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  • Counting entries in a list of dictionaries: for loop vs. list comprehension with map(itemgetter)

    - by Dennis Williamson
    In a Python program I'm writing I've compared using a for loop and increment variables versus list comprehension with map(itemgetter) and len() when counting entries in dictionaries which are in a list. It takes the same time using a each method. Am I doing something wrong or is there a better approach? Here is a greatly simplified and shortened data structure: list = [ {'key1': True, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': True, 'filenotfound': 'biscuits and gravy'}, {'key1': False, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': True, 'filenotfound': 'peaches and cream'}, {'key1': True, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': False, 'filenotfound': 'Abbott and Costello'}, {'key1': False, 'dontcare': False, 'ignoreme': True, 'key2': False, 'filenotfound': 'over and under'}, {'key1': True, 'dontcare': True, 'ignoreme': False, 'key2': True, 'filenotfound': 'Scotch and... well... neat, thanks'} ] Here is the for loop version: #!/usr/bin/env python # Python 2.6 # count the entries where key1 is True # keep a separate count for the subset that also have key2 True key1 = key2 = 0 for dictionary in list: if dictionary["key1"]: key1 += 1 if dictionary["key2"]: key2 += 1 print "Counts: key1: " + str(key1) + ", subset key2: " + str(key2) Output for the data above: Counts: key1: 3, subset key2: 2 Here is the other, perhaps more Pythonic, version: #!/usr/bin/env python # Python 2.6 # count the entries where key1 is True # keep a separate count for the subset that also have key2 True from operator import itemgetter KEY1 = 0 KEY2 = 1 getentries = itemgetter("key1", "key2") entries = map(getentries, list) key1 = len([x for x in entries if x[KEY1]]) key2 = len([x for x in entries if x[KEY1] and x[KEY2]]) print "Counts: key1: " + str(key1) + ", subset key2: " + str(key2) Output for the data above (same as before): Counts: key1: 3, subset key2: 2 I'm a tiny bit surprised these take the same amount of time. I wonder if there's something faster. I'm sure I'm overlooking something simple. One alternative I've considered is loading the data into a database and doing SQL queries, but the data doesn't need to persist and I'd have to profile the overhead of the data transfer, etc., and a database may not always be available. I have no control over the original form of the data. The code above is not going for style points.

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  • Hibernate Query for a List of Objects that matches a List of Objects' ids

    - by sal
    Given a classes Foo, Bar which have hibernate mappings to tables Foo, A, B and C public class Foo { Integer aid; Integer bid; Integer cid; ...; } public class Bar { A a; B b; C c; ...; } I build a List fooList of an arbitrary size and I would like to use hibernate to fetch List where the resulting list will look something like this: Bar[1] = [X1,Y2,ZA,...] Bar[2] = [X1,Y2,ZB,...] Bar[3] = [X1,Y2,ZC,...] Bar[4] = [X1,Y3,ZD,...] Bar[5] = [X2,Y4,ZE,...] Bar[6] = [X2,Y4,ZF,...] Bar[7] = [X2,Y5,ZG,...] Bar[8] = ... Where each Xi, Yi and Zi represents a unique object. I know I can iterate fooList and fetch each List and call barList.addAll(...) to build the result list with something like this: List<bar> barList.addAll(s.createQuery("from Bar bar where bar.aid = :aid and ... ") .setEntity("aid", foo.getAid()) .setEntity("bid", foo.getBid()) .setEntity("cid", foo.getCid()) .list(); ); Is there any easier way, ideally one that makes better use of hibernate and make a minimal number of database calls? Am I missing something? Is hibernate not the right tool for this?

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  • "Android Create" call fails in windows 7 - missing JDK

    - by reuscam
    I'm having a problem getting my android dev environment setup in Windows 7. I follow the instructions here, as well as several environment sublinks. I am using Eclipse with the Android plugin. I have installed the Java JDK several times, in various locations (jdk-6u20-windows-i586.exe) - but I am obviously missing something. Every time I run "android create avd --target 2 --name my_avd" I get an error: C:\Users\andrew>android create avd --target 2 --name my_avd WARNING: Java not found in your path. Checking it it's installed in C:\Program Files\Java instead. ERROR: No suitable Java found. In order to properly use the Android Developer Tools, you need a suitable version of Java installed on your system. We recommend that you install the JDK version of JavaSE, available here: http://java.sun.com/javase/downloads/ You can find the complete Android SDK requirements here: http://developer.android.com/sdk/requirements.html This error message is the reason for me installing the JDK several times over. First I tried installing to a location on my e: drive. I then moved it to the default loc (program files (x86)\java\jdk.6.something. I also tried forcing it to go into the program files\ path, but it still automatically installs into the (x86) path. I have added the install path to my path environment variable every single time, yet I still continue to get this error. My suspicion is that windows 7 and the android tools are not playing together well in terms of finding the JDK, but who knows, it may be something entirely different. If you have seen this error before, I would appreciate a hint.

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  • MS Acess SQL - where clause to get year from date based on the year - data located in MS access form

    - by primus285
    OK, back again. I have a problem getting a drop down list to populate based on information in two fields. I have got the SQL correct as to Select just one year if I put DateValue('01/01/2001') in both places, but I am trying now to get it to grab the year data from the MS access form - another drop down named "cboYear". I'd hate to have to do something in VB, unless necessary. so far I have gotten this to pull up something (its always incorrect) SELECT DISTINCT Database_New.ASEC FROM Database_New WHERE Database_New.Date>=DateValue('01/01/' & [cboYear]) And Database_New.Date<=DateValue('12/31/' & [cboYear]); and SELECT DISTINCT Database_New.ASEC FROM Database_New WHERE Database_New.Date>=DateValue('01/01/' + [cboYear]) And Database_New.Date<=DateValue('12/31/' + [cboYear]); SELECT DISTINCT Database_New.ASEC FROM Database_New WHERE Database_New.Date>=DateValue('01/01/' AND [cboYear]) And Database_New.Date<=DateValue('12/31/' AND [cboYear]); both give errors saying that it is too complex to compute. Its probably something simple, but where do I go from here?

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  • How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

    - by ShaneC
    I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

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  • SQLAlchemy Expression Language problem

    - by Torkel
    I'm trying to convert this to something sqlalchemy expression language compatible, I don't know if it's possible out of box and are hoping someone more experienced can help me along. The backend is PostgreSQL and if I can't make it as an expression I'll create a string instead. SELECT DISTINCT date_trunc('month', x.x) as date, COALESCE(b.res1, 0) AS res1, COALESCE(b.res2, 0) AS res2 FROM generate_series( date_trunc('year', now() - interval '1 years'), date_trunc('year', now() + interval '1 years'), interval '1 months' ) AS x LEFT OUTER JOIN( SELECT date_trunc('month', access_datetime) AS when, count(NULLIF(resource_id != 1, TRUE)) AS res1, count(NULLIF(resource_id != 2, TRUE)) AS res2 FROM tracking_entries GROUP BY date_trunc('month', access_datetime) ) AS b ON (date_trunc('month', x.x) = b.when) First of all I got a class TrackingEntry mapped to tracking_entries, the select statement within the outer joined can be converted to something like (pseudocode):: from sqlalchemy.sql import func, select from datetime import datetime, timedelta stmt = select([ func.date_trunc('month', TrackingEntry.resource_id).label('when'), func.count(func.nullif(TrackingEntry.resource_id != 1, True)).label('res1'), func.count(func.nullif(TrackingEntry.resource_id != 2, True)).label('res2') ], group_by=[func.date_trunc('month', TrackingEntry.access_datetime), ]) Considering the outer select statement I have no idea how to build it, my guess is something like: outer = select([ func.distinct(func.date_trunc('month', ?)).label('date'), func.coalesce(?.res1, 0).label('res1'), func.coalesce(?.res2, 0).label('res2') ], from_obj=[ func.generate_series( datetime.now(), datetime.now() + timedelta(days=365), timedelta(days=1) ).label(x) ]) Then I suppose I have to link those statements together without using foreign keys: outer.outerjoin(stmt???).??(func.date_trunc('month', ?.?), ?.when) Anyone got any suggestions or even better a solution?

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  • architecture and tools for a remote control application?

    - by slothbear
    I'm working on the design of a remote control application. From my iPhone or a web browser, I'll send a few commands. Soon my home computer will perform the commands and send back results. I know there are remote desktop apps, but I want something programmable, something simpler, and something that I wrote. My current direction is to use Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS) as the message bus. The iPhone places some messages in a queue. My local Java/JRuby program notices the messages on the queue, performs the work and sends back status via a different queue. This will be a very low-volume application. At $1.00 for a million requests (plus a handful of data transfer charges), Amazon SQS looks a lot more affordable than having my own server of any type. And super reliable, that's important for me too. Are there better/standard toolkits or architectures for this kind of remote control? Cost is not a big issue, but I prefer the tons I learn by doing it myself. I'm moderately concerned about security, but doubt it will be a problem. The list of commands recognized will be very short, and only recognized in specific contexts. No "erase hard drive" stuff. update: I'll probably distribute these programs to some other people who want the same function, but who don't have Amazon SQS accounts. For now, they'll use anonymous access to my queues, with random 80-character queue names.

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  • Proper way of naming your Java Google App Engine Project

    - by Saif Bechan
    I am starting out with Google's App Engine in Java. I have seen the tutorial video but I do not understand the naming of the project package. It is going to be a guestbook, that's why the name is guestbook, I understand that part. But after that I see package name. 1)Is that something you import into the project, or is is something you create. I have seen this a lot in projects, something like com.xxx.xxx. 2)How do you name this type of thing or is this an import. I have looked at another tutorial there they take the naming to a whole new level. The name of both the project and the package is de.vogella.gae.java.todo. 3)What does this mean in java terms. 4)Maybe one of you can help me with this specific project I want to start. I want to create a Google App project that for now only serves static files. I will leave the project empty and just put all my static files in the war directory of the project. I want the domain name to be mydomainstatic

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  • How can I make keyword order more relevant in my search?

    - by Atomiton
    In my database, I have a keywords field that stores a comma-delimited list of keywords. For example, a Shrek doll might have the following keywords: ogre, green, plush, hero, boys' toys A "Beanie Baby" doll ( that happens to be an ogre ) might have: beanie baby, kids toys, beanbag toys, soft, infant, ogre (That's a completely contrived example.) What I'd like to do is if the consumer searches for "ogre" I'd like the "Shrek" doll to come up higher in the search results. My content administrator feels that if the keyword is earlier in the list, it should get a higher ranking. ( This makes sense to me and it makes it easy for me to let them control the search result relevance ). Here's a simplified query: SELECT p.ProductID AS ContentID , p.ProductName AS Title , p.ProductCode AS Subtitle , 100 AS Rank , p.ProductKeywords AS Keywords FROM Products AS p WHERE FREETEXT( p.ProductKeywords, @SearchPredicate ) I'm thinking something along the lines of replacing the RANK with: , 200 - INDEXOF(@SearchTerm) AS Rank This "should" rank the keyword results by their relevance I know INDEXOF isn't a SQL command... but it's something LIKE that I would like to accomplish. Am I approaching this the right way? Is it possible to do something like this? Does this make sense?

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  • handling pointer to member functions within hierachy in C++

    - by anatoli
    Hi, I'm trying to code the following situation: I have a base class providing a framework for handling events. I'm trying to use an array of pointer-to-member-functions for that. It goes as following: class EH { // EventHandler virtual void something(); // just to make sure we get RTTI public: typedef void (EH::*func_t)(); protected: func_t funcs_d[10]; protected: void register_handler(int event_num, func_t f) { funcs_d[event_num] = f; } public: void handle_event(int event_num) { (this->*(funcs_d[event_num]))(); } }; Then the users are supposed to derive other classes from this one and provide handlers: class DEH : public EH { public: typedef void (DEH::*func_t)(); void handle_event_5(); DEH() { func_t f5 = &DEH::handle_event_5; register_handler(5, f5); // doesn't compile ........ } }; This code wouldn't compile, since DEH::func_t cannot be converted to EH::func_t. It makes perfect sense to me. In my case the conversion is safe since the object under this is really DEH. So I'd like to have something like that: void EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper() { DEH *p = dynamic_cast<DEH *>(this); assert(p != NULL); p->handle_event_5(); } and then instead of func_t f5 = &DEH::handle_event_5; register_handler(5, f5); // doesn't compile in DEH::DEH() put register_handler(5, &EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper); So, finally the question (took me long enough...): Is there a way to create those wrappers (like EH::DEH_handle_event_5_wrapper) automatically? Or to do something similar? What other solutions to this situation are out there? Thanks.

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  • how to get child members value from dynamically casted class?

    - by Baka-Maru Lama
    Well I'm tring to get class members values from a dynamically casted class but I'm unable to find its child class members values. Right now I'm getting TotalWeight members property, but I also want to get child member property of AnotherClass like AnotherClass.child. How can I get those members? string ClassName="something"; Type types = Type.GetType(ClassName, false); var d = from source in types.GetMembers().ToList() where source.MemberType == MemberTypes.Property select source; List<MemberInfo> members = d.Where(memberInfo => d.Select(c => c.Name) .ToList() .Contains(memberInfo.Name)) .ToList(); PropertyInfo propertyInfo; object value; foreach (var memberInfo in members) { propertyInfo = typeof(T).GetProperty(memberInfo.Name); if (myobj.GetType().GetProperty(memberInfo.Name) != null) { value = myobj.GetType() .GetProperty(memberInfo.Name) .GetValue(myobj, null); //how to get child members value here? } } //Where class something has member public class something { private decimal _totalWeight; private Anotherclass _another; public decimal TotalWeight { get { return this._totalWeight; } set { this._totalWeight = value; } } public Anotherclass Another { get { return this._another; } set { this._another= value; } } }

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  • Jquery Accordion : set action to a specific element inside header

    - by J.Tay
    by default, if we have something like this as a Header in jQuery Accordion : <h3> <div class="1">TEXT</div> <div class="2">ICON</div> <div class="3">BUTTON</div> </h3> by clicking anywhere on this , accordion works and toggle the next element and ... the question is , how can we set an option and select a specific element ( like: 'div' with class '1' ) to click on it to and toggle the accordion. i mean i don't want the whole Header remain click able. i just want to click on a icon or div o something inside the header and toggle open/close the accordion. thank you Update 1 : HTML : <div id="testAcc"> <h3> <div class="one">Text</div> <div class="two">Icon</div> <div class="three">Button</div> </h3> <div class="accBody"> text text text text text text text text text text </div> <h3> <div class="one">Text</div> <div class="two">Icon</div> <div class="three">Button</div> </h3> <div class="accBody"> text text text text text text text text text text </div> </div> JS : $('#testAcc').accordion({ autoHeight: false, header: 'h3', collapsible: 'ture', }); this codes working fine. but i want to use something like ( header: 'h3.one' ) means i want to set a specific class and element inside the header , then if user click ONLY on that element, the accordion will open or close ...

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  • convert htmlelement to string for comparison javascript

    - by Jamex
    Hi, I am using a function that obtains a target element id at onclick. Example, if I click on the text element that has the id of 'help'. var click = (e && e.target) || (event && event.srcElement); The var click would contain the ref to the id of "help". I want to compare the var click to the string 'help' using the if statement below. if (click == 'about') {do something} The comparison does not work because the var click is not a string. When I use the alert(click) to debug, it shows click as "object HTMLElement". How would you compare whether the id 'help' is obtained from var click? I could write out something like if (click == document.getElementById('help')) {do something} but that would make a long statement. also if the var click is document.getElementById('help'), how would you make a new var "show" as document.getElementById('showhelp') basically, I want to use the same function to generate dynamic responses to each element that was clicked on, and not having to create a separate function for each element.

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  • Expanding DIV slides behind DIV beneath it...

    - by Paddy
    I'm not sure that I'm going to get an answer here, as I'd need to post a lot of CSS and html to get a working recreation, however... I have structure something like this: <fieldset> <legend>Test A</legend> <h3>Test A</h3> <p> Something here. </p> <div style="display:hidden;">I'm dynamically displayed</div> </fieldset> <fieldset> <legend>Test B</legend> <h3>Test B</h3> <p> Something B here. </p> </fieldset> I have code that toggles the display of my hidden div using jQuery and .show(). This works fine in IE8, firefox and Safari, but when I stick IE8 into compatibility mode, then the first fieldset (Test A) will expand, but the expansion happens behind the second fieldset, which doesn't move (i.e. it slides down behind it). I have quite a bit of CSS in use here, and I'm going to have to go back and unpick the whold lot, which isn't a fun idea. If anybody has any idea of one of the IE7 rendering issues that might be affecting this, then I'd very much appreciate it. (note that there is more to the content in these fieldsets than shown, including floated divs). Quick note - if I stick IE7 into quirks mode, it works (but wrecks the rest of my layout) - in standards mode, I get the above behaviour.

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  • Producer consumer with qualifications

    - by tgguy
    I am new to clojure and am trying to understand how to properly use its concurrency features, so any critique/suggestions is appreciated. So I am trying to write a small test program in clojure that works as follows: there 5 producers and 2 consumers a producer waits for a random time and then pushes a number onto a shared queue. a consumer should pull a number off the queue as soon as the queue is nonempty and then sleep for a short time to simulate doing work the consumers should block when the queue is empty producers should block when the queue has more than 4 items in it to prevent it from growing huge Here is my plan for each step above: the producers and consumers will be agents that don't really care for their state (just nil values or something); i just use the agents to send-off a "consumer" or "producer" function to do at some time. Then the shared queue will be (def queue (ref [])). Perhaps this should be an atom though? in the "producer" agent function, simply (Thread/sleep (rand-int 1000)) and then (dosync (alter queue conj (rand-int 100))) to push onto the queue. I am thinking to make the consumer agents watch the queue for changes with add-watcher. Not sure about this though..it will wake up the consumers on any change, even if the change came from a consumer pulling something off (possibly making it empty) . Perhaps checking for this in the watcher function is sufficient. Another problem I see is that if all consumers are busy, then what happens when a producer adds something new to the queue? Does the watched event get queued up on some consumer agent or does it disappear? see above I really don't know how to do this. I heard that clojure's seque may be useful, but I couldn't find enough doc on how to use it and my initial testing didn't seem to work (sorry don't have the code on me anymore)

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  • SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

    - by TheBlueSky
    Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

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  • RegisterStartupScript doesn't appear to be working on page postback within update panel

    - by Jen
    OK - so am working on a system that uses a custom datepicker control (I know there are other ones out there.. but for consistency would like to understand why my current issue is happening and fix it). So its a custom user control with a textbox and on Page_PreRender does this: protected void Page_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { string clientScript = @" $(function(){ $('#" + this.Date1.ClientID + @"').datepicker({dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy', constrainInput: true}); });"; Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), this.ClientID, clientScript, true); //Type t = this.GetType(); //if (!Page.ClientScript.IsStartupScriptRegistered(t, this.ClientID)) //{ // Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(t, this.ClientID, clientScript, true); //} } Ignore commented out stuff - that was me trying something different - didn't help. My issue is that this all works fine when I load the page. But if I select something from a dropdownlist causing a page postback - when I click into my date fields they stop working. As in I should be able to click into the textbox and a nice calendar control appears. But after postback there is no nice calendar control appearing! It's currently all wrapped (in the hosting page) inside an update panel. So I comment out the update panel stuff and the dates are working after page postback. So it appears to be something related to that update panel. Any suggestions please? Thanks!!

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  • AppFabric caching's local cache isnt working for us... What are we doing wrong?

    - by Olly
    We are using appfabric as the 2ndlevel cache for an NHibernate asp.net application comprising a customer facing website and an admin website. They are both connected to the same cache so when admin updates something, the customer facing site is updated. It seems to be working OK - we have a CacheCLuster on a seperate server and all is well but we want to enable localcache to get better performance, however, it dosnt seem to be working. We have enabled it like this... bool UseLocalCache = int LocalCacheObjectCount = int.MaxValue; TimeSpan LocalCacheDefaultTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(3); DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy = DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy.TimeoutBased; if (UseLocalCache) { configuration.LocalCacheProperties = new DataCacheLocalCacheProperties( LocalCacheObjectCount, LocalCacheDefaultTimeout, LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy ); // configuration.NotificationProperties = new DataCacheNotificationProperties(500, TimeSpan.FromSeconds(300)); } Initially we tried using a timeout invalidation policy (3mins) and our app felt like it was running faster. HOWEVER, we noticed that if we changed something in the admin site, it was immediatley updated in the live site. As we are using timeouts not notifications, this demonstrates that the local cache isnt being queried (or is, but is always missing). The cache.GetType().Name returns "LocalCache" - so the factory has made a local cache. Running "Get-Cache-Statistics MyCache" in PS on my dev environment (asp.net app running local from vs2008, cache cluster running on a seperate w2k8 machine) show a handful of Request Counts. However, on the Production environment, the Request Count increases dramaticaly. We tried following the method here to se the cache cliebt-server traffic... http://blogs.msdn.com/b/appfabriccat/archive/2010/09/20/appfabric-cache-peeking-into-client-amp-server-wcf-communication.aspx but the log file had nothing but the initial header in it - i.e no loggin either. I cant find anything in SO or Google. Have we done something wrong? Have we got a screwy install of AppFabric - we installed it via WebPlatform Installer - I think? (note: the IIS box running ASp.net isnt in yhe cluster - it is just the client). Any insights greatfully received!

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  • How to re-prompt after a trap return in bash?

    - by verbose
    I have a script that is supposed to trap SIGTERM and SIGTSTP. This is what I have in the main block: trap 'killHandling' TERM And in the function: killHandling () { echo received kill signal, ignoring return } ... and similar for SIGINT. The problem is one of user interface. The script prompts the user for some input, and if the SIGTERM or SIGINT occurs when the script is waiting for input, it's confusing. Here is the output in that case: Enter something: # SIGTERM received received kill signal, ignoring # shell waits at blank line for user input, user gets confused # user hits "return", which then gets read as blank input from the user # bad things happen because of the blank input I have definitely seen scripts which handle this more elegantly, like so: Enter something: # SIGTERM received received kill signal, ignoring Enter something: # re-prompts user for user input, user is not confused What is the mechanism used to accomplish the latter? Unfortunately I can't simply change my trap code to do the re-prompt as the script prompts the user for several things and what the prompt says is context-dependent. And there has to be a better way than writing context-dependent trap functions. I'd be very grateful for any pointers. Thanks!

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  • What is the fastest way to find duplicates in multiple BIG txt files?

    - by user2950750
    I am really in deep water here and I need a lifeline. I have 10 txt files. Each file has up to 100.000.000 lines of data. Each line is simply a number representing something else. Numbers go up to 9 digits. I need to (somehow) scan these 10 files and find the numbers that appear in all 10 files. And here comes the tricky part. I have to do it in less than 2 seconds. I am not a developer, so I need an explanation for dummies. I have done enough research to learn that hash tables and map reduce might be something that I can make use of. But can it really be used to make it this fast, or do I need more advanced solutions? I have also been thinking about cutting up the files into smaller files. To that 1 file with 100.000.000 lines is transformed into 100 files with 1.000.000 lines. But I do not know what is best: 10 files with 100 million lines or 1000 files with 1 million lines? When I try to open the 100 million line file, it takes forever. So I think, maybe, it is just too big to be used. But I don't know if you can write code that will scan it without opening. Speed is the most important factor in this, and I need to know if it can be done as fast as I need it, or if I have to store my data in another way, for example, in a database like mysql or something. Thank you in advance to anybody that can give some good feedback.

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  • Request-local storage in ASP.NET (accessible to the code from IHttpModule implementation)

    - by IgorK
    I need to have some object hanging around between two events I'm interested in: PreRequestHandlerExecute (where I create an instance of my object and want to save it) and PostRequestHandlerExecute (where I want to get to the object). After the second event the object is not needed for my purposes and should be discarded either by storage or my explicit action. So the ideal context where my object should be stored is per request (with guaranteed no sharing issues when different threads are serving requests... or processes/servers :) ) Take into account that actual implementation I can do is being made from a HttpModule and is supposed to be a pluggable solution for already written web apps (so the option to provide some state using static/instance variables in Global.asax doesn't look good - I will have to modify Global.asax on every web application). Cache seems to be too broad for this use. I tried to see whether httpContext.Application (of type HttpApplicationState) is good for me or not, but cannot get whether it is exactly per HttpApplication instance or not (AFAIK you can have several instances of HttpApplications used on different threads and therefore serving several requests simultaneously - then using storage shared between threads will not work correctly; otherwise I would use it because one HttpApplication instance serves exactly one request at a time). Something could be done with storing state on the HttpModule instances if I know for sure that it's exactly bound 1-to-1 with every HttpApplication instance running (but again I need a proof that HttpApplication instance is 1-to-1 with my HttpModule's instance). Any valuable and reputable links on these topics are much appreciated... Would be great to find something particularly well-suited for per request situation (because otherwise I may end up with something ulgy... probably either some 'broader' scoped storage and some hacks to have different keys in the storage for different requests, OR using a thread-local thing and in this way commit to the theory that IIS/ASP.NET will not ever serve first event from one thread and the second event from the other thread and so on)

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  • jquery lightbox multiple items to look like mac dashboard

    - by Don
    Hope the title says it all... I'm wondering if it's possible in any existing lightbox to pop up a look similar to the mac dashboard where multiple divs could be "on" in the front with the main webpage with a gray overlay. Basically something where a user clicks an icon on the main webpage to call, and then 4 separate content boxes are popped on top, but not in a window like a gallery. I'm thinking the top background used could be set to transparent and the individual items could be divs on the popped area, but before I reinvent the wheel, I thought I'd see if there's something like this that I just haven't found in my searches. UPDATE: 1/7/2011 I ended up using colorbox with a background behind my divs. It doesn't look like the mac with items having the bg behind them showing between them, but after talking to the designer I'm working with, that wasn't something they really needed anyhow. I think it MAY be possible changing some of the CSS though for the bg of the "popped" window. Colorbox seems to be pretty nice about making it clear what the CSS is doing and there are multiple example skins. Just my $0.02...

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  • Sending a list of mails with SmtpClient

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    I use SendCompletedEventHandler of SmtpClient when sending a list of emails. The SendCompletedEventHandler is only called when have already sent all emails in the list. I expexted, that SendCompletedEventHandler is called one an email is send. Is there something wrong in my code? public void SendAllNewsletters(List<string> recipients) { string mailText = "My Tex"; foreach(string recipient in recipients) { //if this loop takes 10min then the first call to //SendCompletedCallback is after 10min SendNewsletter(mailText,recipient); } } public bool SendNewsletter(string mailText , string emailaddress) { SmtpClient sc = new SmtpClient(_smtpServer, _smtpPort); System.Net.NetworkCredential SMTPUserInfo = new System.Net.NetworkCredential(_smtpuser, _smtppassword); sc.Credentials = SMTPUserInfo; sc.SendCompleted += new SendCompletedEventHandler(SendCompletedCallback); MailMessage mm = null; mm = new MailMessage(mailText, emailaddress); mm.IsBodyHtml = true; mm.Priority = MailPriority.Normal; mm.Subject = "Something"; mm.Body = "Something"; mm.SubjectEncoding = Encoding.UTF8; mm.BodyEncoding = Encoding.UTF8; //Mail string userState = emailaddress; sc.SendAsync(mm, userState); return true; } public void SendCompletedCallback(object sender, AsyncCompletedEventArgs e) { // Get the unique identifier for this asynchronous operation. String token = (string)e.UserState; if (e.Error != null) { _news.SetNewsletterEmailsisSent(e.UserState.ToString(), _newslettername, false, e.Error.Message); } else { _news.SetNewsletterEmailsisSent(e.UserState.ToString(), _newslettername, true, string.Empty); } }

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  • Deal with undefined values in code or in the template?

    - by David
    I'm writing a web application (in Python, not that it matters). One of the features is that people can leave comments on things. I have a class for comments, basically like so: class Comment: user = ... # other stuff where user is an instance of another class, class User: name = ... # other stuff And of course in my template, I have <div>${comment.user.name}</div> Problem: Let's say I allow people to post comments anonymously. In that case comment.user is None (undefined), and of course accessing comment.user.name is going to raise an error. What's the best way to deal with that? I see three possibilities: Use a conditional in the template to test for that case and display something different. This is the most versatile solution, since I can change the way anonymous comments are displayed to, say, "Posted anonymously" (instead of "Posted by ..."), but I've often been told that templates should be mindless display machines and not include logic like that. Also, other people might wind up writing alternate templates for the same application, and I feel like I should be making things as easy as possible for the template writer. Implement an accessor method for the user property of a Comment that returns a dummy user object when the real user is undefined. This dummy object would have user.name = 'Anonymous' or something like that and so the template could access it and print its name with no error. Put an actual record in my database corresponding to a user with user.name = Anonymous (or something like that), and just assign that user to any comment posted when nobody's logged in. I know I've seen some real-world systems that operate this way. (phpBB?) Is there a prevailing wisdom among people who write these sorts of systems about which of these (or some other solution) is the best? Any pitfalls I should watch out for if I go one way vs. another? Whoever gives the best explanation gets the checkmark.

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  • Rails ActionCaching with Memcached fragment hit but action gets called anyway

    - by baldtrol
    Hi stackoverflow. I'm running into something strange. I'm using memcached with a caches_action setup. I'm doing this in 4 different controllers. In two of them, it works flawlessly (so far), though admittedly those two controllers are less complicated than the two in which it doesn't seem to work. I'm doing something like this: caches_action :index, :expires_in => 6.hours, :cache_path => Proc.new {|controller| controller.send(:generate_cache_path) }, :layout => false, :if => Proc.new { |c| c.request.format.js? } The intention behind the above is to cache some results that are dependent on the params. my :generate_cache_path method just takes into account some params and session vars and creates a unique key for memcached. I can see in memcached -vv that this is working. What's weird is that I get my request from the rails app for a given key, and I see memcached (with -vv) get the request and send back the response. But then my action runs anyway, and a new value is then set for the same key, even when all the same params are given. I can watch it happen. In the controllers where everything is working, the request is made for the fragment, it gets it, and the action in the controller is halted, and the fragment is passed back. These lines come from the exact same request: Cached fragment hit: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js And then: Cached fragment miss: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js I don't know what to make of it, or if I'm doing something stupid. Any help or ideas where I could start looking for trouble would be greatly appreciated.

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