel of their existing website. C) Train my client on how to login to their copy of Wordpress and create/manage pages/posts. This took me very little time.. Most of the work in converting asp forms into php and tweaking a theme to fit their design. Now my client is able to create/manage as many pages or posts as they desire. I believe, for this purpose, Worpress was the easiest solution. Would you categorize Wordpress as a CMS? Similar: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/250880/is-there-any-cms-better-than-wordpress-or-should-i-roll-my-own http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1101818/wordpress-as-a-cms-option http://stackoverflow.com/questions/490899/which-cms-to-choose http://stackoverflow.com/questions/629203/is-it-advisable-to-use-wordpress-as-cms-closed http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1451326/is-wordpress-good-for-building-a-large-cms-site-with-many-pages-about-over-100-00 External: http://codex.wordpress.org/User%3ALastnode/Wordpress%5FCMS http://wordpress.org/development/2009/11/wordpress-wins-cms-award/

    Read the article

  • algorithm || method to write prog

    - by fatai
    I am one of the computer science student. My wonder is everyone solve problem with different or same method, but actually I dont know whether they use method or I dont know whether there are such common method to approach problem. All teacher give us problem which in simple form sometimes, but they dont introduce any approach or method(s) so that we can first choose method then apply that one to problem , afterward find solution then write code. I have found one method when I failed the course, More accurately, When I counter problem in language , I will get more paper and then ; first, input/ output step ; my prog will take this / these there argument(s) and return namely X , ex : in c, input length is not known and at same type , so I must use pointer desired output is in form of package , so use structure second, execution part ; in that step , I am writing all step which are goes to final output ex : in python ; 1.) [ + , [- , 4 , [ * , 1 , 2 ]], 5] 2.) [ + , [- , 4 , 2 ],5 ] 3.) [ + , 2 , 5] 4.) 7 ==> return 7 third, I will write test code ex : in c++ input : append 3 4 5 6 vector_x remove 0 1 desired output vector_x holds : 5 6 But now, I wonder other method ; used to construct class :::: for c++ , python, java used to communicate classes / computers used for solving embedded system problem ::::: for c Why I wonder , because I learn if you dont costruct algorithm on paper, you may achieve your goal. Like no money no lunch , I can say no algorithm no prog therefore , feel free when you write your own method , a way which is introduced by someone else but you are using and you find it is so efficient

    Read the article

  • UpdateAllViews() from within a worker thread?

    - by Harvey
    I have a worker thread in a class that is owned by a ChildView. (I intend to move this to the Doc eventually.) When the worker thread completes a task I want all the views to be updated. How can I make a call to tell the Doc to issue an UpdateAllViews()? Or is there a better approach? Thank you. Added by OP: I am looking for a simple solution. The App is running on a single user, single CPU computer and does not need network (or Internet) access. There is nothing to cause a deadlock. I think I would like to have the worker thread post (or send) a message to cause the views to update. Everything I read about threading seems way more complicated than what I need - and, yes, I understand that all those precautions are necessary for applications that are running in multiprocessor, multiuser, client-server systems, etc. But none of those apply in my situation. I am just stuck at getting the right combination of getting the window handle, posting the message and responding to the message in the right functions and classes to compile and function at all.

    Read the article

  • CSS Hover on parent list Item only

    - by Daniel O'Connor
    Hey Everyone, So I have some nested lists (only one level deep) and I'm running into trouble with the CSS :hover feature. I only want the hover to apply to the parent class, but I can't figure that one out. Here's my CSS <style type="text/css" media="screen"> .listblock li img { visibility: hidden; } .listblock li:hover img { visibility: visible; } </style> And here is a sample of one of the lists. <ul> <li>One <a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" alt="Buy" class="buy" onClick="pageTracker._trackEvent('Outbound Links', 'Amazon');"/></a></li> <li>Two <a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" class="buy" /></a> <ul> <li>Uno<a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" class="buy" /></a></li> <li>Dos <a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" class="buy" /></a></li> </ul> </li> <li>Three <a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" alt="Buy" class="buy" onClick="pageTracker._trackEvent('Outbound Links', 'Amazon');"/></a></li> </ul> The problem is that the image in the Uno and Dos list items also hovers. :( Help please! Thanks a lot

    Read the article

  • How do I correctly modify a custom cocoa framework?

    - by Septih
    Hello, I'm working with the very-useful ID3 framework in my cocoa project. There's one tiny thing I'd like to modify in it, but I can't seem to get the changes I've made to apply to the built framework. The source code provided with the framework comes with an Xcode project, so I've opened that up and for testings sake put an NSLog(@"hello"); in. It's definetly in a place where it will be called and there are other NSLog() calls in the framework that show up so it's not just console output being supressed. To build the framework once modified I've first cleaned the build folder, made sure that it's actually removed the files, and then built it. Then in the Xcode project I'm using the framework in, I've deleted the old reference and added a new one to the framework that's freshly built. Running my project with the newly build framework doesn't call the modified framework code. I've tried with both the Development and Deployment builds that are part of the framework Xcode project. My gut instinct is that the executable that the framework code is compiled into is being cached somehow. But as I'm fairly unfamiliar with the workings of frameworks, I'm not really sure where to look.

    Read the article

  • How can I use "Dependency Injection" in simple php functions, and should I bother?

    - by Tchalvak
    I hear people talking about dependency injection and the benefit of it all the time, but I don't really understand it. I'm wondering if it's a solution to the "I pass database connections as arguments all the time" problem. I tried reading wikipedia's entry on it, but the example is written in Java so I don't solidly understand the difference it is trying to make clear. ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dependency_injection ). I read this dependency-injection-in-php article ( http://www.potstuck.com/2009/01/08/php-dependency-injection/ ), and it seems like the objective is to not pass dependencies to an object directly, but to cordon off the creation of an object along with the creation of it's dependencies. I'm not sure how to apply that in a using php functions context, though. Additionally, is the following Dependency Injection, and should I bother trying to do dependency injection in a functional context? Version 1: (the kind of code that I create, but don't like, every day) function get_data_from_database($database_connection){ $data = $database_connection->query('blah'); return $data; } Version 2: (don't have to pass a database connection, but perhaps not dependency injection?) function get_database_connection(){ static $db_connection; if($db_connection){ return $db_connection; } else { // create db_connection ... } } function get_data_from_database(){ $conn = get_database_connection(); $data = $conn->query('blah'); return $data; } $data = get_data_from_database(); Version 3: (the creation of the "object"/data is separate, and the database code is still, so perhaps this would count as dependency injection?) function factory_of_data_set(){ static $db_connection; $data_set = null; $db_connection = get_database_connection(); $data_set = $db_connection->query('blah'); return $data_set; } $data = factory_of_data_set(); Anyone have a good resource or just insight that makes the method and benefit -crystal- clear?

    Read the article

  • Stack Overflow when debugging application in iPhone simulator

    - by mjdth
    I'm getting this every time I attempt to debug my app in the simulator: [Session started at 2010-05-11 16:16:52 -0500.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1467) (Wed Apr 21 06:57:21 UTC 2010) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "x86_64-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 51573. Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. Data Formatters temporarily unavailable, will re-try after a 'continue'. (Cannot call into the loader at present, it is locked.) I've looked around and found a few similar cases, but they all seem to be related to a missing file and an extra necessary build phase. I'm getting no notification of a missing file here so I'm not sure where to start to fix this and get the app running again. Thanks for any insight!

    Read the article

  • How to share data between SSRS Security and Data Processing extension?

    - by user2904681
    I've spent a lot of time trying to solve the issue pointed in title and have no found a solution yet. I use MS SSRS 2012 with custom Security (based on Form Authentication and ClaimsPrincipal) and Data Processing extensions. In Data extension level I need to apply filter programmatically based on one of the claim which I have access in Security extension level only. Here is the problem: I do know how to pass the claim from Security to Data Processing extension code... What I've tried: IAuthenticationExtension.LogonUser(string userName, string password, string authority) { ... ClaimsPrincipal claimsPrincipal = CreateClaimsPrincipal(...); Thread.CurrentPrincipal = claimsPrincipal; HttpContext.Current.User = claimsPrincipal; ... }; But it doesn't work. It seems SSRS overrides it within either GenericPrincipal or FormsIdentity internally. The possible workaround I'm thinking about (but haven't checked it yet): 1. Create HttpModule which will create HttpContext with all required information (minus: will be invoke getting claims each time - huge operation) 2. Write to custom SQL table to store logged users information which is required for Data extension and then read it 3. try somehow to append to cookies due to LogOn and then read each time on IAuthenticationExtension.GetUserInfo and fill HttpContext None of them seems to be a good solution. I would be grateful for any help/advise/comments.

    Read the article

  • How to get levels for Fry Graph readability formula?

    - by Vic
    Hi, I'm working in an application (C#) that applies some readability formulas to a text, like Gunning-Fog, Precise SMOG, Flesh-Kincaid. Now, I need to implement the Fry-based Grade formula in my program, I understand the formula's logic, pretty much you take 3 100-words samples and calculate the average on sentences per 100-words and syllables per 100-words, and then, you use a graph to plot the values. Here is a more detailed explanation on how this formula works. I already have the averages, but I have no idea on how can I tell my program to "go check the graph and plot the values and give me a level." I don't have to show the graph to the user, I only have to show him the level. I was thinking that maybe I can have all the values in memory, divided into levels, for example: Level 1: values whose sentence average are between 10.0 and 25+, and whose syllables average are between 108 and 132. Level 2: values whose sentence average are between 7.7 and 10.0, and .... so on But the problem is that so far, the only place in which I have found the values that define a level, are in the graph itself, and they aren't too much accurate, so if I apply the approach commented above, trying to take the values from the graph, my level estimations would be too much imprecise, thus, the Fry-based Grade will not be accurate. So, maybe any of you knows about some place where I can find exact values for the different levels of the Fry-based Grade, or maybe any of you can help me think in a way to workaround this. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Why do Firefox and Opera ignore max-width inside of display: table-cell?

    - by brad
    The following code displays correctly in Chrome or IE (the image is 200px wide). In Firefox and Opera the max-width style is ignored completely. Why does this happen and is there a good work around? Also, which way is most standards compliant? Note One possible work around for this particular situation is to set max-width to 200px. However, this is a rather contrived example. I'm looking for a strategy for a variable width container. <!doctype html> <html> <head> <style> div { display: table-cell; padding: 15px; width: 200px; } div img { max-width: 100%; } </style> </head> <body> <div> <img src="http://farm4.static.flickr.com/3352/4644534211_b9c887b979.jpg" /> <p> Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Donec facilisis ante, facilisis posuere ligula feugiat ut. Fusce hendrerit vehicula congue. at ligula dolor. Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. leo metus, aliquam eget convallis eget, molestie at massa. </p> </div> </body> </html> [Update] As stated by mVChr below, the w3.org spec states that max-width does not apply to inline elements. I've tried using div img { max-width: 100%; display: block; }, but it does not seem to correct the issue.

    Read the article

  • Fixing color in scatter plots in matplotlib

    - by ajhall
    Hi guys, I'm going to have to come back and add some examples if you need them, which you might. But, here's the skinny- I'm plotting scatter plots of lab data for my research. I need to be able to visually compare the scatter plots from one plot to the next, so I want to fix the color range on the scatter plots and add in a colorbar to each plot (which will be the same in each figure). Essentially, I'm fixing all aspects of the axes and colorspace etc. so that the plots are directly comparable by eye. For the life of me, I can't seem to get my scatter() command to properly set the color limits in the colorspace (default)... i.e., I figure out my total data's min and total data's max, then apply them to vmin, vmax, for the subset of data, and the color still does not come out properly in both plots. This must come up here and there, I can't be the only one that wants to compare various subsets of data amongst plots... so, how do you fix the colors so that each data keeps it's color between plots and doesn't get remapped to a different color due to the change in max/min of the subset -v- the whole set? I greatly appreciate all your thoughts!!! A mountain-dew and fiery-hot cheetos to all! -Allen

    Read the article

  • How can I test for an empty Breeze predicate?

    - by Megan
    I'm using Breeze to filter data requested on the client. My code looks a little like this: Client - Creating Filter Predicate var predicates = []; var criteriaPredicate = null; $.each(selectedFilterCriteria(), function (index, item) { criteriaPredicate = (index == 0) ? breeze.Predicate.create('criteriaId', breeze.FilterQueryOp.Equals, item) : criteriaPredicate.or('criteriaId', breeze.FilterQueryOp.Equals, item); if (breeze.Predicate.isPredicate(criteriaPredicate)) { predicates.push(criteriaPredicate); } // Repeat for X Filter Criteria var filter = breeze.Predicate.and(predicates); return context.getAll(filter, data); Client - Context Query function getAll(predicate, dataObservable) { var query = breeze.EntityQuery.from('Data'); if (breeze.Predicate.isPredicate(predicate)) { query = query.where(predicate); } return manager.executeQuery(query).then(success).fail(failure); } Issue I'm having an issue with the request because, if there are no filters set, I apply an "empty" predicate (due to the var filter = breeze.Predicate.and([]) line) resulting in a request like http://mysite/api/app/Data?$filter=. The request is an invalid OData query since the value of the $filter argument cannot be empty. Is there a good way for me to check for an empty predicate? I know I can refactor my client code to not use a predicate unless there is at least one filterable item, but I thought I would check first to see if I overlooked some property or method on the Breeze Predicate.

    Read the article

  • jQuery date picker not persistant after AJAX

    - by ILMV
    So I'm using the jQuery date picker, and it works well. I am using AJAX to go and get some content, obviously when this new content is applied the bind is lost, I learnt about this last week and discovered about the .live() method. But how do I apply that to my date picker? Because this isn't an event therefore .live() won't be able to help... right? This is the code I'm using to bind the date picker to my input: $(".datefield").datepicker({showAnim:'fadeIn',dateFormat:'dd/mm/yy',changeMonth:true,changeYear:true}); I do not want to call this metho everytime my AJAX fires, as I want to keep that as generic as possible. Cheers :-) EDIT As @nick requested, below is my wrapper function got the ajax() method: var ajax_count = 0; function getElementContents(options) { if(options.type===null) { options.type="GET"; } if(options.data===null) { options.data={}; } if(options.url===null) { options.url='/'; } if(options.cache===null) { options.cace=false; } if(options.highlight===null || options.highlight===true) { options.highlight=true; } else { options.highlight=false; } $.ajax({ type: options.type, url: options.url, data: options.data, beforeSend: function() { /* if this is the first ajax call, block the screen */ if(++ajax_count==1) { $.blockUI({message:'Loading data, please wait'}); } }, success: function(responseText) { /* we want to perform different methods of assignment depending on the element type */ if($(options.target).is("input")) { $(options.target).val(responseText); } else { $(options.target).html(responseText); } /* fire change, fire highlight effect... only id highlight==true */ if(options.highlight===true) { $(options.target).trigger("change").effect("highlight",{},2000); } }, complete: function () { /* if all ajax requests have completed, unblock screen */ if(--ajax_count===0) { $.unblockUI(); } }, cache: options.cache, dataType: "html" }); } What about this solution, I have a rules.js which include all my initial bindings with the elements, if I were to put these in a function, then call that function on the success callback of the ajax method, that way I wouldn't be repeating code... Hmmm, thoughts please :D

    Read the article

  • How are Scala closures transformed to Java objects?

    - by iguana
    I'm currently looking at closure implementations in different languages. When it comes to Scala, however, I'm unable to find any documentation on how a closure is mapped to Java objects. It is well documented that Scala functions are mapped to FunctionN objects. I assume that the reference to the free variable of the closure must be stored somewhere in that function object (as it is done in C++0x, e.g.). I also tried compiling the following with scalac and then decompiling the class files with JD: object ClosureExample extends Application { def addN(n: Int) = (a: Int) => a + n var add5 = addN(5) println(add5(20)) } In the decompiled sources, I see an anonymous subtype of Function1, which ought to be my closure. But the apply() method is empty, and the anonymous class has no fields (which could potentially store the closure variables). I suppose the decompiler didn't manage to get the interesting part out of the class files... Now to the questions: Do you know how the transformation is done exactly? Do you know where it is documented? Do you have another idea how I could solve the mystery?

    Read the article

  • using checkbox as radio button

    - by ash34
    Hi, I am looking for a way for users to select one of the two options (strength or weakness) for a list of qualities. for eg: strength weakness not applicable 1. Communication 2. Punctuality ... Radio button lets me select either a strength or weakness. However, I want the user to check only those qualities that apply and if a user accidentally selects a quality there is no way to undo the selection for a radio button unless there is a third radio button called not applicable or have the user re-enter the page. I was wondering if there is a way to be able to get the flexibility of a checkbox (check / uncheck) in addition to disabling or enabling the other checkbox when one of them is checked or unchecked instead of using three radio buttons. I don't think I have seen this behavior before so wondering if there is a more elegant way of doing this. I am open to other ideas to get the same functionality. Using a checkbox as radio button was just a thought. thanks much.

    Read the article

  • Ways to gain a deeper understanding of programming concepts?

    - by MrPlow
    I'm a marketer and have been messing around in PHP/MySQL for years. Recently (the last several months) I've been making my own scripts/programs in Python and I've really enjoyed the whole problem solving process. I've read(skimmed) some books and understand the basics of OOP, polymorphism, etc.. I have a general interest in AI and Natural Language in particular but it seems these things require a masters in Computer Science. My knowledge of math is poor. The last class I took was calculus, and I've forgotten the majority of it. Basically I'm looking for things to learn that will help me think in a more analytic way, and maybe see solutions where I didn't before. Improving my ability to program in Python would be nice too. I don't need to learn a specific language or something for employment, just enjoyment. Although my work often involves web development so some utility would be nice. I don't like learning concepts by just reading them. I need to apply them, even if the examples are contrived. A recommendation of a couple good books or other resources would be nice. :) Apologies if this is too vague/misplaced...

    Read the article

  • Sharing session variables from http and https versio

    - by tangurena
    I am trying to fix an ASP.NET site that a friend had botched converting from older technologies. To the user, the site appears to have public and secured sections. Behind the scenes, the public and private sites are separate web applications with separate app pools. The difficulty arises because it appears that the applications share the same session IDs (when going from the public to the secured pages, the session ID remains the same), yet none of the (InProc) session variables are getting passed from the public site to the private one. Basically, the workflow consists of the user checking a checkbox ("I agree" type of stuff) on the public site (let's call that page http://www.boring.gov/iAgree.aspx), then logging in on the secured site (let's call that page https://www.boring.gov/login.aspx). The commandments from the parent agency in DC are that the user may not bookmark the login page, the user has to click "I agree" every time they log in, and that the "I agree" stuff has to be on a separate page. What am I missing? How would you do it? Notes: 1 - This is getting hosted on a single Windows 2003 server. 2 - Yes, it is a government agency. 3 - I would have done things very differently if I was doing the conversion, but I wasn't brought in until the poop hit the fan, and it is too late to redo things. 4 - Two previous SO threads that appear to be related, yet don't apply are this and that

    Read the article

  • VS2010 and CSS: What is the best strategy to individually position form controls

    - by George
    OK, I have a ton of controls on my page that I need to individually place. I need to set a margin here, a padding there, etc. None of these particular styles that I want to apply will be applied to more than control. What is the bets practice for determining at which level the style is placed, etc? OK, my choices are 1) External CSS file 1A) Using ClientIdMode = Auto (the default) I could assign a unique CssClass value to the ASP.NET control and, in the external CSS file, create a class selector that would only be applied to that one control. 1B) User Client ID = Predicatable In the external CSS file, I could determine what the ID will be for the controls of interest and create an ID selector (#ControlID{Style} ). However, I fear maintenance issues due to including/removing parent containers that would cause the ID to change. 1C) User Client ID = Static. I could choose static IDs for the controls such that I minimize the likelihood of a clash with auto generated IDs (perhaps by prefixing the ID with "StaticID_" and use an external stylesheet with ID selectors. 2) I could place the style right on the control. The only disadvantage here, as I see it, is that style info is brought down each time instead of being cached , which is what I'd get using an external CSS. If a style isn't resused, I personally don't see much benefit to placing it in an external file, though please explain why if you disagree. Is there moire of a reason that "It's nice to have all the CSS in one place?"

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187  | Next Page >