Search Results

Search found 5565 results on 223 pages for 'global'.

Page 182/223 | < Previous Page | 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189  | Next Page >

  • how to implement enhanced session handling in PHP

    - by praksant
    Hi, i'm working with sessions in PHP, and i have different applications on single domain. Problem is, that cookies are domain specific, and so session ids are sent to any page on single domain. (i don't know if there is a way to make cookies work in different way). So Session variables are visible in every page on this domain. I'm trying to implement custom session manager to overcome this behavior, but i'm not sure if i'm thinking about it right. I want to completely avoid PHP session system, and make a global object, which would store session data and on the end of script save it to database. On first access i would generate unique session_id and create a cookie On the end of script save session data with session_id, timestamps for start of session and last access, and data from $_SERVER, such as REMOTE_ADDR, REMOTE_PORT, HTTP_USER_AGENT. On every access chceck database for session_id sent in cookie from client, check IP, Port and user agent (for security) and read data into session variable (if not expired). If session_id expired, delete from database. That session variable would be implemented as singleton (i know i would get tight coupling with this class, but i don't know about better solution). I'm trying to get following benefits: Session variables invisible in another scripts on the same server and same domain Custom management of session expiration Way to see open sessions (something like list of online users) i'm not sure if i'm overlooking any disadvantages of this solution. Is there any better way? Thank you!!

    Read the article

  • Nested hyperlinks in XHTML 1.1 document

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, I'm doing a simple widget for WordPress that fetches the most recent tweets from the RSS feed provided by Twitter. This widget parses any link posted on a tweet, it also parses mentions (ie: @username) and trending topics (ie: #nowplaying). For these 3 situations, it creates links pointing to some Twitter feature. For instance: "Hi @UserA, check out the song Foo from FooBar that I'm listening, it's awesome. #nowplaying" And it will parse into this: Hi <a href="http://twitter.com/UserA">@UserA</a>, check out the song Foo from FooBar that I'm listening, it's awesome. <a href="http://twitter.com/#search?q=nowplaying">#nowplaying</a> Now now I need to add a global link to the whole message, like this: <a href="http://twitter.com/UserA/statuses/1234567890"> Hi <a href="http://twitter.com/UserA">@UserA</a>, check out the song Foo from FooBar that I'm listening, it's awesome. <a href="http://twitter.com/#search?q=nowplaying">#nowplaying</a> </a> But this code does not validate and it doesn't work anyways (the browsers don't really seem to know what to do with it). Any suggestions how could I fix this?

    Read the article

  • Can this code cause a "500" internal server error ?

    - by Scott B
    A few of my customers are reporting that they are getting "500" Internal Server errors lately. I believe it might be caused by various plugins they are using but each time, the hosting company (multiple hosts) are saying that the htaccess file had to be replaced to fix the issue. I'm submitting the code below from my custom theme because its the only place where I trigger an htaccess write. And I want to be sure that there are no problems here that could cause an issue that might contribute to the 500 errors... if (file_exists(ABSPATH.'/wp-admin/includes/taxonomy.php')) { require_once(ABSPATH.'/wp-admin/includes/taxonomy.php'); if(get_option('permalink_structure') !== "/%postname%/" || get_option('mycustomtheme_permalinks') !=="/%postname%/") { $mycustomtheme_permalinks = get_option('mycustomtheme_permalinks'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/misc.php'); require_once(ABSPATH . '/wp-admin/includes/file.php'); global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->set_permalink_structure($mycustomtheme_permalinks); $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } if(!get_cat_ID('topMenu')){wp_create_category('topMenu');} if(!get_cat_ID('hidden')){wp_create_category('hidden');} if(!get_cat_ID('noads')){wp_create_category('noads');} } if (!is_dir(ABSPATH.'wp-content/uploads')) { mkdir(ABSPATH.'wp-content/uploads'); }

    Read the article

  • Background color remaining when switching views

    - by Guy
    Hi Guys. I have a UIViewController named equationVC who's user interface is being programmatically created from another NSObject class called equationCon. Upon loading equationVC, a method called chooseInterface is called from the equationCon class. I have a global variable (globalVar) that points to a user defined string. chooseInterface finds a method in the equationCon class that matches the string globalVar points to. In this case, let's say that globalVar points to a string that is called "methodThatMatches." In methodThatMatches, another view controller needs to show the results of what methodThatMatches did. methodThatMatches creates a new equationVC that calls upon methodThatMatches2. As a test, each method changes the color of the background. When the application starts up, I get a purple background, but as soon as I hit backwards I get another purple screen, which should be yellow. I do not think that I am release the view properly. Can anyone help? -(void)chooseInterface { NSString* equationTemp = [globalVar stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@" " withString:@""]; equationTemp = [equationTemp stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"'" withString:@""]; SEL equationName = NSSelectorFromString(equationTemp); NSLog(@"selector! %@",NSStringFromSelector(equationName)); if([self respondsToSelector:equationName]){ [self performSelector:equationName]; } } -(void)methodThatMatches{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor yellowColor]; [setGlobalVar:@"methodThatMatches2"]; EquationVC* temp = [[EquationVC alloc] init]; [[self.equationVC navigationController] pushViewController:temp animated:YES ]; [temp release]; } -(void)methodThatmatches2{ self.equationVC.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor purpleColor]; }

    Read the article

  • Create new or update existing entity at one go with JPA

    - by Alex R
    A have a JPA entity that has timestamp field and is distinguished by a complex identifier field. What I need is to update timestamp in an entity that has already been stored, otherwise create and store new entity with the current timestamp. As it turns out the task is not as simple as it seems from the first sight. The problem is that in concurrent environment I get nasty "Unique index or primary key violation" exception. Here's my code: // Load existing entity, if any. Entity e = entityManager.find(Entity.class, id); if (e == null) { // Could not find entity with the specified id in the database, so create new one. e = entityManager.merge(new Entity(id)); } // Set current time... e.setTimestamp(new Date()); // ...and finally save entity. entityManager.flush(); Please note that in this example entity identifier is not generated on insert, it is known in advance. When two or more of threads run this block of code in parallel, they may simultaneously get null from entityManager.find(Entity.class, id) method call, so they will attempt to save two or more entities at the same time, with the same identifier resulting in error. I think that there are few solutions to the problem. Sure I could synchronize this code block with a global lock to prevent concurrent access to the database, but would it be the most efficient way? Some databases support very handy MERGE statement that updates existing or creates new row if none exists. But I doubt that OpenJPA (JPA implementation of my choice) supports it. Event if JPA does not support SQL MERGE, I can always fall back to plain old JDBC and do whatever I want with the database. But I don't want to leave comfortable API and mess with hairy JDBC+SQL combination. There is a magic trick to fix it using standard JPA API only, but I don't know it yet. Please help.

    Read the article

  • ORA- 01157 / Cant connect to database

    - by Tom
    Hi everyone, this is a follow up from this question. Let me start by saying that i am NOT a DBA, so i'm really really lost with this. A few weeks ago, we lost contact with one of our SID'S. All the other services are working, but this one in particular is not. What we got was this message when trying to connect ORA-01033: ORACLE initialization or shutdown in progress An attempt to alter database open ended up in ORA-01157: cannot identify/lock data file 6 - see DBWR trace file ORA-01110: data file 6: '/u01/app/oracle/oradata/xxx/xxx_data.dbf' I tried to shutdown / restart the database, but got this message. Total System Global Area 566231040 bytes Fixed Size 1220604 bytes Variable Size 117440516 bytes Database Buffers 444596224 bytes Redo Buffers 2973696 bytes Database mounted. ORA-01157: cannot identify/lock data file 6 - see DBWR trace file ORA-01110: data file 6: '/u01/app/oracle/oradata/xxx/xxx_data.dbf' When all continued the same, I erased the dbf files (rm xxx_data.dbf xxx_index.dbf), and recreated them using touch xxx_data.dbf. I also tried to recreate the tablespaces using `CREATE TABLESPACE DATA DATAFILE XXX_DATA.DBF` and got Database not open As I said, i don't know how bad this is, or how far i'm from gaining access to my database (well, to this SID at least, the others are working). I would imagine that a last resource would be to throw everything away, and recreating it, but I don't know how to, and I was hoping there's a less destructive solution. Any help will be greatly appreciated . Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • template files in python

    - by saminny
    I am trying to use python for translating a set of templates to a set of configuration files based on values taken from a main configuration file. However, I am having certain issues. Consider the following example of a template file. file1.cfg.template %(CLIENT1)s %(HOST1)s %(PORT1)d C %(COMPID1)s %(CLIENT2)s %(HOST2)s %(PORT2)d C %(COMPID2)s This file contains an entry for each client. There are hundreds of config files like this and I don't want to have logic for each type of config file. Python should do the replacements and generate config files automatically given a set of global values read from a main xml config file. However, in the above example, if CLIENT2 does not exist, how do I delete that line? I expect Python would generate the config file using the following simple code: os.open("file1.cfg.template").read() & myhash where myhash is hash of all configuration parameters which may not contain CLIENT2 at all. In the case it does not contain CLIENT2, I want that line to disappear from the file. Is it possible to insert some 'IF' block in the file and have python evaluate it? Thanks for your help. Any suggestions most welcome.

    Read the article

  • How do I use InputType=numberDecimal with the "phone" soft keypad?

    - by Adam Dunn
    For an EditText box, the user should only be entering valid numbers, so I am using android:inputType="numberDecimal". Unfortunately, the soft keyboard that Android brings up has numbers only along the top row, while the next three rows have various other symbols (dollar sign, percent sign, exclamation mark, space, etc). Since the numberDecimal only accepts numbers 0-9, negative sign, and decimal point, it would make more sense to use the "phone" soft keyboard (0-9 in a 3x3 grid, plus some other symbols). This would make the buttons larger and easier to hit (since it's a 4x4 grid rather than a 10x4 grid in the same screen area). Unfortunately, using android:inputType="phone" allows non-numeric characters such as parentheses I have attempted to use android:inputType="numberDecimal|phone", but the numberDecimal aspect of the bit flag seems to be ignored. I have also tried using android:inputType="phone" in combination with android:digits="0123456789-.", but that still allows multiple negative signs or decimal points (inputType="number" has really good error checking for things like that, and won't let the user even type it in). I have also tried using android:inputType="phone" in the xml layout file, while using a DigitsKeyListener in the java code, but then that just uses the default number soft keyboard (the one that has numbers only along top row) (it appears to set InputType.TYPE_CLASS_NUMBER, which voids the InputType.TYPE_CLASS_PHONE set by the xml layout). Writing a custom IME wouldn't work, since the user would have to select the IME as a global option outside the app. Is there any way to use the "phone" style soft keyboard while also using the "number" restrictions on what is entered?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NEt MVC 2 application error on IIS7 works fine on local machine

    - by aspCoolguy
    My ASP.NET MVC2 application is developed using 1. VS 2010 2. Linq To SQL for Models Here is Call controller code: namespace CallTrackMVC.Controllers { public class CallController : Controller { private CallTrackRepository repository; public CallController():this(new CallTrackRepository()) { } public CallController(CallTrackRepository newRepository) { repository = newRepository; } } } Error on IIS7 when browsing the Call Create page is NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] CallTrackMVC.Models.ExecOfficeDataContext..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Models\ExecOffice.designer.cs:71 CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Controllers\CallController.cs:16 [TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +117 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +247 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +106 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +102 [InvalidOperationException: **An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.**] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +541 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +85 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +165 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +80 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +389 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +371 Code in Global.asax is protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestion would be a great help.

    Read the article

  • Recursion in prepared statements

    - by Rob
    I've been using PDO and preparing all my statements primarily for security reasons. However, I have a part of my code that does execute the same statement many times with different parameters, and I thought this would be where the prepared statements really shine. But they actually break the code... The basic logic of the code is this. function someFunction($something) { global $pdo; $array = array(); static $handle = null; if (!$handle) { $handle = $pdo->prepare("A STATEMENT WITH :a_param"); } $handle->bindValue(":a_param", $something); if ($handle->execute()) { while ($row = $handle->fetch()) { $array[] = someFunction($row['blah']); } } return $array; } It looked fine to me, but it was missing out a lot of rows. Eventually I realised that the statement handle was being changed (executed with different param), which means the call to fetch in the while loop will only ever work once, then the function calls itself again, and the result set is changed. So I am wondering what's the best way of using PDO prepared statements in a recursive way. One way could be to use fetchAll(), but it says in the manual that has a substantial overhead. The whole point of this is to make it more efficient. The other thing I could do is not reuse a static handle, and instead make a new one every time. I believe that since the query string is the same, internally the MySQL driver will be using a prepared statement anyway, so there is just the small overhead of creating a new handle on each recursive call. Personally I think that defeats the point. Or is there some way of rewriting this?

    Read the article

  • Why isn't the Cache invalidated after table update using the SqlCacheDependency?

    - by Jason
    I have been trying to get SqlCacheDependency working. I think I have everything set up correctly, but when I update the table, the item in the Cache isn't invalidated. Can you look at my code and see if I am missing anything? I enabled the Service Broker for the Sandbox database. I have placed the following code in the Global.asax file. I also restart IIS to make sure it is called. void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { SqlDependency.Start(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SandboxConnectionString"].ConnectionString); } I have placed this entry in the web.config file: <system.web> <caching> <sqlCacheDependency enabled="true" pollTime="10000"> <databases> <add name="Sandbox" connectionStringName="SandboxConnectionString"/> </databases> </sqlCacheDependency> </caching> </system.web> I call this code to put the item into the cache: protected void CacheDataSetButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (SqlConnection sqlConnection = new SqlConnection(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["SandboxConnectionString"].ConnectionString)) { using (SqlCommand sqlCommand = new SqlCommand("SELECT PetID, Name, Breed, Age, Sex, Fixed, Microchipped FROM dbo.Pets", sqlConnection)) { using (SqlDataAdapter sqlDataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(sqlCommand)) { DataSet petsDataSet = new DataSet(); sqlDataAdapter.Fill(petsDataSet, "Pets"); SqlCacheDependency petsSqlCacheDependency = new SqlCacheDependency(sqlCommand); Cache.Insert("Pets", petsDataSet, petsSqlCacheDependency, DateTime.Now.AddSeconds(10), Cache.NoSlidingExpiration); } } } } Then I bind the GridView with this code: protected void BindGridViewButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Cache["Pets"] != null) { GridView1.DataSource = Cache["Pets"] as DataSet; GridView1.DataBind(); } } Between attempts to DataBind the GridView, I change the table's values expecting it to invalidate the Cache["Pets"] item, but it seems to stay in the Cache indefinitely.

    Read the article

  • Classic ASP application-wide initializations and object caching

    - by slack3r
    In classic ASP (which I am forced to use), I have a few factory functions, that is, functions that return classes. I use JScript. In one include file I use these factory functions to create some classes that are used throughout the application. This include file is included with the #include directive in all pages. These factory functions do some "heavy lifting" and I don't want them to be executed on every page load. So, to make this clear I have something like this: // factory.inc function make_class(arg1, arg2) { function klass() { //... } // ... Some heavy stuff return klass; } // init.inc, included everywhere <!-- #include FILE="factory.inc" --> // ... MyClass1 = make_class(myarg01, myarg02); MyClass2 = make_class(myarg11, myarg12); //... How can I achieve the same effect without calling make_class on every page load? I know that I can't cache the classes in the Application object I can't use the Application_OnStart hook in Global.asa I could probably create a scripting component, but I really don't want to do that So, is there something else I can do? Maybe some way to achieve caching of these classes, which are really objects in JScript. PS: [further clarification] In the above code "heavy stuff" is not so heavy, but I just want to know if there's a way to avoid it being executed all the time. It reads database meta information, builds a table of the primary keys in the database and another table that resolves strings to classes, etc.

    Read the article

  • Execute a function to affect different template class instances

    - by Samer Afach
    I have a complicated problem, and I need help. I have a base case, class ParamBase { string paramValue; //... } and a bunch of class templates with different template parameters. template <typename T> class Param : public ParamBase { T value; //... } Now, each instance of Param has different template parameter, double, int, string... etc. To make it easier, I have a vector to their base class pointers that contains all the instances that have been created: vector<ParamBase*> allParamsObjects; The question is: How can I run a single function (global or member or anything, your choice), that converts all of those different instances' strings paramValue with different templates arguments and save the conversion result to the appropriate type in Param::value. This has to be run over all objects that are saved in the vector allParamsObjects. So if the template argument of the first Param is double, paramValue has to be converted to double and saved in value; and if the second Param's argument is int, then the paramValue of the second has to be converted to int and saved in value... etc. I feel it's almost impossible... Any help would be highly appreciated :-)

    Read the article

  • Hide struct definition in static library.

    - by BobMcLaury
    Hi, I need to provide a C static library to the client and need to be able to make a struct definition unavailable. On top of that I need to be able to execute code before the main at library initialization using a global variable. Here's my code: private.h #ifndef PRIVATE_H #define PRIVATE_H typedef struct TEST test; #endif private.c (this should end up in a static library) #include "private.h" #include <stdio.h> struct TEST { TEST() { printf("Execute before main and have to be unavailable to the user.\n"); } int a; // Can be modified by the user int b; // Can be modified by the user int c; // Can be modified by the user } TEST; main.c test t; int main( void ) { t.a = 0; t.b = 0; t.c = 0; return 0; } Obviously this code doesn't work... but show what I need to do... Anybody knows how to make this work? I google quite a bit but can't find an answer, any help would be greatly appreciated. TIA!

    Read the article

  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

    Read the article

  • C++ VB6 interfacing problem

    - by Roshan
    Hi, I'm tearing my hair out trying to solve this one, any insights will be much appreciated: I have a C++ exe which acquires data from some hardware in the main thread and processes it in another thread (thread 2). I use a c++ dll to supply some data processing functions which are called from thread 2. I have a requirement to make another set of data processing functions in VB6. I have thus created a VB6 dll, using the add-in vbAdvance to create a standard dll. When I call functions from within this VB6 dll from the main thread, everything works exactly as expected. When I call functions from this VB6 dll in thread 2, I get an access violation. I've traced the error to the CopyMemory command, it would seem that if this is used within the call from the main thread, it's fine but in a call from the process thread, it causes an exception. Why should this be so? As far as I understand, threads share the same address space. Here is the code from my VB dll Public Sub UserFunInterface(ByVal in1ptr As Long, ByVal out1ptr As Long, ByRef nsamples As Long) Dim myarray1() As Single Dim myarray2() As Single Dim i As Integer ReDim myarray1(0 To nsamples - 1) As Single ReDim myarray2(0 To nsamples - 1) As Single With tsa1din(0) ' defined as safearray1d in a global definitions module .cDims = 1 .cbElements = 4 .cElements = nsamples .pvData = in1ptr End With With tsa1dout .cDims = 1 .cbElements = 4 .cElements = nsamples .pvData = out1ptr End With CopyMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray1), VarPtr(tsa1din(0)), 4 CopyMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray2), VarPtr(tsa1dout), 4 For i = 0 To nsamples - 1 myarray2(i) = myarray1(i) * 2 Next i ZeroMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray1), 4 ZeroMemory ByVal VarPtrArray(myarray2), 4 End Sub

    Read the article

  • Macports and virtualenv site-packages Fallback

    - by Streeter
    I've installed django and python as this link suggested with macports. However, I'd like to use virtualenv to install more packages. My understanding is that if I do not pass in the --no-site-packages to virtualenv, I should get the currently installed packages in addition to whatever packages I install into the virtual environment. Is this correct? As an example, I've installed django through macports and then create a virtual environment, but I cannot import django from within that virtual environment: [streeter@mordecai]:~$ mkvirtualenv django-test New python executable in django-test/bin/python Installing setuptools............done. ... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ pip install django-debug-toolbar Downloading/unpacking django-debug-toolbar Downloading django-debug-toolbar-0.8.4.tar.gz (80Kb): 80Kb downloaded Running setup.py egg_info for package django-debug-toolbar Installing collected packages: django-debug-toolbar Running setup.py install for django-debug-toolbar Successfully installed django-debug-toolbar Cleaning up... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ python Python 2.6.1 (r261:67515, Jun 24 2010, 21:47:49) [GCC 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5646)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import django Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named django >>> So I can install packages into the virtual environment, but it isn't picking up the global site-packages. Or am I not doing something correctly / missing something / misunderstanding how virtualenv works? I've got Mac OS 10.6 (Snow Leopard), have updated my macports packages and am using macports' python26 (via python_select python26).

    Read the article

  • Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

    - by IrfanRaza
    Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler goes not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

    Read the article

  • converting code from non-(C)ontinuation (P)assing (S)tyle to CPS

    - by Delirium tremens
    before: function sc_startSiteCompare(){ var visitinguri; var validateduri; var downloaduris; var compareuris; var tryinguri; sc_setstatus('started'); visitinguri = sc_getvisitinguri(); validateduri = sc_getvalidateduri(visitinguri); downloaduris = new Array(); downloaduris = sc_generatedownloaduris(validateduri); compareuris = new Array(); compareuris = sc_generatecompareuris(validateduri); tryinguri = 0; sc_finishSiteCompare(downloaduris, compareuris, tryinguri); } function sc_getvisitinguri() { var visitinguri; visitinguri = content.location.href; return visitinguri; } after (I'm trying): function sc_startSiteCompare(){ var visitinguri; sc_setstatus('started'); visitinguri = sc_getvisitinguri(sc_startSiteComparec1); } function sc_startSiteComparec1 (visitinguri) { var validateduri; validateduri = sc_getvalidateduri(visitinguri, sc_startSiteComparec2); } function sc_startSiteComparec2 (visitinguri, c) { var downloaduris; downloaduris = sc_generatedownloaduris(validateduri, sc_startSiteComparec3); } function sc_startSiteComparec3 (validateduri, c) { var compareuris; compareuris = sc_generatecompareuris(downloaduris, validateduri, sc_startSiteComparec4); } function sc_startSiteComparec4 (downloaduris, compareuris, validateduri, c) { var tryinguri; tryinguri = 0; sc_finishSiteCompare(downloaduris, compareuris, tryinguri); } function sc_getvisitinguri(c) { var visitinguri; visitinguri = content.location.href; c(visitinguri); } I'm having to pass lots of arguments to functions now. global in procedural code look like this / self in modular code. Any difference? Will I really have to use OO now? As a last resort, does CPS have an alternative?

    Read the article

  • Drupal administration theme doesn't apply to Blocks pages (admin/build/block)

    - by hfidgen
    A site I'm creating for a customer in D6 has various images overlaying parts of the main content area. It looks very pretty and they have to be there for the general effect. The problem is, if you use this theme in the administration pages, the images get in the way of everything. My solution was to create a custom admin theme, based on the default one, which has these image areas disabled in the output template files - page.tpl.php The problem is that when you try and edit the blocks page, it uses the default theme and half the blocks admin settings are unclickable behind the images. I KNOW this is by design in Drupal, but it's annoying the hell out of me and is edging towards "bug" rather than "feature" in my mind. It also appears that there is no way of getting around it. You can edit /modules/blocks/block.admin.inc to force Drupal to show the blocks page in the chosen admin theme. BUT whichever changes you then make will not be transferred to the default theme, as Drupal treats each theme separately and each theme can have different block layouts. :x function block_admin_display($theme = NULL) { global $custom_theme; // If non-default theme configuration has been selected, set the custom theme. // $custom_theme = isset($theme) ? $theme : variable_get('theme_default', 'garland'); // Display admin theme $custom_theme = variable_get('admin_theme', '0'); // Fetch and sort blocks $blocks = _block_rehash(); usort($blocks, '_block_compare'); return drupal_get_form('block_admin_display_form', $blocks, $theme); } Can anyone help? the only thing I can think of is to push the $content area well below the areas where the image appear and use blocks only for content display. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How can I keep an event from being delivered to the GUI until my code finished running?

    - by Frerich Raabe
    I installed a global mouse hook function like this: mouseEventHook = ::SetWindowsHookEx( WH_MOUSE_LL, mouseEventHookFn, thisModule, 0 ); The hook function looks like this: RESULT CALLBACK mouseEventHookFn( int code, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam ) { if ( code == HC_ACTION ) { PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT mi = (PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT)lParam; // .. do interesting stuff .. } return ::CallNextHookEx( mouseEventHook, code, wParam, lParam ); } Now, my problem is that I cannot control how long the 'do interesting stuff' part takes exactly. In particular, it might take longer than the LowLevelHooksTimeout defined in the Windows registry. This means that, at least on Windows XP, the system no longer delivers mouse events to my hook function. I'd like to avoid this, but at the same time I need the 'do interesting stuff' part to happen before the target GUI receives the event. I attempted to solve this by doing the 'interesting stuff' work in a separate thread so that the mouseEventHookFn above can post a message to the worker thread and then do a return 1; immediately (which ends the hook function but avoids that the event is handed to the GUI). The idea was that the worker thread, when finished, performs the CallNextHookEx call itself. However, this causes a crash inside of CallNextHookEx (in fact, the crash occurs inside an internal function called PhkNextValid. I assume it's not safe to call CallNextHookEx from outside a hook function, is this true? If so, does anybody else know how I can run code (which needs to interact with the GUI thread of an application) before the GUI receives the event and avoid that my hook function blocks too long?

    Read the article

  • What is the most common way to use a middleware in node with express and connect

    - by Bernhard
    Thinking about the correct way, how to make use of middlewares in a node.js web project using express and connect which is growing up at the moment. Of course there are middlewares right now wich has to pass or extend requests globally but in a lot of cases there are special jobs like prepare incoming data and in this case the middleware would only work for a set of http-methods and routes. I've a component based architecture and each component brings it's own middleware layer which can implement those for requests this component can handle. On app startup any required component is loaded and prepared. Is it a good idea to bind the middleware code execution to URLs to keep cpu load lower or is it better to use middlewares only for global purposes? Here's some dummy how an url related middleware look like. app.use(function(req, res, next) { // Check if requested route is a part of the current component // or if the middleware should be passed on any request if (APP.controller.groups.Component.isExpectedRoute(req) || APP.controller.groups.Component.getConfig().MIDDLEWARE_PASS_ALL === true) { // Execute the midleware code here console.log('This is a route which should be afected by middleware'); ... next(); }else{ next(); } });

    Read the article

  • Opening a xul file in response to a toolbar extension button click

    - by Graham
    I'm currently building my first Firefox extension, and am having a little difficulty with one piece of functionality. I'd like to open a new browser tab in response to a button click on the toolbar. The new tab should contain the contents of a webpage, together with some extra buttons. At the moment I've created a separate xul file for the contents of the new tab: <?xml version="1.0"?> <?xml-stylesheet href="chrome://global/skin/" type="text/css"?> <window id="myapp-report-window" title="Example 4.5.1" xmlns:html="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://myapp/content/main.js" /> <toolbox> <toolbar id="nav-toolbar"> <toolbarbutton label="This-is-going-to-do-some-stuff"/> </toolbar> </toolbox> <iframe id="myapp-report-frame" flex="1"/> <script type="text/javascript"> function loadPage(url){ document.getElementById('myapp-report-frame').setAttribute('src',url); } </script> </window> This xul file is launched via this javascript, referenced from the main myapptoolbar.xul: gBrowser.selectedTab = gBrowser.addTab('chrome://myapp/content/report.xul'); var newTabBrowser = gBrowser.getBrowserForTab(gBrowser.selectedTab); newTabBrowser.addEventListener("load", function(){ loadPage('http://www.somedynamicallysetwebsite.com'); }, true); The problem that I'm having is that the loadPage function is not being found, so the src attribute of the iframe is never set. I'm sure it's some silly scoping problem, but I'm very new to firefox extensions (day 2!) so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks for looking! Graham

    Read the article

  • How should I pass the translated text to my object in my multilingual application?

    - by boatingcow
    Up until now, I have maintained a 'dictionary' table in my database, for example: +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | phrase | en | fr | etc... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | generated | Generated in %1$01.2f seconds at %2$s | Créée en %1$01.2f secondes à %2$s aujourd'hui | ... | | submit | Submit... | Envoyer... | ... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ I'll then select all rows from the database for the column that matches the locale we're interested in (or read the cache from a file to speed db lookup) and dump the dictionary into an array called $lng. Then I'll have HTML helper objects like this in my view: $html->input(array('type' => 'submit', 'value' => $lng['submit'], etc...)); ... $html->div(array('value' => sprintf($lng['generated'], $generated, date('H:i')), etc...)); The translations can appear in PDF, XLS and AJAX responses too. The problem with my approach so far is that I now have loads of global $lng; in every class where there is a function that spits out UI code.. How do other people get the translation into the object? Is it one scenario where globals aren't actually that bad? Would it be madness to create a class with accessors when the dictionary terms are all static?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189  | Next Page >