Search Results

Search found 89159 results on 3567 pages for 'function pointerswww developerit com'.

Page 1819/3567 | < Previous Page | 1815 1816 1817 1818 1819 1820 1821 1822 1823 1824 1825 1826  | Next Page >

  • jquery - how to get input text value from inside td

    - by Ashish Rajan
    <tr> <td> <input type="text" name="duration[]"> </td> <td> <input type="text" name="start[]"> </td> <td> <input type="text" name="wait[]"> </td> <td> <input type="text" name="end[]"> </td> </tr> I have such multiple rows. I need to fetch the values off all tds on keyup event on the td with input name start. Since they are many i cannot go with ids, need help in parent child approach with jquery. I was able to reach parent tr on keyup event on the above mentioned td but not able to access values of input field in other tds. the jquery code i used $(document).ready(function(){ $(".start").keyup(function(){ alert($(this).parent().get(-3).tagName); }) });

    Read the article

  • jquery Ui Dialog box opacity / alpha filter broken in IE7/8 when using jquery.effects.fade.js

    - by Ideasman101
    Greetings! Goal: transparant ui dialog box in IE7/8 with fade in/out effect upon open/close. Opacity was set in css and works just fine (safari, chrome, ff ie7/8) using native effects blind / explode etc. But when using efects.fade.js on the dialog box the opacity does not work on ie7/8 We want fade in/out because that looks awesome. Anyway here is my code. Any help much appreciated. Maybe something to do with filter or cleartype. My css .ui-dialog { position: absolute; padding: .2em; width: 300px; overflow: hidden; opacity:0.85;filter:alpha(opacity=85);} My jQuery // Dialog1 $('#dialog1').dialog({ position: [250,120], autoOpen: false, closeOnEscape: true, modal: false, show: { effect: "fade", options: {}, speed: 1500 }, hide: { effect: "fade", options: {}, speed: 1500 }, resizable: false, width: 350, height: 200 }); // Dialog Link 1 $('#dialog_link1').click(function(){ $([1,2,3]).each(function(){ var num = this; $('#dialog'+num).dialog('close'); }); $('#dialog1').dialog('open'); $('body').css("background-image", "url(images/image1.jpg)"); $('body').css("background-repeat", "no-repeat"); $('body').css("background-position", "bottom center"); $('body').css("background-attachment", "fixed"); $('body').css("bottom", "0px"); return false; });

    Read the article

  • Calling WCF service with parameter using jQuery

    - by Remi Despres-Smyth
    I'm trying to call a WCF web service hosted by IIS using jQuery. I can call it fine without any parameters, and I can also call it fine with a GET request that includes my parameter, but as soon as I try to send in the request via POST, the call is failing. The web service is currently nothing but: [OperationContract, WebInvoke] public ValidationResultSummary TestValidateOn( object day) { return null; } I've set the parameter to object, to make sure the issue isn't something with type coercion. With a breakpoint in the web service, I know the call without parameters as well as the GET call with param succeeds; in the latter the expected value is sent up. Calling code looks like: $.ajax({ // type: "GET", // url: "../Shared/Services/DomainServices.svc/TestValidateOn?day='12/Jan/2010'", type: "POST", url: "../Shared/Services/DomainServices.svc/TestValidateOn", // data: "{ }", --This works if object type param, calls with null data: "{'day': " + selectedDate + "}", // This fails miserably // data: "{'day': '" + selectedDate + "'}", --This also fails miserably contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(data) { displayResults(data.d); }, error: function(xmlHttpReq, status, errThrown) { displayError(xmlHttpReq, status, errThrown); } }); The POST call never reaches my breakpoint, and on the client, error 500 - "Internal Server Error" - is returned. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Using Unit of Work design pattern / NHibernate Sessions in an MVVM WPF

    - by Echiban
    I think I am stuck in the paralysis of analysis. Please help! I currently have a project that Uses NHibernate on SQLite Implements Repository and Unit of Work pattern: http://blogs.hibernatingrhinos.com/nhibernate/archive/2008/04/10/nhibernate-and-the-unit-of-work-pattern.aspx MVVM strategy in a WPF app Unit of Work implementation in my case supports one NHibernate session at a time. I thought at the time that this makes sense; it hides inner workings of NHibernate session from ViewModel. Now, according to Oren Eini (Ayende): http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/ee819139.aspx He convinces the audience that NHibernate sessions should be created / disposed when the view associated with the presenter / viewmodel is disposed. He presents issues why you don't want one session per windows app, nor do you want a session to be created / disposed per transaction. This unfortunately poses a problem because my UI can easily have 10+ view/viewmodels present in an app. He is presenting using a MVP strategy, but does his advice translate to MVVM? Does this mean that I should scrap the unit of work and have viewmodel create NHibernate sessions directly? Should a WPF app only have one working session at a time? If that is true, when should I create / dispose a NHibernate session? And I still haven't considered how NHibernate Stateless sessions fit into all this! My brain is going to explode. Please help!

    Read the article

  • -[UIImage drawInRect:] / CGContextDrawImage() not releasing memory?

    - by sohocoke
    I wanted to easily blend a UIImage on top of another background image, so wrote a category method for UIImage, adapted from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1309757/blend-two-uiimages : - (UIImage *) blendedImageOn:(UIImage *) backgroundImage { NSAutoreleasePool* pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(backgroundImage.size); CGRect rect = CGRectMake(0, 0, backgroundImage.size.width, backgroundImage.size.height); [backgroundImage drawInRect:rect]; [self drawInRect:rect]; UIImage* blendedImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); [pool release]; return blendedImage; } Unfortunately my app that uses the above method to load around 20 images and blend them with background and gloss images (so probably around 40 calls), is being jettisoned on the device. An Instruments session revealed that calls to malloc stemming from the calls to drawInRect: are responsible for the bulk of the memory usage. I tried replacing the drawInRect: messages with equivalent function calls to the function CGContextDrawImage but it didn't help. The AutoReleasePool was added after I found the memory usage problem; it also didn't make a difference. I'm thinking this is probably because I'm not using graphics contexts appropriately. Would calling the above method in a loop be a bad idea because of the number of contexts I create? Or did I simply miss something?

    Read the article

  • Do SEO-friendly URLs really affect a page's ranking?

    - by Lee Harold
    SEO-friendly URLs are all the rage these days. But do they actually have a meaningful impact on a page's ranking in Google and other search engines? If so, why? If not, why not? (Note that I would absolutely agree that SEO-friendly URLs are nicer to use for human beings. My question is whether they actually make a difference to the ranking algorithms.) Update: As it turns out, the Google post that endorphine points to here has caused tremendous confusion in the SEO community. For a sampling of the discussion, see here, here, and here. Part of the problem is that the Google post is addressing the worst case where URL rewriting is done poorly and so you'd be better off sticking with a dynamic URL rather than a mangled static "SEO-friendly" URL. There's no question dynamic URLs can be crawled by Google and can achieve high rankings. Maybe it would be easier to reframe the question more concretely: given 2 otherwise equivalent pages, which will rank higher for the search "do seo friendly urls really affect page ranking"? A) http://stackoverflow.com/questions/505793/do-seo-friendly-urls-really-affect-a-pages-ranking or B) http://stackoverflow.com?question=505793 (a fake URL for comparison only)

    Read the article

  • [ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)]

    - by gnomixa
    In ASP.net web service if the above isn't specified , what is the response format by default? Also, if my web service below: [WebMethod()] public List<Sample> GenerateSamples(string[][] data) { ResultsFactory f = new ResultsFactory(data); List<Sample> samples = f.GenerateSamples(); return samples; } returns the list of objects, If I change the response format to JSON, I have to change the return type to string, then how do I access objects in my javascript? Currently I call this web service in my JS such as: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://localhost/TemplateWebService/Service.asmx/GenerateSamples", data: jsonText, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(response) { var samples = (typeof response.d) == 'string' ? eval('(' + response.d + ')') : response.d; if (samples.length > 0) { doSomethingHere(samples); } else { alert("No samples have been generated"); } }, error: function(xhr, status, error) { var msg = JSON.parse(xhr.responseText); alert(msg.Message); } }); What i noticed though, even though everything works perfectly fine, the eval statement never gets executed, which means that the web service always returns a string! So my question is, is [ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] necessary on the web service definition side? The way things are now, I can use samples array and access each object and its properties as I normally would in any OOP code, which is very convenient, and everything works no problem, but I just wanted to make sure that I am not missing anything in my set up. I took the basics of combining Jquery's ajax with asp.net from Encosia side, and the response type wasn't mentioned there - I read it on another site and am I not sure how vital it is.

    Read the article

  • Objective-C SSL Synchronous Connection

    - by Mike
    Hello, I'm a little new to objective-C but have run across a problem that I can't solve, mostly because I'm not sure I am implementing the solution correctly. I am trying to connect using a Synchronous Connection to a https site with a self-signed certificate. I am getting the Error Domain=NSURLErrorDomain Code=-1202 "untrusted server certificate" Error that I have seen some solutions to on this forum. The solution i found was to add: - (BOOL)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection canAuthenticateAgainstProtectionSpace:(NSURLProtectionSpace *)protectionSpace { return [protectionSpace.authenticationMethod isEqualToString:NSURLAuthenticationMethodServerTrust]; } (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveAuthenticationChallenge:(NSURLAuthenticationChallenge *)challenge { [challenge.sender useCredential:[NSURLCredential credentialForTrust:challenge.protectionSpace.serverTrust] forAuthenticationChallenge:challenge]; } to the NSURLDelegate to accept all certificates. When I connect to the site using just a: NSURLRequest *theRequest=[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"https://examplesite.com/"] cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:60.0]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; It works fine and I see the challenge being accepted. However when I try to connect using the synchronous connection I still get the error and I don't see the challenge functions being called when I put in logging. How can I get the synchronous connection to use the challenge methods? Is it something to do with the delegate:self part of the URLConnection? I also have logging for sending/receiving data within the NSURLDelegate that is called by my connection function but not by the synchronous function. What I am using for the synchronous part: NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL: [NSURL URLWithString:@"https://examplesite.com/"]]; [request setHTTPMethod: @"POST"]; [request setHTTPBody: [[NSString stringWithString:@"username=mike"] dataUsingEncoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; dataReply = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error:&error]; NSLog(@"%@", error); stringReply = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:dataReply encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; NSLog(@"%@", stringReply); [stringReply release]; NSLog(@"Done"); Like I mentioned I'm a little new to objective C so be kind :) Thanks for any help. Mike

    Read the article

  • VS 2010 VSTO Add in for EXCEL 2007 Won't load

    - by Erick
    Hi everyone, We have an application that is built with Excel as the front end using the Office object model. We were using a C++ shim to load it as a COM add in for Excel 2003, but I've updated it to use the latest VSTO for Excel 2007. I've also been using VS 2010 for the latest version. The problem is that everything works great on my dev machine in debugger mode as well as just launching Excel 2007, but I cannot get it to run on any other machine (my current target machine is Win7, development is XP). I've created a ClickOnce deployment of the Addin, and I can see it in the list of COM Addins, but when I check on it to load it nothing happens. I re-open the Addins manager and it is un-checked. I've also tried setting in in the registry, but as soon as I run it, it sets the registry back to do not load. I've tried everything I can think of and searched all over the web but no dice. Any help would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • WebSocket handshake with Ruby and EM::WebSocket::Server

    - by Chad Johnson
    I am trying to create a simple WebSocket connection in JavaScript against my Rails app. I get the following: WebSocket connection to 'ws://localhost:4000/' failed: Error during WebSocket handshake: 'Sec-WebSocket-Accept' header is missing What am I doing wrong? Here is my code: JavaScript: var socket = new WebSocket('ws://localhost:4000'); socket.onopen = function() { var handshake = "GET / HTTP/1.1\n" + "Host: localhost\n" + "Upgrade: websocket\n" + "Connection: Upgrade\n" + "Sec-WebSocket-Key: x3JJHMbDL1EzLkh9GBhXDw==\n" + "Sec-WebSocket-Protocol: quote\n" + "Sec-WebSocket-Version: 13\n" + "Origin: http://localhost\n"; socket.send(handshake); }; socket.onmessage = function(data) { console.log(data); }; Ruby: require 'rubygems' require 'em-websocket-server' module QuoteService class WebSocket < EventMachine::WebSocket::Server def on_connect handshake_response = "HTTP/1.1 101 Switching Protocols\n" handshake_response << "Upgrade: websocket\n" handshake_response << "Connection: Upgrade\n" handshake_response << "Sec-WebSocket-Accept: HSmrc0sMlYUkAGmm5OPpG2HaGWk=\n" handshake_response << "Sec-WebSocket-Protocol: quote\n" send_message(handshake_response) end def on_receive(data) puts 'RECEIVED: ' + data end end end EventMachine.run do print 'Starting WebSocket server...' EventMachine.start_server '0.0.0.0', 4000, QuoteService::WebSocket puts 'running' end The handshake headers are per Wikipedia.

    Read the article

  • Java (JSP): repeating the contentType header in a "sub-jsp"

    - by Webinator
    What happens when headers are repeated in a .jsp you include in another .jsp? For example if example.jsp starts with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <jsp:root version="2.0" xmlns:jsp="http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page"> <jsp:directive.page contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <div class="content"> <jsp:include page="support-header.jsp"/> ... (it includes support-header.jsp) And then support-header.jsp starts also with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <jsp:root version="2.0" xmlns:jsp="http://java.sun.com/JSP/Page"> <jsp:directive.page contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> ... Is that a problem? Is it bad practice? What does concretely happen when you repeat several times a header that only corresponds to one header in the resulting .html page?

    Read the article

  • QT: trouble with qobject_cast

    - by weevilo
    I have derived QGraphicsItem and QGraphicsScene classes. I want the items to be able to call scene() and get a derviedGraphicsItem * instead of a QGraphicsItem *, so I reimplemented QGraphicsScene::itemAt to return a derived pointer. DerivedItem* DerivedScene::itemAt( const QPointF &position, const QTransform &dt ) const { return qobject_cast< DerivedItem * >( QGraphicsScene::itemAt(position, dt) ); } I get the following error (Qt 4.6, GCC 4.4.3 on Ubuntut 10.4) scene.cpp: In member function ‘DerivedItem* DerivedScene::itemAt(qreal, qreal, const QTransform&) const’: scene.cpp:28: error: no matching function for call to ‘qobject_cast(QGraphicsItem*)’ I then noticed QGraphicsItem doesn't inherit QObject, so I made my derived QGraphicsItem class have multiple inheritance from QObject and QGraphicsItem, and after adding the Q_OBJECT macro and rebuilding the project I get the same error. Am I going about this the wrong way? I know it's supposed to be bad design to try to cast a parent class as a child, but in this case it seems like what I want, since my derived item class has new functionality and its objects need a way to call that new functionality on items around themselves, and asking the items scene object with itemAt() seems like the best way - but I need itemAt() to return a pointer of the right type. I can get around this by having the derived items cast the QGraphicsItem * returned by QGraphicsScene::itemAt() using dynamic_cast, but I don't really understand why that works and not qobject_cast, or the benefits or disadvantages to using dynamic_cast vs. qobject_cast.

    Read the article

  • jquery sortable scroll problem

    - by Sam Vloeberghs
    Hi I'm having problems using the sortable function of jQ:uery UI. The scroll doesn't seem to work.. If the second list ( lists are created on the table rows in a tbody and each tbody is connect ) isn't visible I want it to be possible to scroll towards it for dropping my table row. This is my HTML set up: <ul> <li> <ul> <li> <table class="treeleerling"> <tbody class="oder0"> <tr class="suborder0"> </tr> <tr class="sub1order"> </tr> </tbody> </table> </li> </ul> </li> <li> <ul> <li> <table class="treeleerling"> <tbody class="oder1"> <tr class="suborder0"> </tr> <tr class="suborder1"> </tr> </tbody> </table> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> And jQuery code $(document).ready(function() { $("#left tbody").sortable({ connectWith : '#left tbody', scroll : true, scrollSensitivity: 40, }); }); The sorting works fine, but the scrolling doesnt.. I'm doing something wrong or what? Plz help and advice.. Thx in advance!

    Read the article

  • ExtJS: Combobox in EditorGridPanel not selecting the desired item (with test case)

    - by TomH
    I'm using ExtJS to create an EditorGridPanel with a combobox for an editor in a cell. The combobox in my EditorGridPanel that is not working as I'd expect it to. When the user types the first letter of an item in the drop down list, the combobox seems to ignore it and select the first item in the list. I can reproduce the error consistently and have put together a test case here: http://cluebucket.com/dev/testcase/testcase.html Load the page and reproduce the behavior by the following -- note that this is all done using the keyboard, no mouse clicks: Click 'Add Record' (A new row is added to the grid) enter text in the text field. TAB to the Priority field without selecting anything (None will remain selected) TAB out of the Priority field. (A new row is added to the grid) enter text and TAB to the Priority field TYPE v (Very High is selected) TAB out of the priority field (A new row is added to the grid) enter text and TAB to the Priority field Type v (None is selected, but Very High should have been) TAB out of the priority field Enter text and TAB to the priority field Type l ('el') (Low is selected) TAB out, enter text, TAB to priority Type l (None is selected) It appears that whenever the user attempts to select the same value that was selected in the previous row, the combobox selects None. Any ideas? The code is available at cluebucket.com/dev/testcase/js/testcase.js Thoughts/Pointers/Corrections are appreciated!! thanks tom

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't TransactionScope work with Entity Framework?

    - by NotDan
    See the code below. If I initialize more than one entity context, then I get the following exception on the 2nd set of code only. If I comment out the second set it works. {"The underlying provider failed on Open."} Inner: {"Communication with the underlying transaction manager has failed."} Inner: {"Error HRESULT E_FAIL has been returned from a call to a COM component."} Note that this is a sample app and I know it doesn't make sense to create 2 contexts in a row. However, the production code does have reason to create multiple contexts in the same TransactionScope, and this cannot be changed. Edit Here is a previous question of me trying to set up MS-DTC. It seems to be enabled on both the server and the client. I'm not sure if it is set up correctly. Also note that one of the reasons I am trying to do this, is that existing code within the TransactionScope uses ADO.NET and Linq 2 Sql... I would like those to use the same transaction also. (That probably sounds crazy, but I need to make it work if possible). http://stackoverflow.com/questions/794364/how-do-i-use-transactionscope-in-c Solution Windows Firewall was blocking the connections to MS-DTC. using(TransactionScope ts = new System.Transactions.TransactionScope()) { using (DatabaseEntityModel o = new DatabaseEntityModel()) { var v = (from s in o.Advertiser select s).First(); v.AcceptableLength = 1; o.SaveChanges(); } //-> By commenting out this section, it works using (DatabaseEntityModel o = new DatabaseEntityModel()) { //Exception on this next line var v = (from s1 in o.Advertiser select s1).First(); v.AcceptableLength = 1; o.SaveChanges(); } //-> ts.Complete(); }

    Read the article

  • Populating FullCalendar events from MVC

    - by jasonmhirst
    I've having difficulty in populating FullCalendar from MVC and would like a little assistance on the matter please. I have the following code for my controller: Function GetEvents(ByVal [start] As Double, ByVal [end] As Double) As JsonResult Dim sqlConnection As New SqlClient.SqlConnection sqlConnection.ConnectionString = My.Settings.sqlConnection Dim sqlCommand As New SqlClient.SqlCommand sqlCommand.CommandText = "SELECT tripID AS ID, tripName AS Title, DATEDIFF(s, '1970-01-01 00:00:00', dateStart) AS [Start], DATEDIFF(s, '1970-01-01 00:00:00', dateEnd) AS [End] FROM tblTrip WHERE userID=18 AND DateStart IS NOT NULL" sqlCommand.Connection = sqlConnection Dim ds As New DataSet Dim da As New SqlClient.SqlDataAdapter(sqlCommand) da.Fill(ds, "Meetings") sqlConnection.Close() Dim meetings = From c In ds.Tables("Meetings") Select {c.Item("ID"), c.Item("Title"), "False", c.Item("Start"), c.Item("End")} Return Json(meetings.ToArray(), JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet) End Function This does indeed run correctly but the format that is returned is: [[25,"South America 2008","False",1203033600,1227657600],[48,"Levant 2009","False",1231804800,1233619200],[49,"South America 2009","False",1235433600,1237420800],[50,"Italy 2009","False",1241049600,1256083200],[189,"Levant 2010a","False",1265414400,1267574400],[195,"Levant 2010a","False",1262736000,1262736000],[208,"Levant 2010a","False",1264982400,1267574400],[209,"Levant 2010a","False",1264982400,1265587200],[210,"Levant 2010","False",1264982400,1266969600],[211,"Levant 2010 b","False",1267056000,1267574400],[213,"South America 2010a","False",1268438400,1269648000],[214,"Levant 2010 c","False",1266364800,1264118400],[215,"South America 2010a","False",1268611200,1269648000],[217,"South America 2010","False",1268611200,1269561600],[218,"South America 2010 b","False",1268956800,1269388800],[227,"levant 2010 b","False",1265846400,1266192000]] And this is totally different to what I've seen on the post from here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2445359/jquery-fullcalendar-json-date-issue (note the lack of tag information and curly braces) Can someone please explain to me what I may be doing wrong and why my output isn't correctly formatted. TIA

    Read the article

  • Jqgrid: navigation based on the selected row

    - by bsreekanth
    Hello, I was trying to enable navigation based on a selected row. So, the user select a row from jQgrid, and when press the show (is there a show button for the grid, I saw edit, add etc), it needs to go to a new page based on the url (part of the row). $(document).ready(function () { function getLink() { // var rowid = $("#customer_list").jqGrid('getGridParam', 'selrow'); var rowid = $("#customer_list").getGridParam('selrow'); var MyCellData = $("#customer_list").jqGrid('getCell', rowid, 'dataUrl'); return MyCellData; } $("#customer_list").jqGrid({ url:'mytestList', editurl:'jq_edit_test', datatype: "json", colNames:['Call Id','Title','dataUrl'], colModel:[ {name:'callId', width:80, search:false }, {name:'title', width:200, sortable:false }, {name:'dataUrl',hidden:true} ], rowNum:10, sortname:'lastUpdated', sortorder: 'desc', pager:'#customer_list_pager', viewrecords: true, gridview: true }).navGrid('#customer_list_pager', {add:true,edit:true,del:false,search:true,refresh:true}, {closeAfterEdit:true, afterSubmit:afterSubmitEvent }, // edit options {addCaption:'Create New something', afterSubmit:afterSubmitEvent, savekey:[true,13]}, // add options {afterSubmit:afterSubmitEvent} // delete options ); $("#customer_list").jqGrid('filterToolbar'); }); so, the url is passed for each row as dataUrl. I'm trying to read it and set to the button. Whn debug through firebug, the rowid was 223 (there were only 12 rows in the grid), and the cell value is empty. Currently the button is kept outside the grid, but it may better to be it part of the vavGrid thanks.

    Read the article

  • XAML | When used XamlReader.Parse, not able to refer the items using the LogicalTreeHelper/VisualTre

    - by Roopesh
    Hi, I am setting the dynamic xaml (I am reading the xaml from the DB) for the content of a tab using the below statement. Tab.Content = XamlReader.Parse(xaml, ctx) After setting the content, if I try getting the children using the VisualTreeHelper, but I am not able to get. How ever I dont have this issue when I construct the xaml statically. Here is the code to reading the xaml. Dim XmlDocument = New XmlDataDocument() Dim IID As String = Nothing Dim xaml As String = Nothing Dim Tab As New TabItem Dim TempPanel As XmlNode = Nothing 'Tab.Height = 0 Try XmlDocument.Load(Directory.GetCurrentDirectory & "\Xml\AppFile.xml") pXmlDoc = XmlDocument xaml = XmlDocument.SelectSingleNode("//Grid").OuterXml Dim AsmName As String = System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetName().Name Dim ctx As ParserContext = New ParserContext() ' New ParserContext() ctx.XamlTypeMapper = New XamlTypeMapper(New String() {AsmName}) ctx.XamlTypeMapper.AddMappingProcessingInstruction("src", "WpfToolkitDataGridTester", AsmName) ctx.XmlnsDictionary.Add("", "http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation") ctx.XmlnsDictionary.Add("x", "http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml") ctx.XmlnsDictionary.Add("src", "clr-namespace:WpfToolkitDataGridTester;assembly=" + AsmName) Tab.Name = "Tab" & Grid1Tab.Items.Count + 1 Tab.Header = "AppFile-1" Tab.BorderThickness = New Thickness(0) Tab.IsSelected = True Tab.Content = XamlReader.Parse(xaml, ctx) Grid1Tab.Items.Add(Tab) Return True Catch ex As Exception Throw End Try Here is the code to access the item after constructing the XAML. For i As Integer = 0 To VisualTreeHelper.GetChildrenCount(myVisual) - 1 Dim childVisual As Visual = CType(VisualTreeHelper.GetChild(myVisual, i), Visual) Select Case childVisual.DependencyObjectType.Name Case "ComboBox" AddHandler CType(childVisual, ComboBox).SelectionChanged, AddressOf ComboBox_SelectChanged Case "CheckBox" AddHandler CType(childVisual, CheckBox).Checked, AddressOf CheckBoxClicked AddHandler CType(childVisual, CheckBox).Unchecked, AddressOf CheckBoxClicked Case "RadioButton" AddHandler CType(childVisual, RadioButton).Checked, AddressOf CheckBoxClicked Case "TabControl" For Each item As System.Windows.Controls.TabItem In CType(childVisual, TabControl).Items EnumVisual(item.Content) Next End Select EnumVisual(childVisual) Next i any help is highly appreciated. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Facebook, iframe app, fb:request-form, action attribute problem

    - by Unreality
    Hi all, I'm making a facebook iframe application I'm making a request form with my own form data. What should I do in order to process the data? If I put action="http://apps.facebook.com/[appName]/abc.php" , i.e. <fb:serverfbml> <script type="text/fbml"> <fb:fbml> <fb:request-form action="http://apps.facebook.com/[appName]/abc.php" method="post" type="abc" content="abc"> <textarea name="pm" fb_protected="true" ></textarea> <fb:multi-friend-selector showborder="false" max="35" actiontext="test" email_invite="true" bypass="cancel" /> </fb:request-form> </fb:fbml> </script> </fb:serverfbml> Then the result is funny... A facebook page inside the facebook app's iframe ! but if I put action="http://[my own domain / facebook connect url]/abc.php" , i.e. <fb:serverfbml> <script type="text/fbml"> <fb:fbml> <fb:request-form action="http://[my own domain / facebook connect url]/abc.php" method="post" type="abc" content="abc"> <textarea name="pm" fb_protected="true" ></textarea> <fb:multi-friend-selector showborder="false" max="35" actiontext="test" email_invite="true" bypass="cancel" /> </fb:request-form> </fb:fbml> </script> </fb:serverfbml> Then the result page will be rendered WITHOUT facebook template (that means losing all top facebook banner and bottom facebook bar like the facebook chats etc) Anyone knows what's wrong? Thanks a lot for reading

    Read the article

  • Multiple markers in Googe Maps API v3 that link to different pages when clicked

    - by Dave
    I have a map with multiple markers, which I populate via an array. Each marker is clickable and should take the user to a different url per marker. The problem is that all the markers, while displaying the correct title, all use the url of the last entry in the array. Here is my code: var myOptions = { zoom: 9, center: new google.maps.LatLng(40.81940575,-73.95647955), mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.TERRAIN } var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("bigmap"), myOptions); setMarkers(map, properties); var properties = [ ['106 Ft Washington Avenue',40.8388485,-73.9436015,'Mjg4'], ['213 Bennett Avenue',40.8574384,-73.9333426,'Mjkz'], ['50 Overlook Terrace',40.8543752,-73.9362542,'Mjky'], ['850 West 176 Street',40.8476012,-73.9417571,'OTM='], ['915 West End Avenue',40.8007478,-73.9692155,'Mjkx']]; function setMarkers(map, buildings) { var image = new google.maps.MarkerImage('map_marker.png', new google.maps.Size(19,32), new google.maps.Point(0,0), new google.maps.Point(10,32)); var shadow = new google.maps.MarkerImage('map_marker_shadow.png', new google.maps.Size(28,32), new google.maps.Point(0,0), new google.maps.Point(10,32)); var bounds = new google.maps.LatLngBounds; for (var i in buildings) { var myLatLng = new google.maps.LatLng(buildings[i][1], buildings[i][2]); bounds.extend(myLatLng); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: myLatLng, map: map, shadow: shadow, icon: image, title: buildings[i][0] }); google.maps.event.addListener(marker, 'click', function() { window.location = ('detail?b=' + buildings[i][3]); }); } map.fitBounds(bounds); } Using this code, clicking any marker take the user to 'detail?b=Mjkx' What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • dynamic GridView in CreateChildControls throws a "RegisterRequiresControlState can only be called be

    - by tbischel
    I am trying to add a GridView dynamically to a SharePoint Web Part. Right now, the first time I load the gridview, everything works fine. My gridview has an edit column enabled... so when I click that, it throws an exception when I try and add the gridview control on the postback. The exception: "RegisterRequiresControlState can only be called before and during PreRender" I've tried adding my controls in the CreateChildControls function, the OnInit, OnPageLoad, and OnPreRender... all exhibit the same problem. Does anyone know what might cause this kind of error? Edit: So to test this problem, I created a local GridView in the webpart, recreating all the properties in the one that failed. It actually worked this time through... the only difference that I could identify was that I had made the gridview a static variable in another class, where as here I initiated the gridview as a local variable. I even used the same initializing function for both the original and modified version, same difference. So why would creating a GridView locally affect the ability to add it to a web part?

    Read the article

  • handling refrence to pointers/double pointers using SWIG [C++ to Java]

    - by Siddu
    My code has an interface like class IExample { ~IExample(); //pure virtual methods ...}; a class inheriting the interface like class CExample : public IExample { protected: CExample(); //implementation of pure virtual methods ... }; and a global function to create object of this class - createExample( IExample *& obj ) { obj = new CExample(); } ; Now, I am trying to get Java API wrapper using SWIG, the SWIG generated interface has a construcotr like - IExample(long cPtr, boolean cMemoryOwn) and global function becomes createExample(IExample obj ) The problem is when i do, IExample exObject = new IExample(LogFileLibraryJNI.new_plong(), true /*or false*/ ); createExample( exObject ); The createExample(...) API at C++ layer succesfully gets called, however, when call returns to Java layer, the cPtr (long) variable does not get updated. Ideally, this variable should contain address of CExample object. I read in documentation that typemaps can be used to handle output parameters and pointer references as well; however, I am not able to figure out the suitable way to use typemaps to resolve this problem, or any other workaround. Please suggest if i am doing something wrong, or how to use typemap in such situation?

    Read the article

  • asp.net/jquery - Countdown timer not working

    - by Julian
    Here is the full code: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default2.aspx.cs" Inherits="Default2" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.pack.js"></script> <style type="text/css"> @import "jquery.countdown.css"; </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="Scripts/jquery.countdown.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#shortly').countdown({ until: shortly, onExpiry: liftOff, layout: "{ps} seconds to go" }); $(document).ready(function () { shortly = new Date(); shortly.setSeconds(shortly.getSeconds() + 5.5); $('#shortly').countdown('change', { until: shortly }); }); function liftOff() { // refresh the page windowwindow.location = window.location; } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <span id="shortly"></span> </form> </body> </html> I've got the jquery.countdown.js in the Scriptsmap of visual studio. Also the stylesheet "jquery.countdown.css" is in the project. Don't have a clue about what the problem could be. I'm kind of new to jquery and trying to learn it.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC in a subfolder (only) on godaddy

    - by Anthony Potts
    Okay, I have read many of the routing posts concerning putting asp.net mvc on godaddy. However, I have not come to a solution to my current problem. I am trying to publish an ASP.NET MVC application to a subfolder on godaddy. I have upgraded the account to use IIS 7 and I have included the MVC dlls in \bin\ deployment method. However, I suspect that my route is not correct. Currently, my routes are set up with the standard out of the box route: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); } I have a subdomain set up so that it looks like office.domain.com. The subdomain is pointing at a folder "/office/" which is right off the root folder. (There is not an MVC application installed in the root folder). All of my application has been placed in this 'office' folder. When I hover over the links however, the 'office' portion shows up in the link as well. e.g. Hovering over a link to the customer controller, index action yields "office.domain.com/office/Customer" as the target. This link then gets a 404 when I attempt to go to it. What should my route be to fix this? Is there something I have neglected in setting up the subdomain in godaddy? Is this something I just can't do in godaddy's domain management "tool". Do I need to set up a virtual directory for this instead of just a directory? Update: I changed the IIS settings in godaddy to use integrated pipeline mode, per this discussion and I am no longer getting 404 errors. The application worked just fine as suggested it would.

    Read the article

  • c# Named Pipe Asynchronous Peeking

    - by KJ Tsanaktsidis
    Hey all, I need to find a way to be notified when a System.IO.Pipe.NamedPipeServerStream opened in asynchronous mode has more data available for reading on it- a WaitHandle would be ideal. I cannot simply use BeginRead() to obtain such a handle because it's possible that i might be signaled by another thread which wants to write to the pipe- so I have to release the lock on the pipe and wait for the write to be complete, and NamedPipeServerStream doesnt have a CancelAsync method. I also tried calling BeginRead(), then calling the win32 function CancelIO on the pipe if the thread gets signaled, but I don't think this is an ideal solution because if CancelIO is called just as data is arriving and being processed, it will be dropped- I still wish to keep this data, but process it at a later time, after the write. I suspect the win32 function PeekNamedPipe might be useful but i'd like to avoid having to continuously poll for new data with it. In the likley event that the above text is a bit unclear, here's roughly what i'd like to be able to do... NamedPipeServerStream pipe; ManualResetEvent WriteFlag; //initialise pipe lock (pipe) { //I wish this method existed WaitHandle NewDataHandle = pipe.GetDataAvailableWaithandle(); Waithandle[] BreakConditions = new Waithandle[2]; BreakConditions[0] = NewDataHandle; BreakConditions[1] = WriteFlag; int breakcode = WaitHandle.WaitAny(BreakConditions); switch (breakcode) { case 0: //do a read on the pipe break; case 1: //break so that we release the lock on the pipe break; } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 1815 1816 1817 1818 1819 1820 1821 1822 1823 1824 1825 1826  | Next Page >