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  • What's an appropriate HTTP status code to return by a REST API service for a validation failure?

    - by michaeljoseph
    I'm currently returning 401 Unauthorized whenever I encounter a validation failure in my Django/Piston based REST API application. Having had a look at the HTTP Status Code Registry I'm not convinced that this is an appropriate code for a validation failure, what do y'all recommend? 400 Bad Request 401 Unauthorized 403 Forbidden 405 Method Not Allowed 406 Not Acceptable 412 Precondition Failed 417 Expectation Failed 422 Unprocessable Entity 424 Failed Dependency Update: "Validation failure" above means an application level data validation failure ie. incorrectly specified datetime, bogus email address etc.

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  • How do you 'clone' WebControls in C# .NET ?

    - by Adz
    My basic question is, in .NET, how do I clone WebControls? I would like to build a custom tag, which can produce multiple copies of its children. Ultimately I intend to build a tag similar to in JSP/Struts. But the first hurdle I have is the ability to duplicate/clone the contents of a control. Consider this rather contrived example; <custom:duplicate count="2"> <div> <p>Some html</p> <asp:TextBox id="tb1" runat="server" /> </div> </custom:duplicate> The HTML markup which is output would be something like, <div> <p>Some html</p> <input type="text" id="tb1" /> </div> <div> <p>Some html</p> <input type="text" id="tb1" /> </div> Note: I know i have the id duplicated, I can come up with a solution to that later! So what we would have is my custom control with 3 children (I think) - a literal control, a TextBox control, and another literal control. In this example I have said 'count=2' so what the control should do is output/render its children twice. What I would hope to do is write some "OnInit" code which does something like: List<WebControl> clones; for(int i=1; i<count; i++) { foreach(WebControl c in Controls) { WebControl clone = c.Clone(); clones.Add(clone); } } Controls.AddRange(clones); However, as far as I can tell, WebControls do not implement ICloneable, so its not possible to clone them in this way. Any ideas how I can clone WebControls?

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  • How do i add a string template to views in .net mvc?

    - by Lina
    Hi, I have a newbie question,, how do i add a string template to the views folder in a .net mvc project? i have added a reference to StringTemplate.dll and antlr.runtime.dll but seems that is not enough. i.e. when i right-click on views and choose Add New Item i can't find a file with .st extension in the list that i get... how do i achieve that? Thanks a million in advance

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  • ASP.NET MVC : Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. Update FINALLY, a good (and, in retrospect, obvious) way to accomplish this. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; namespace K.ObjectModel.Controls { public class TestControl : ViewUserControl { protected override void Render(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter writer) { writer.Write("Hello World"); base.Render(writer); } } } Create a new class which inherits ViewUserControl Override the .Render() method as shown above. Register the control via its associated ASCX as you would in a webForm: <%@ Register TagName="tn" TagPrefix="k" Src="~/Views/Navigation/LeftBar.ascx"%> Use the corresponding tag in whatever view or master page that you need: <k:tn runat="server"/> Make sure your .ascx inherits your new control: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="K.ObjectModel.Controls.TestControl" %> Voila, you're up and running. This is tested with ASP.NET MVC 2, VS 2010 and .NET 4.0. Your custom tag references the ascx partial view, which inherits from the TestControl class. The control then overrides the Render() method, which is called to render the view, giving you complete control over the process from tag to output. Why does everyone try to make this so much harder than it has to be?

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  • is it possible to add a string template to views in a .net mvc project?

    - by Lina
    Hi, I have a newbie question,, how do i add a string template to the views folder in a .net mvc project? i have added a reference to StringTemplate.dll and antlr.runtime.dll but seems that is not enough. i.e. when i right-click on views and choose Add New Item i can't find a file with .st extension in the list that i get... how do i achieve that? Thanks a million in advance

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  • Autocomplete jQuery on User Controller within Repeater .NET

    - by TheDPQ
    I have a Multiview search feature on a Web User Controller that is called within a Repeater, OHMY!! I have some training sessions being listed out on a page, each calling an employeeSearch Web User Controller so people can search for employees to add to the training session. I have the Employee Names and Employee IDs listed out in JS on the page and using the jQuery autocomplete i have them search for the employee and populate a hidden field in the User controller. Once the process is done they have the option of adding yet another employee. So i had Autocompelte 'work' in all the employee search boxes, but one i do the initial search (postback) autocomplete won't work again. Then i updated $().ready(function() to pageLoad() so it works correctly on multiple searches but only in the LAST item of the repeater (jQuery is loaded on the User Controller) FYI: I have the JS string set as EMPLOYEENAME|ID and jQuery displays the Employee Name and if they select it throws the ID in a ASP:HIDDEN FIELD <script type="text/javascript"> format_item = function(item, position, length) { var str = item.toString().split("|", 2); return str[0]; } function pageLoad() { $("#<%=tb_EmployeeName.ClientID %>").autocomplete(EmployeeList, { minChars: 0, width: 500, matchContains: true, autoFill: false, scrollHeight: 300, scroll: true, formatItem: format_item, formatMatch: format_item, formatResult: format_item }); $("#<%=tb_EmployeeName.ClientID %>").result(function(event, data, formatted) { var str = data.toString().split("|", 2); $("#<%=hf_EmployeeID.ClientID %>").val(str[1]); }); }; </script> I can already guess that by repeating pageLoad within the User Controll i override the previous pageLoad. THE QUESTION: Is there a way around this, a way to have all the jQuery appear in a single pageLoad or to somehow have a single jquery call to handle all my search boxes? I can't move the jQuery into the page calling all the controllers because i have no way of referencing the specific *tb_EmployeeName* textbox AND *hf_EmployeeID* hidden field. Thank you so much for any help or insight you can give me into this problem. This is the Multiview that on the User Controller <asp:MultiView ID="mv_EmployeeArea" runat="server" ActiveViewIndex="0"> <asp:View ID="vw_Search" runat="server"> <asp:Panel ID="eSearch" runat="server"> <b>Signup Employee Search</b> (<i>Last Name, First Name</i>)<br /> <asp:TextBox ID="tb_EmployeeName" class="EmployeeSearch" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:HiddenField ID="hf_EmployeeID" runat="server" /> <asp:Button ID="btn_Search" runat="server" Text="Search" /> </asp:Panel> </asp:View> <asp:View ID="vw_Confirm" runat="server"> <b>Signup Confirmation</b> <asp:FormView ID="fv_EmployeeInfo" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <%#(Eval("LastName"))%>, <%#(Eval("FirstName"))%><br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> <asp:Button ID="btn_Confirm" runat="server" Text="Signup this employee" /> &nbsp; <asp:Button ID="btn_Reset3" runat="server" Text="Reset" /> </asp:View> <asp:View ID="vw_ThankYou" runat="server"> <b>Thank You</b><br /> The employee has been signed up and an email confirmation has been sent out.<br /><br /> <asp:Button ID="btn_Reset" runat="server" Text="Reset" /> </asp:View> </asp:MultiView> UPDATE: I never did find an answer but i had to do a demo so i hacked together something that 'works', but feels sort of cheesy. I am still very much needed of a better question or better understanding.

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  • How to show validation messages in MVC?

    - by Ian Boyd
    When a user tries to click:        Save and they have entered in some invalid data, i want to notify them. This can be with methods such as: directing their attention to the thing that needs their attention with a balloon hint automatically dropping down a combo-box triggering an animation showing a modal dialog box etc What is the mechanism where a controller tells the view to show a validation message for some controls, given that different views have different notification methods? p.s. the controller doesn't know the order that controls are physically arranged in the view (e.g. LTR locale wants to notify the user in a top-down-left-to-right visual order, while RTL locale wants to notify the user in a bottom-up-right-to-left order)

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  • validates_associated in production

    - by Rien
    Hi all. Imagine a simple model. class Service belongs_to :user validates_associated :user accepts_nested_attributes_for :user end Nothing special right? The validations on the associated User model trigger correctly in development mode. But don't do anything in production. I've added a validates_on_presence :user just like the docs say. This triggers when there's no User associated with the Service, but fill in one thing on the User model and nothing happens! It's driving me up the walls. Am I overlooking something? More info about the MVC: I use formtastic for the forms. Thanks!

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  • "Failed to find or load the registered .Net Framework Data Provider" with MySQL + ASP.NET

    - by Malachi
    How do we repair this? This question has been sort of addressed many times around the internet, but it's always a workaround. Always copying the MySql.data.dll into your bin directory, or explicitly stating what version you want. What is the "proper" approach to using DbProvderFactory for MySQL with ASP.NET? I'd like to be able to develop locally and not worry what version they have installed on the server. As it stands, if I do copy up my own version I have to make sure it's the one they use. Seems easy to break.

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  • Quartz.Net scheduler works locally but not on remote host

    - by Glinkot
    Hi. I have a timed quartz.net job working fine on my dev machine, but once deployed to a remote server it is not triggering. I believe the job is scheduled ok, because if I postback, it tells me the job already exists (I normally check for postback however). The email code definitely works, as the 'button1_click' event sends emails successfully. I understand I have full or medium trust on the remove server. My host says they don't apply restrictions that they know of which would affect it. Any other things I need to do to get it running? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using Quartz; using Quartz.Impl; using Quartz.Core; using Aspose.Network.Mail; using Aspose.Network; using Aspose.Network.Mime; using System.Text; namespace QuartzTestASP { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { ISchedulerFactory schedFact = new StdSchedulerFactory(); IScheduler sched = schedFact.GetScheduler(); JobDetail jobDetail = new JobDetail("testJob2", null, typeof(testJob)); //Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeMinutelyTrigger(1, 3); Trigger trigger = TriggerUtils.MakeSecondlyTrigger(10, 5); trigger.StartTimeUtc = DateTime.UtcNow; trigger.Name = "TriggertheTest"; sched.Start(); sched.ScheduleJob(jobDetail, trigger); } } protected void Button1_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } class testJob : IStatefulJob { public testJob() { } public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { myutil.sendEmail(); } } public static class myutil { public static void sendEmail() { // tested code lives here and works fine when called from elsewhere } } }

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  • Trouble with object injection in Spring.Net

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I have a issue with my Spring.Net configuration where its not injecting an object. I have a CommService to which an object named GeneralEmail is injected to. Here is the configuration: <!-- GeneralMail Object --> <object id="GeneralMailObject" type="CommUtil.Email.GeneralEmail, CommUtil"> <constructor-arg name="host" value="xxxxx.com"/> <constructor-arg name="port" value="25"/> <constructor-arg name="user" value="[email protected]"/> <constructor-arg name="password" value="xxxxx"/> <constructor-arg name="template" value="xxxxx"/> </object> <!-- Communication Service --> <object id="CommServiceObject" type="TApp.Code.Services.CommService, TApp"> <property name="emailService" ref="GeneralMailObject" /> </object> The communication service object is again injected to many other aspx pages & service. In one scenario, I need to call the commnucation service from an static WebMethod. I try doing: CommService cso = new CommService(); But when i try to get the emailService object, its null! why didn't the spring inject the GeneralMail object into my cso object? What am I doing wrong and how do I access the object from spring container. Thanks in advance for the suggestions and solutions. Reagrds, Abdel Olakara

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  • Why does System.Net.Mail work in one part of my c#.net web app, but not in another?

    - by Marc
    I have a web application that is running on IIS within my company's domain, and is being accessed via intranet. I have this application sending out email based on some user actions. For example, its a scheduling application in part, so if a task is completed, an email is sent out notifying other users of that. The problem is, the email works flawlessly in some cases, and not at all in others. I have a login.aspx page which sends out report emails when the page is loaded (its loaded once a day via windows task scheduler) - this always seems to work perfectly. I have an update page which is supposed to send email when text is entered and the "Update" button is clicked - this operation will fail most of the time. Both of these tasks use the same static overloaded method I wrote to send email using System.Net.Mail. I have tried using gmail as my smtp server (instead of our internal one), and get the same results. I investigated whether having the local SMTP Service running makes any difference, and it doesn't seem to. Besides, since C# is server-side code, shouldn't it only matter whats running on the server, and not the client? Please help me figure out whats wrong! Where should I look? What can I try?

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  • Who plans to go back to using Web Applications in ASP.NET 4.0?

    - by Banzor
    So, it looks like Microsoft has gone back to pushing Web Application Projects* in ASP.NET 4.0. If you are like me, you converted to Website Projects in 2.0 and have never looked back. I recently spent some time trying to convert a Website Project to Web Application Project and was surprised at how tedious it was. So I am wondering what everyone is planning to do in VS 2010? Also, feel free to mention what you use now. Maybe I am the only sucker that converted to using Website Projects in 2.0... *Excluding MVC since it is the only option there

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  • 3 step validation with dataannotations

    - by molgan
    Hello I'm trying to build a "wizard-like" app that has 3 pages. First one you fill in some requests, then you select time and date, and last step is to fill in your name and address etc. How should the validation be taken care of, since I also need to validate all "3 steps" when pressing submit on the last step. Do I need to have 4 viewmodels there? like step1model, step2model...... and then validateallmodel? And must I use some session-like in between since it "redirect's" to next step if successful? /M

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  • Asp.net mvc 3: Strange Validation

    - by coure06
    I have applied DataAnnotation based validations to two of my properties like this [Required(ErrorMessage = "Title is required")] public string Title { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Description is required")] public string Description { get; set; } Here is the view page's code @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Obj.Title) @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Obj.Title) @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Obj.Description) @Html.TextAreaFor(model => model.Obj.Description) The Problem is that on click of submit button, on client side (js) its only giving me error for for Title and not for the Description. But Its giving me validation error for the Description after the postback. What possible causes?

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  • JQuery validation based on class?

    - by Mark Kadlec
    I have a form that will have dynamically created elements, one of those will be of date type. There can also be many fields of this type on my form, all which must be validated. I am using a strongly typed view in Asp MVC, so the name will change based on various factors. What I would like to do is validate based on a class name instead, since that will be constant for that type of field. Ie: <%= Html.TextBox("questionAnswers[" + index + "].AnswerValue", qa.AnswerValue, new { @class = "DateTypeClass" })%> So then I would need JQuery validation based on the classname DateTypeClass versus the Name. Any ideas?

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  • Access .accdb format’s

    - by wisecarver
    Were you aware there are two versions of the Access .accdb file format? The 2007 “ACE” version and the 2010 “ACE” version both use different drivers. If you’ve tried to use the Access Database .accdb format on DiscountASP.NET servers and it failed you must have been using a Data file created with the 2010 version of Access. OK, you’re shouting at me right now for even suggesting Access Databases for Shared hosting, right? I agree, SQL Server is the way to go and I personally help a lot of developers...(read more)

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  • Moving from building internal applications as WPF to ASP NET MVC?

    - by stuartmclark
    I have worked on quite a few internal applications for my work and I have always defaulted to using WPF, but I am considering re-writing existing ones into a web app. This is so that anyone in my company can use it without having to download anything from the network. I am just wondering if this is the way forward with any development of new internal applications? So, should I stop using WPF and start using ASP.NET MVC for internal applications that a lot of people need to use?

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  • How to check areas to load in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by user1741807
    I have a ASP.NET MVC application which uses areas for the different features of the application. It should display different features dependent on which version of the application the customer have. I need to check which areas to display. But how do I check which areas to display? Is it just to wrap the menu in an if statement to check if the customer have a version of the application that is allowed to see the area?

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  • Restricting access to one controller of an MVC app with Nginx

    - by kgb
    I have an MVC app where one controller needs to be accessible only from several ips(this controller is an oauth token callback trap - for google/fb api tokens). My conf looks like this: geo $oauth { default 0; 87.240.156.0/24 1; 87.240.131.0/24 1; } server { listen 80; server_name some.server.name.tld default_server; root /home/user/path; index index.php; location /oauth { deny all; if ($oauth) { rewrite ^(.*)$ /index.php last; } } location / { if ($request_filename !~ "\.(phtml|html|htm|jpg|jpeg|gif|png|ico|css|zip|tgz|gz|rar|bz2|doc|xls|exe|pdf|ppt|txt|tar|mid|midi|wav|bmp|rtf|js|xlsx)$") { rewrite ^(.*)$ /index.php last; break; } } location ~ \.php$ { fastcgi_pass unix:/var/run/php5-fpm.sock; fastcgi_index index.php; include fastcgi_params; } } It works, but does not look right. The following seems logical to me: location /oauth { allow 87.240.156.0/24; deny all; rewrite ^(.*)$ /index.php last; } But this way rewrite happens all the time, allow and deny directives are ignored. I don't understand why...

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