Search Results

Search found 17048 results on 682 pages for 'in place editor'.

Page 181/682 | < Previous Page | 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188  | Next Page >

• Different EF Property DataType than Storage Layer Possible?

  - by dj_kyron

  Hi, I am putting together a WCF Data Service for PatientEntities using Entity Framework. My solution needs to address these requirements: Property DateOfBirth of entity Patient is stored in SQL Server as string. It would be ideal if the entity class did not also use the "string" type but rather a DateTime type. (I would expect this to be possible since we're abstracting away from the storage layer). Where could a conversion mechanism be put in place that would convert to and from DateTime/string so that the entity and SQL Server are in sync?. I cannot change the storage layer's structure, so I have to work around it. WCF Data Services (Read-only, so no need for saving changes) need to be used since clients will be able to use LINQ expressions to consume the service. They can generate results based on any given query scenario they need and not be constrained by a single method such as GetPatient(int ID). I've tried to use DTOs, but run into problem of mapping the ObjectContext to a DTO, I don't think that is theoretically possible...or too complicated if it is. I've tried to use Self Tracking Entities but they require the metadata from the .edmx file if I'm correct, and this isn't allowing a different property data type. I also want to add customizations to my Entity getter methods so that a property "MRN" of type "string" needs to have .Replace("MR~", string.Empty) performed before it is returned. I can add this to the getter methods but the problem with that is Entity Framework will overwrite that next time it refreshes the entity classes. Is there a permanent place I can put these? Should I use POCO instead? How would that work with WCF Data Services? Where would the service grab the metadata?

  Read the article

• Java iteration reading & parsing

  - by Patrick Lorio

  I have a log file that I am reading to a string public static String Read (String path) throws IOException { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); InputStream in = new BufferedInputStream(new FileInputStream(path)); int r; while ((r = in.read()) != -1) { sb.append(r); } return sb.toString(); } Then I have a parser that iterates over the entire string once void Parse () { String con = Read("log.txt"); for (int i = 0; i < con.length; i++) { /* parsing action */ } } This is hugely a waste of cpu cycles. I loop over all the content in Read. Then I loop over all the content in Parse. I could just place the /* parsing action */ under the while loop in the Read method, which would be find but I don't want to copy the same code all over the place. How can I parse the file in one iteration over the contents and still have separate methods for parsing and reading? In C# I understand there is some sort of yield return thing, but I'm locked with Java. What are my options in Java?

  Read the article

• Consecutive Tables in Latex

  - by Tim

  Hi, I wonder how to place several tables consecutively in Latex? The page with the text right before the first table has a little space but not enough for the first table, so the first table is to be placed on the top of the next page, although I use "\begin{table}[!h]" for it. The second table does not fit into the place in the rest of the page of the first table, so I think I might use longtable for it to span the rest of the page and the top of the next page. Similarly, I use longtable for the third table. The latex code is as follows: ... % some text \begin{table}[!h] \caption{Table 1. \label{tab:1}} \begin{center} \begin{tabular}{c c} ... \end{tabular} \end{center} \end{table} \begin{center} \begin{longtable}{ c c } \caption{Table 2. \label{tab:2}}\\ ... \end{longtable} \end{center} \begin{center} \begin{longtable}{ c c } \caption{Table 3. \label{tab:3}}\\ ... \end{longtable} \end{center} ... % some text In the compiled pdf file it turns out that the order of the tables is messed up. The first table is placed behind the second and third one, and the second one spans the page with text before the tables and the next page with the third one following it. I would like to know how I can make the three tables appear consecutively in order, and there are no space left blank between them and between the text and the tables? Or if what I hope is not possible, what is the best strategy then? Thanks and regards! EDIT: Removing [!h] does not make improvement, the first table is still behind the second and the third.

  Read the article

• rails validation of presence not failing on nil

  - by holden

  I want to make sure an attibute exists, but it seems to still slip thru and I'm not sure how better to check for it. This should work, but doesn't. It's a attr_accessor and not a real attribute if that makes a difference. validates_presence_of :confirmed, :rooms {"commit"=>"Make Booking", "place_id"=>"the-kosmonaut", "authenticity_token"=>"Tkd9bfGqYFfYUv0n/Kqp6psXHjLU7CmX+D4UnCWMiMk=", "utf8"=>"✓", "booking"=>{"place_id"=>"6933", "bookdate"=>"2010-11-22", "rooms"=>[{}], "no_days"=>"2"}} Not sure why my form_for returns a blank hash in an array... <% form_for :booking, :url => place_bookings_path(@place) do |f| %> <%= f.hidden_field :bookdate, { :value => user_cart.getDate } %> <%= f.hidden_field :no_days, { :value => user_cart.getDays } %> <% for room in pricing_table(@place.rooms,@valid_dates) %> <%= select_tag("booking[rooms][][#{room.id}]", available_beds(room)) %> <% end %> <% end %>

  Read the article

• Sparse (Pseudo) Infinite Grid Data Structure for Web Game

  - by Ming

  I'm considering trying to make a game that takes place on an essentially infinite grid. The grid is very sparse. Certain small regions of relatively high density. Relatively few isolated nonempty cells. The amount of the grid in use is too large to implement naively but probably smallish by "big data" standards (I'm not trying to map the Internet or anything like that) This needs to be easy to persist. Here are the operations I may want to perform (reasonably efficiently) on this grid: Ask for some small rectangular region of cells and all their contents (a player's current neighborhood) Set individual cells or blit small regions (the player is making a move) Ask for the rough shape or outline/silhouette of some larger rectangular regions (a world map or region preview) Find some regions with approximately a given density (player spawning location) Approximate shortest path through gaps of at most some small constant empty spaces per hop (it's OK to be a bad approximation often, but not OK to keep heading the wrong direction searching) Approximate convex hull for a region Here's the catch: I want to do this in a web app. That is, I would prefer to use existing data storage (perhaps in the form of a relational database) and relatively little external dependency (preferably avoiding the need for a persistent process). Guys, what advice can you give me on actually implementing this? How would you do this if the web-app restrictions weren't in place? How would you modify that if they were? Thanks a lot, everyone!

  Read the article

• How to fetch and populate backbone model for Google Places JS API?

  - by code-gijoe

  I'm implementing a system that require access to Google Places JS API. I've been using rails for most of the project, but now I want to inject a bit of AJAX in one of my views. Basically it is a view that displays places near your location. For this, I'm using the JS API of Google places. A quick workflow would be: 1- The user inputs a text query and hits enter. 2- There is an AJAX call to request data from Google Places API. 3- The successful result is presented to the user. The problem is primarily in step 2. I want to use backbone for this but when I create a backbone model, it requests to the 'rootURL'. This wouldn't be a problem if the requests to Places was done from the server but it is not. A place call is done like this: service = new google.maps.places.PlacesService(map); service.nearbySearch(request, callback); Passing a callback function: function callback(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.places.PlacesServiceStatus.OK) { for (var i = 0; i < results.length; i++) { var place = results[i]; createMarker(results[i]); } } } Is it possible to override the 'fetch' method in backbone model and populate the model with the successful Places result? Is this a bad idea?

  Read the article

• Generic dataset handling library

  - by Pep.

  Hello, I want to build a generic Perl module for handling and analysing biomedical character separated datasets and which can, most certain, be used on any kind of datasets that contain a mixture of categorical (A,B,C,..) and continuous (1.2,3,881..) and identifier (XXX1,XXX2...). The plan is to have people initialize the module and then use some arguments to point to the data file(s), the place were the analysis reports should be placed and the structure of the data. By structure of data I mean which variable is in which place and its name/type. And this is where I need some enlightenment. I am baffled how to do this in a clean way. Obviously, having people create a simple schema file, be it XML or some other format would be the cleanest but maybe not all people enjoy doing something like this. The solutions I can think of are: Create a configuration file in XML or similar and with a prespecified format. Pass the information during initialization of the module. Use the first row of the data as headers and try to guess types (ouch) Surely there must be a "canonical" way of doing this that is also usable and efficient. Thanks p.

  Read the article

• css background image is being cut off..

  - by Ronedog

  I have an unordered list and the background image is being cut off when trying to place it next to the text. I'm using jquery to add the class to the anchor tag to display the image, and its working fine, the only problem is the image gets cut off. I've been playing around with the css, but can't seem to figure out how to make the image display properly...it seems like the < li is hiding the image behind it somehow...can I place the image in front of the < li to make it display...or am I missing something else? Can someone help me? Thanks. Here's the HTML: <ul id="nav> <li> <a class="folder_closed">Item 1</a> </li> </ul> Here's the CSS: ul#nav{ margin-left:0; margin-right:0; padding-left:0px; text-indent:15px; } #nav > li{ vertical-align: top; text-align:left; clear: both; margin-left:0px; margin-right:0px; padding-right:0px; padding-left:15px; } .folder_open{ position:relative; background-image: url(../images/maximize.png); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position: -5px 1px; } .folder_closed{ position:relative; background-image: url(../images/minimize.png); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position: -5px 1px; }

  Read the article

• Remove duplicate records/objects uniquely identified by multiple attributes

  - by keruilin

  I have a model called HeroStatus with the following attributes: id user_id recordable_type hero_type (can be NULL!) recordable_id created_at There are over 100 hero_statuses, and a user can have many hero_statuses, but can't have the same hero_status more than once. A user's hero_status is uniquely identified by the combination of recordable_type + hero_type + recordable_id. What I'm trying to say essentially is that there can't be a duplicate hero_status for a specific user. Unfortunately, I didn't have a validation in place to assure this, so I got some duplicate hero_statuses for users after I made some code changes. For example: user_id = 18 recordable_type = 'Evil' hero_type = 'Halitosis' recordable_id = 1 created_at = '2010-05-03 18:30:30' user_id = 18 recordable_type = 'Evil' hero_type = 'Halitosis' recordable_id = 1 created_at = '2009-03-03 15:30:00' user_id = 18 recordable_type = 'Good' hero_type = 'Hugs' recordable_id = 1 created_at = '2009-02-03 12:30:00' user_id = 18 recordable_type = 'Good' hero_type = NULL recordable_id = 2 created_at = '2009-012-03 08:30:00' (Last two are not a dups obviously. First two are.) So what I want to do is get rid of the duplicate hero_status. Which one? The one with the most-recent date. I have three questions: How do I remove the duplicates using a SQL-only approach? How do I remove the duplicates using a pure Ruby solution? Something similar to this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2790004/removing-duplicate-objects. How do I put a validation in place to prevent duplicate entries in the future?

  Read the article

• Adjust static value into dynamic (javascript) value possible in Sharepoint allitems.aspx page?

  - by lerac

  <SharePoint:SPDataSource runat="server" IncludeHidden="true" SelectCommand="&lt;View&gt;&lt;Query&gt;&lt;OrderBy&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;EventDate&quot;/&gt;&lt;/OrderBy&gt;&lt;Where&gt;&lt;Contains&gt;&lt;FieldRef Name=&quot;lawyer_x0020_1&quot;/&gt;&lt;Value Type=&quot;Note&quot;&gt;F. Sanches&lt;/Value&gt;&lt;/Contains&gt;&lt;/Where&gt;&lt;/Query&gt;&lt;/View&gt;" id="datasource1" DataSourceMode="List" UseInternalName="true"><InsertParameters><asp:Parameter DefaultValue="{ANUMBER}" Name="ListID"></asp:Parameter> This codeline is just one line of the allitems.aspx of a sharepoint list item. It only displays items where lawyer 1 = F. Sanches. Before I start messing around with the .ASPX page I wonder if it possible to change F. Sanches (in the code) into a dynamical variable (from a javascript value or something else that can be used to place the javascript value in there dynamically). If I put any javascript code in the line it will not work. P.S. Ignore ANUMBER part in code. Let say to make it simple I have javascript variable like this (now static but with my other code it is dynamic). It would be an achievement if it would place a static javascript variable. <SCRIPT type=text/javascript>javaVAR = "P. Janssen";</script> If Yes -- how? If No -- Thank you!

  Read the article

• C# delegate or Func for 'all methods'?

  - by Michel

  Hi, i've read something about Func's and delegates and that they can help you to pass a method as a parameter. Now i have a cachingservice, and it has this declaration: public static void AddToCache<T>(T model, double millisecs, string cacheId) where T : class public static T GetFromCache<T>(string cacheId) where T : class So in a place where i want to cache some data, i check if it exists in the cache (with GetFromCache) and if not, get the data from somewhere, and the add it to the cache (with AddToCache) Now i want to extend the AddToCache method with a parameter, which is the class+method to call to get the data Then the declaration would be like this public static void AddToCache<T>(T model, double millisecs, string cacheId, Func/Delegate methode) where T : class Then this method could check wether the cache has data or not, and if not, get the data itself via the method it got provided. Then in the calling code i could say: AddToCache<Person>(p, 10000, "Person", new PersonService().GetPersonById(1)); AddToCache<Advert>(a, 100000, "Advert", new AdvertService().GetAdverts(3)); What i want to achieve is that the 'if cache is empty get data and add to cache' logic is placed on only one place. I hope this makes sense :) Oh, by the way, the question is: is this possible?

  Read the article

• WPF/MVVM - keep ViewModels in application component or separate?

  - by Anders Juul

  Hi all, I have a WPF application where I'm using the MVVM pattern. I get the VM activated for actions that require user input and thus need to activate views from the VM. I've started out separating the VMs into a separate component/assembly, partly because I see them as the unit testable part, partly because views should rely on VM, not the other way round. But when I then need to bring up a window, the window is not known by the VM. All introductions I find place the VM in the WPF/App component, thus eliminating the problem. This article recommends keeping them in separate layers : http://waf.codeplex.com/wikipage?title=Architecture%20-%20Get%20The%20Big%20Picture&referringTitle=Home As I see it, I have the following choices Move VMs to the WPF/App assembly to allow VMs to access the windows directly. Place interfaces of views in VM-assembly, implement views in WPF/App assembly and register the connection through IOC or alternative ways. File a 'request' from the VM into some mechanism/bus that routes the request (but which mechanism!? E.g something in Prism?!) What's the recommendation? Thanks for any comments, Anders, Denmark

  Read the article

• Static files in (Java) App Engine not accessible.

  - by fiXedd

  The example documentation says that you simply need to place your files in war/ (or a subdirectory) and they should be accessible from the host (as long as they aren't JSPs or in WEB-INF). For example, if you place foo.css in war/ then you should be able to access it at http://localhost:8080/foo.css. However, this isn't working for me at all. NONE of my static files are accessible. The docs on appengine-web.xml say that you can also specifically denote certain types as static. I've tried this as well and it makes no difference. Am I missing something obvious? UPDATE: Turns out one of the mappings in my web.xml was a little too aggressive. The following was the culprit: <servlet> <servlet-name>Main</servlet-name> <servlet-class>MainServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>Main</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> It seems that it was grabbing everything that wasn't grabbed be one of the other rules, which I don't understand because there was no * on the end of the url-pattern. It also seems to be directly contradictory to the documentation that says: Note: Static files, files that are served verbatim to users such as images, CSS or JavaScript, are handled separately from paths mentioned in the deployment descriptor. A request for a URL path that matches a path to a file in the WAR that's considered a static file will serve the file, regardless of servlet and filter mappings in the deployment descriptor. You can exclude files from those treated as static files using the appengine-web.xml file. So, how can I have a rule that matches the base of my domain (eg. http://www.example.com/) and still allows the static files to filter through?

  Read the article

• C# Breakpoint Weirdness

  - by Dan

  In my program I've got two data files A and B. The data in A is static and the data in B refers back to the data in A. In order to make sure the data in B is invalidated when A is changed, I keep an identifier for each of the links which is a long byte-string identifying the data. I get this string using BitConverter on some of the important properties. My problem is that this scheme isn't working. I save the identifiers initially, and with I reload (with the exact same data in A) the identifiers don't match anymore. It seems the bit converter gives different results when I go to save. The really weird thing about it is, if I place a breakpoint in the save code, I can see the identifier it's writing to the file is fine, and the next load works. If I don't place a breakpoint and say print the identifiers to console instead, they're totally different. It's like when my program is running at full-speed the CPU messes up some instructions. This isn't the first time something like this happens to me. I've seen it in other projects. What gives? Has anyone every experienced this kind of debugging weirdness? I can't explain how stopping the program and not stopping it can change the output. Also, it's not a hardware problem because this happens on my laptop as well.

  Read the article

• How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

  - by sperling

  How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

  Read the article

• Protecting Content with AuthLogic

  - by Rob Wilkerson

  I know this sounds like a really, really simple use case and I'm hoping that it is, but I swear I've looked all over the place and haven't found any mention of any way - not even the best way - of doing this. I'm brand-spanking new to Ruby, Rails and everything surrounding either (which may explain a lot). The dummy app that I'm using as my learning tool requires authentication in order to do almost anything meaningful, so I chose to start by solving that problem. I've installed the AuthLogic gem and have it working nicely to the extent that is covered by the intro documentation and Railscast, but now that I can register, login and logout...I need to do something with it. As an example, I need to create a page where users can upload images. I'm planning to have an ImagesController with an upload action method, but I want that only accessible to logged in users. I suppose that in every restricted action I could add code to redirect if there's no current_user, but that seems really verbose. Is there a better way of doing this that allows me to define or identify restricted areas and handle the authentication check in one place?

  Read the article

• Rotating an ImageVIew along with its original position in android in below HoneyComb versions

  - by candy

  I am trying rotate an ImageView along with its original location (rotating the image aswell as the view). So that After rotation, when I click on the rotated Image in its current position, it should be able clicked in the rotated location only. For this solution I am trying the following code. However it is rotating is going fine. After the rotation end I need to place the ImageView and Image in the rotated Location to make it able click over there only. But it is not going successfully. I am unable to rotated Image location axis points to place correctly. Can any one please suggest a way to resolve this issue. fyi-It should work on Gingerbread version android-9 aniView1.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { Log.e("", "Clicked on IMAGE VIEW - 1"); } }); RotateAnimation rotate5 = new RotateAnimation(0, 150, Animation.INFINITE, 100, Animation.INFINITE, 250); //rotate5.setFillAfter(true); rotate5.setDuration(2000); rotate5.setInterpolator(new LinearInterpolator()); aniView1.setAnimation(rotate5); rotate5.setAnimationListener(new Animation.AnimationListener() { @Override public void onAnimationStart(Animation animation) { } @Override public void onAnimationRepeat(Animation animation) { } @Override public void onAnimationEnd(Animation animation) { int newTop = (int) (aniView1.getTop() + aniView1.getWidth()); aniView1.layout(aniView1.getLeft()-200, newTop, aniView1.getRight(), aniView1.getBottom() + aniView1.getMeasuredWidth()); // aniView1.setLayoutParams(new // RelativeLayout.LayoutParams(RelativeLayout.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT,RelativeLayout.LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT)); } });

  Read the article

• Why can't decimal numbers be represented exactly in binary?

  - by Barry Brown

  There have been several questions posted to SO about floating-point representation. For example, the decimal number 0.1 doesn't have an exact binary representation, so it's dangerous to use the == operator to compare it to another floating-point number. I understand the principles behind floating-point representation. What I don't understand is why, from a mathematical perspective, are the numbers to the right of the decimal point any more "special" that the ones to the left? For example, the number 61.0 has an exact binary representation because the integral portion of any number is always exact. But the number 6.10 is not exact. All I did was move the decimal one place and suddenly I've gone from Exactopia to Inexactville. Mathematically, there should be no intrinsic difference between the two numbers -- they're just numbers. By contrast, if I move the decimal one place in the other direction to produce the number 610, I'm still in Exactopia. I can keep going in that direction (6100, 610000000, 610000000000000) and they're still exact, exact, exact. But as soon as the decimal crosses some threshold, the numbers are no longer exact. What's going on? Edit: to clarify, I want to stay away from discussion about industry-standard representations, such as IEEE, and stick with what I believe is the mathematically "pure" way. In base 10, the positional values are: ... 1000 100 10 1 1/10 1/100 ... In binary, they would be: ... 8 4 2 1 1/2 1/4 1/8 ... There are also no arbitrary limits placed on these numbers. The positions increase indefinitely to the left and to the right.

  Read the article

• Changing Apache2.2.11 httpd.conf has no effect

  - by Adrian

  Hi, Hopefully someone can help here. I recently installed wampserver ver 2.0 with Apache ver 2.2.11. My issue is, I have some large php scripts which timeout at the default 5 min (300 sec) browser limit (I'm using ie8). It is critcal I get this limit extended. I have tried changing the httpd.conf file to include the following: TimeOut 1200 My objective was to set the timeout at 1200 seconds, or 20 min. I had just chosen a random location to place this directive within the httpd.conf file as I cannot locate any documentation to suggest it belongs in a specific place within the file. Regardless, the changes I make appear in the httpd.conf file that can be found in the system tray for wampserver, however they have no effect - the browser still times out after 5 minutes. I thought perhaps I had the capitals incorrect, so I changed to: Timeout 1200 This change had no effect either. Can someone please help, this is very frustrating. Maybe the command can only be used within a specific module? If so, I have no idea which one, nor do I know the syntax to specify this. Regards Adrian.

  Read the article

• NetBeans Platform - how to refresh the property sheet view of a node?

  - by I82Much

  Hi all, I am using the PropertySheetView component to visualize and edit the properties of a node. This view should always reflect the most recent properties of the object; if there is a change to the object in another process, I want to somehow refresh the view and see the updated properties. The best way I was able to do this is something like the following (making use of EventBus library to publish and subscribe to changes in objects): public DomainObjectWrapperNode(DomainObject obj) { super (Children.LEAF, Lookups.singleton(obj)); EventBus.subscribe(DomainObject.class, this); } public void onEvent(DomainObject event) { // Do a check to determine if the updated object is the one wrapped by this node; // if so fire a property sets change firePropertySetsChange(null, this.getPropertySets()); } This works, but my place in the scrollpane is lost when the sheet refreshes; it resets the view to the top of the list and I have to scroll back down to where I was before the refresh action. So my question is, is there a better way to refresh the property sheet view of a node, specifically so my place in the property list is not lost upon refresh?

  Read the article

• Select ID in table ...

  - by Kris-I

  Hello, I have this code <% foreach (var item in Model.List) { %> <tr> <td><%: item.LastName %></td> <td><%: item.FirstName %></td> <td><%: item.IsEnable %></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerEdit">Edit</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDetail">Detail</a></td> <td><a href="#" class="CustomerDelete">Delete</a></td> </tr> <% } %> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".CustomerEdit").click(function () { alert("blabla"); //need id here }); }); </script> It's not in the code but I have an "Item.Id", it's not place anywhere because I don't know where place it ;-). I'd like when I click on the "Edit" hyperlink get the id (item.Id) of the current line. Any idea ? Thanks,

  Read the article

• Using shared_ptr to implement RCU (read-copy-update)?

  - by yongsun

  I'm very interested in the user-space RCU (read-copy-update), and trying to simulate one via tr1::shared_ptr, here is the code, while I'm really a newbie in concurrent programming, would some experts help me to review? The basic idea is, reader calls get_reading_copy() to gain the pointer of current protected data (let's say it's generation one, or G1). writer calls get_updating_copy() to gain a copy of the G1 (let's say it's G2), and only one writer is allowed to enter the critical section. After the updating is done, writer calls update() to do a swap, and make the m_data_ptr pointing to data G2. The ongoing readers and the writer now hold the shared_ptr of G1, and either a reader or a writer will eventually deallocate the G1 data. Any new readers would get the pointer to G2, and a new writer would get the copy of G2 (let's say G3). It's possible the G1 is not released yet, so multiple generations of data my co-exists. template <typename T> class rcu_protected { public: typedef T type; typedef std::tr1::shared_ptr<type> rcu_pointer; rcu_protected() : m_data_ptr (new type()) {} rcu_pointer get_reading_copy () { spin_until_eq (m_is_swapping, 0); return m_data_ptr; } rcu_pointer get_updating_copy () { spin_until_eq (m_is_swapping, 0); while (!CAS (m_is_writing, 0, 1)) {/* do sleep for back-off when exceeding maximum retry times */} rcu_pointer new_data_ptr(new type(*m_data_ptr)); // as spin_until_eq does not have memory barrier protection, // we need to place a read barrier to protect the loading of // new_data_ptr not to be re-ordered before its construction _ReadBarrier(); return new_data_ptr; } void update (rcu_pointer new_data_ptr) { while (!CAS (m_is_swapping, 0, 1)) {} m_data_ptr.swap (new_data_ptr); // as spin_until_eq does not have memory barrier protection, // we need to place a write barrier to protect the assignments of // m_is_writing/m_is_swapping be re-ordered bofore the swapping _WriteBarrier(); m_is_writing = 0; m_is_swapping = 0; } private: volatile long m_is_writing; volatile long m_is_swapping; rcu_pointer m_data_ptr; };

  Read the article

• Rails: Rendered JS file doesn't execute using UJS

  - by Hassinus

  I would like to display a Rails edit form using JS instead of redirecting with HTML. To do this, I use UJS for the edit link: <%= link_to "Edit user info", edit_user_path(1), :remote => true %> Then, the "edit" action of User controller is like this (simplified version): controllers/users_controller.rb: def edit # Step 1: Get the edit HTML form @html = render_to_string(:template => "users/edit.html") # Step 2: Use JS to display the form in the correct place render "users/edit.js" end As you may guess, I have two views: The html version of "edit" action which contains the form in HTML format. Let's consider a test version: views/users/edit.html.erb: <h1>This is just a test</h1> The js version that will display the form in the correct place, using jQuery for example. Again, for test purpose, let's just popup the html text: views/users/edit.js.erb: alert("<%= @html %>"); The problem is that nothing is executed (no popup) Using the inspector (from Chrome web browser), I get the response as text format: alert("<h1>This is just a test</h1>"); Do you have any idea? Why do the rendered JS is not executed? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Social Media Java Design Problem

  - by jboyd

  I need to put something together quickly that will take blog posts and place them on social media sites, the requirements are as follows: Blog Entries are independent records that already exist, they have a published date and a modified date, the blog entry application cannot be changed, at least not substantially A new blog entry, or update needs to be sent to social media sites I currently do not need to update or delete social media communications if the blog entry is edited, or deleted, though I may need to later My design problems here are as follows: how do I know the status of each update how can I figure out what blog entry updates and postings have already been sent out? how can I quickly poll the blog entry table for postings that haven't yet been sent out? Avoiding looking at each Entry record from the DB as an object and asking if it's been sent already. That would be too slow. I cannot hook into any Blog Entry update code, my only option would be to create a trigger that an update queues something to be processed I'm looking for general guiding principles here, the biggest problem I'm having is coming up with any reasonable way to figure out if a blog entry should be sent to our social media sites in the first place

  Read the article

• fix needed for bug in TextField/Text

  - by Mark

  Sort of a complicated scenario - just curious if anyone else could come up with something: I have a Text control and when I scroll it and stop the scroll with the cursor over some text that has a url, the cursor doesn't revert to a hand, and also flash player starts acting as if a selection is being made from the last cursor position. So IOW a bonafide bug in flash as far as I can determine. The above probably wasn't completely clear so let me elaborate. If you grab a scrollbar thumb and start moving it up and down, you don't actually have to keep the mouse pointer on the thumb while doing so. When you stop the scroll, the mouse pointer could be outside the browser window, inside your flash application, but not currently on the scroll bar thumb, or wherever. The previously mentioned bug occurs when you stop the scroll with the mouse pointer positioned over text with an html anchor (a hyperlink). At that point the cursor enters into some state of limbo, and doesn't show the url hand pointer, and furthermore acts as if some text selection is taking place from the last cursor position prior to the scroll. So the question would be, what sort of event could I simulate in code to jolt flash out of this erroneous state it is in. And furthermore in what event could I perform this simulated event (given that for example there is no AS3 event to signal the end of a scroll.) To be clear, the Text control in question is on a canvas, and that canvas (call it A) is on another canvas which actually owns the scrollbar, and scrolling takes place by changing the scrollRect of canvas A.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188  | Next Page >