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  • Arguments for moving from LINQtoSQL to Nhibernate?

    - by sah302
    Backstory: Hi all, I just spent a lot of time reading many of the LINQ vs Nhibernate threads here and on other sites. I work in a small development team of 4 people and we don't even have really any super experienced developers. We work for a small company that has a lot of technical needs but not enough developers to implement them (and hiring more is out of the question right now). Typically our projects (which individually are fairly small) have been coded separately and weren't really layered in anyway, code wasn't re-used, no class libraries, and we just use the LINQtoSQL .dbml files for our pojects, we really don't even use objects but pass around values and stuff, the only time we use objects is when inserting to a database (heck not even querying since you don't need to assign it to a type and can just bind to gridview). Despite all this as I said our company has a lot of technical needs, no one could come to us for a year and we would have plenty of work to implement requested features. Well I have decided to change that a bit first by creating class libraries and actually adding layers to our applications. I am trying to meet these guys halfway by still using LINQtoSQL as the ORM yet and still use VB as the language. However I am finding it a b***h of a time dealing with so many thing in LINQtoSQL that I found easy in Nhibernate (automatic handling of the session, criteria creation easier than expression trees, generic an dynamic querying easier etc.) So... Question: How can I convince my lead developers and other senior programmers that switching to Nhibernate is a good thing? That being in control of our domain objects is a good thing? That being able to implement interfaces is a good? I've tried exlpaining the advantages of this before but it's not understood by them because they've never programmed in a true OO & layered way. Also one of the counter arguments to this I can see is sqlMetal generates those classes automatically and therefore it saves a lot of time. I can't really counter that other than saying spending more time on infrastructure to make it more scalable and flexible is good, but they can't see how. Again, I know the features and advantages (somewhat enough I believe) of each, but I need arguments applicable to my context, hence why I provided the context. I just am not a very good arguer I guess. (Caveat: For all the LINQtoSQL lovers, I may just not be super proficient as LINQ, but I find it very cumbersome that you are required to download some extra library for dynamic queries which don't by default support guid comparisons, and I also find the way of updating entitites to be cumbersome as well in terms of data context managing, so it could just be that I suck hehe.)

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  • What's the best Scala build system?

    - by gatoatigrado
    I've seen questions about IDE's here -- Which is the best IDE for Scala development? and What is the current state of tooling for Scala?, but I've had mixed experiences with IDEs. Right now, I'm using the Eclipse IDE with the automatic workspace refresh option, and KDE 4's Kate as my text editor. Here are some of the problems I'd like to solve: use my own editor IDEs are really geared at everyone using their components. I like Kate better, but the refresh system is very annoying (it doesn't use inotify, rather, maybe a 10s polling interval). The reason I don't use the built-in text editor is because broken auto-complete functionalities cause the IDE to hang for maybe 10s. rebuild only modified files The Eclipse build system is broken. It doesn't know when to rebuild classes. I find myself almost half of the time going to project-clean. Worse, it seems even after it has finished building my project, a few minutes later it will pop up with some bizarre error (edit - these errors appear to be things that were previously solved with a project clean, but then come back up...). Finally, setting "Preferences / Continue launch if project contains errors" to "prompt" seems to have no effect for Scala projects (i.e. it always launches even if there are errors). build customization I can use the "nightly" release, but I'll want to modify and use my own Scala builds, not the compiler that's built into the IDE's plugin. It would also be nice to pass [e.g.] -Xprint:jvm to the compiler (to print out lowered code). fast compiling Though Eclipse doesn't always build right, it does seem snappy -- even more so than fsc. I looked at Ant and Maven, though haven't employed either yet (I'll also need to spend time solving #3 and #4). I wanted to see if anyone has other suggestions before I spend time getting a suboptimal build system working. Thanks in advance! UPDATE - I'm now using Maven, passing a project as a compiler plugin to it. It seems fast enough; I'm not sure what kind of jar caching Maven does. A current repository for Scala 2.8.0 is available [link]. The archetypes are very cool, and cross-platform support seems very good. However, about compile issues, I'm not sure if fsc is actually fixed, or my project is stable enough (e.g. class names aren't changing) -- running it manually doesn't bother me as much. If you'd like to see an example, feel free to browse the pom.xml files I'm using [github]. UPDATE 2 - from benchmarks I've seen, Daniel Spiewak is right that buildr's faster than Maven (and, if one is doing incremental changes, Maven's 10 second latency gets annoying), so if one can craft a compatible build file, then it's probably worth it...

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  • Under what circumstances is an SqlConnection automatically enlisted in an ambient TransactionScope T

    - by Triynko
    What does it mean for an SqlConnection to be "enlisted" in a transaction? Does it simply mean that commands I execute on the connection will participate in the transaction? If so, under what circumstances is an SqlConnection automatically enlisted in an ambient TransactionScope Transaction? See questions in code comments. My guess to each question's answer follows each question in parenthesis. Scenario 1: Opening connections INSIDE a transaction scope using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) using (SqlConnection conn = ConnectToDB()) { // Q1: Is connection automatically enlisted in transaction? (Yes?) // // Q2: If I open (and run commands on) a second connection now, // with an identical connection string, // what, if any, is the relationship of this second connection to the first? // // Q3: Will this second connection's automatic enlistment // in the current transaction scope cause the transaction to be // escalated to a distributed transaction? (Yes?) } Scenario 2: Using connections INSIDE a transaction scope that were opened OUTSIDE of it //Assume no ambient transaction active now SqlConnection new_or_existing_connection = ConnectToDB(); //or passed in as method parameter using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { // Connection was opened before transaction scope was created // Q4: If I start executing commands on the connection now, // will it automatically become enlisted in the current transaction scope? (No?) // // Q5: If not enlisted, will commands I execute on the connection now // participate in the ambient transaction? (No?) // // Q6: If commands on this connection are // not participating in the current transaction, will they be committed // even if rollback the current transaction scope? (Yes?) // // If my thoughts are correct, all of the above is disturbing, // because it would look like I'm executing commands // in a transaction scope, when in fact I'm not at all, // until I do the following... // // Now enlisting existing connection in current transaction conn.EnlistTransaction( Transaction.Current ); // // Q7: Does the above method explicitly enlist the pre-existing connection // in the current ambient transaction, so that commands I // execute on the connection now participate in the // ambient transaction? (Yes?) // // Q8: If the existing connection was already enlisted in a transaction // when I called the above method, what would happen? Might an error be thrown? (Probably?) // // Q9: If the existing connection was already enlisted in a transaction // and I did NOT call the above method to enlist it, would any commands // I execute on it participate in it's existing transaction rather than // the current transaction scope. (Yes?) }

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  • Applying SoapIgnore attribute doesn't take any effect to serialization result

    - by the_V
    I'm trying to figure out .NET serialization stuff and experiencing a problem. I've made a simple program to test it and got stuck with using attributes. Here's the code: [Serializable] public class SampleClass { [SoapIgnore] public Guid InstanceId { get; set; } } class Program { static void Main() { SampleClass cl = new SampleClass { InstanceId = Guid.NewGuid() }; SoapFormatter fm = new SoapFormatter(); using (FileStream stream = new FileStream(string.Format("C:\\Temp\\{0}.inv", Guid.NewGuid().ToString().Replace("-", "")), FileMode.Create)) { fm.Serialize(stream, cl); } } } The problem is that InstanceId is not ignored while serialization is done. What I get in .inv file is something like this: <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:clr="http://schemas.microsoft.com/soap/encoding/clr/1.0" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"> <SOAP-ENV:Body> <a1:SampleClass id="ref-1" xmlns:a1="http://schemas.microsoft.com/clr/nsassem/TestConsoleApp/TestConsoleApp%2C%20Version%3D1.0.0.0%2C%20Culture%3Dneutral%2C%20PublicKeyToken%3Dnull"> <_x003C_InstanceId_x003E_k__BackingField> <_a>769807168</_a> <_b>27055</_b> <_c>16408</_c> <_d>141</_d> <_e>210</_e> <_f>171</_f> <_g>30</_g> <_h>252</_h> <_i>196</_i> <_j>246</_j> <_k>159</_k> </_x003C_InstanceId_x003E_k__BackingField> </a1:SampleClass> </SOAP-ENV:Body> </SOAP-ENV:Envelope> As I can understand from documentation InstanceId property is not supposed to be serialized since SoapIgnore attribute is applied to it. Am I missing something?

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  • Animation using AniMate with Unity3D doesn't interact with physical objects

    - by Albz
    I'm designing a maze with Unity3D. The maze has a number of bifurcations and the player will stop before each bifurcation and simply choose left or right. Then an automatic animation will move the player through the next bifurcation till the end of the maze (or till a dead end). To animate the player I'm using AniMate and C# in my Unity project. Using AniMate I'm simply creating a point-to-point animation for each bifurcation (e.g. mage below: from the start/red arrow to point 5) My problem is that my animation script (associated to the "First Person Controller") is not working properly since physics is not respected (the player passes through walls). If in the same project I enable the standard character controls in Unity, then I can navigate in the maze with the physical contrains of walls etc... (i.e. I have colliders). This is an example of the code I'm using when I press left to pass from starting point, trough point 1 to point 2: void FixedUpdate () { if (Input.GetKey(KeyCode.LeftArrow)) { //To point 1 Hashtable props = new Hashtable(); props.Add("position", new Vector3(756f,112f,1124f)); props.Add("physics", true); Ani.Mate.To(transform, 2, props); //To point 2 Hashtable props2 = new Hashtable(); props2.Add("position", new Vector3(731f,112f,1124f)); props2.Add("physics", true); Ani.Mate.To(transform, 2, props2); } } What happens practically when I press the left arrow button is that the player moves directly to point 2 using a straight line passing through the wall. I tried to pass to AniMate "Physics = true" but it doesn't seem to help. Any idea on how to solve this issue? Alternatively... any hint on how to have a more optimized code and just use a series of vector3 coordinates (one for each point) to obtain the simple animation I want without having to declare new Hashtable(); etc... every time? I chose AniMate simply because 1. I'm a beginner with Unity 2. I don't need complex animations (e.g. I don't need to use iTween), just fixed animations along straight lines and I need something really simple and quick to implement in a script. However, if someone has an equally simple solution it will be welcome. thank you in advance for your help

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  • Is there anything else I can do to optimize this MySQL query?

    - by Legend
    I have two tables, Table A with 700,000 entries and Table B with 600,000 entries. The structure is as follows: Table A: +-----------+---------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-----------+---------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | bigint(20) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | number | bigint(20) unsigned | YES | | NULL | | +-----------+---------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ Table B: +-------------+---------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +-------------+---------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | bigint(20) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | number_s | bigint(20) unsigned | YES | MUL | NULL | | | number_e | bigint(20) unsigned | YES | MUL | NULL | | | source | varchar(50) | YES | | NULL | | +-------------+---------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ I am trying to find if any of the values in Table A are present in Table B using the following code: $sql = "SELECT number from TableA"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die(mysql_error()); while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $number = $row['number']; $sql = "SELECT source, count(source) FROM TableB WHERE number_s < $number AND number_e > $number GROUP BY source"; $re = mysql_query($sql) or die(mysql_error); while($ro = mysql_fetch_array($re)) { echo $number."\t".$ro[0]."\t".$ro[1]."\n"; } } I was hoping that the query would go fast but then for some reason, it isn't terrible fast. My explain on the select (with a particular value of "number") gives me the following: mysql> explain SELECT source, count(source) FROM TableB WHERE number_s < 1812194440 AND number_e > 1812194440 GROUP BY source; +----+-------------+------------+------+-------------------------+------+---------+------+--------+----------------------------------------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------+------+-------------------------+------+---------+------+--------+----------------------------------------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | TableB | ALL | number_s,number_e | NULL | NULL | NULL | 696325 | Using where; Using temporary; Using filesort | +----+-------------+------------+------+-------------------------+------+---------+------+--------+----------------------------------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Is there any optimization that I can squeeze out of this? I tried writing a stored procedure for the same task but it doesn't even seem to work in the first place... It doesn't give any syntax errors... I tried running it for a day and it was still running which felt odd. CREATE PROCEDURE Filter() Begin DECLARE number BIGINT UNSIGNED; DECLARE x INT; DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR SELECT number FROM TableA; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS Flags(number bigint unsigned, count int(11)); OPEN cur1; hist_loop: LOOP FETCH cur1 INTO number; SELECT count(*) from TableB WHERE number_s < number AND number_e > number INTO x; IF done = 1 THEN LEAVE hist_loop; END IF; IF x IS NOT NULL AND x>0 THEN INSERT INTO Flags(number, count) VALUES(number, x); END IF; END LOOP hist_loop; CLOSE cur1; END

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  • jquery two ajax call asynchrounsly in asp.net not working...

    - by eswaran
    Hi all, I am developed an web application in asp.net. In this application I have used jquery ajax for some pages. In this application, when I make two ajax call asynchrounoulsy that would not do as I expceted. what is happening is even the second ajax call finishes i can see the result when the maximum time out ajax call finished. I mean i can see the both results in the same time, not one by one. for an example. I have 3 pages 1) main.aspx - for make two ajax request. 2) totalCount.aspx - to find the total count. (max it takes 7 seconds to return, as corresponding table contains 3 lak records) 3) rowCount.aspx - to find the row details. (max it takes 5 seconds to return result). due to this scene, I have planed to make asyn call in jquery ajax in asp.net. here is my code... function getResult() { getTotalCount(); getRows(); } // it takes max 7 seconds to complete // as it take 7 seconds it should display second.( I mean after the rows dispaying) // but displaying both at the same time after the max time consuming ajax call completed. function getTotalCount() { $.ajax({ type : "POST", async : true, url : "totalCount.aspx?data1=" + document.getElementById("data").value, success : function(responseText) { $("#totalCount").attr("value", responseText); } }) } // it takes max 5 seconds to complete. // after finished, this should display first.( i mean before total count displays) // but displaying both at the same time after the max time consuming ajax call completed. function getRows() { $.ajax({ type : "POST", url : "getrows.aspx?data1=" + document.getElementById("data").value, async : true, success : function(responseText) { $("#getRows").attr("value", responseText); } }); } I would like to know, If there is any possible to make asyn call in jquery ajax in asp.net. I searched in net, I got some points that says we cannot do this in asp.net ref link: http://www.mail-archive.com/[email protected]/msg55125.html if we can do this in asp.net How to do that? thanks r.eswaran.

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  • Hibernate can't load Custom SQL collection

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database. add 2010/05/23 Pascal's answer is right,but the "false" value must be replaced with other expression,like "1=2".Because the "false" value would be considered to be a column of the table. select i.code from Item i where ( case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else 1=2 end) And I have another question about the children "bag" mapping.There isn't formula configuration option for "bag",but we can use "loader" to load a sql-query.I configure the "bag" as following.But it get a list whose size is 0.What's wrong with it? <class> ... ... <bag name="children"> <key /> <one-to-many class="Item"></one-to-many> <loader query-ref="getChildren"></loader> </bag> </class> <sql-query name="getChildren"> <load-collection alias="r" role="Item.children" /> <![CDATA[(select {r.*} from Item r join Item o where o.code=:code and ( case length(o.code) when 2 then (length(r.code)=4 and SUBSTRING(r.code,1,2)=o.code) else 1=2 end ))]]> </sql-query>

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  • PInvokeStackImbalance C# call to unmanaged C++ function

    - by user287498
    After switching to VS2010, the managed debug assistant is displaying an error about an unbalanced stack from a call to an unmanaged C++ function from a C# application. The usuals suspects don't seem to be causing the issue. Is there something else I should check? The VS2008 built C++ dll and C# application never had a problem, no weird or mysterious bugs - yeah, I know that doesn't mean much. Here are the things that were checked: The dll name is correct. The entry point name is correct and has been verified with depends.exe - the code has to use the mangled name and it does. The calling convention is correct. The sizes and types all seem to be correct. The character set is correct. There doesn't seem to be any issues after ignoring the error and there isn't an issue when running outside the debugger. C#: [DllImport("Correct.dll", EntryPoint = "SuperSpecialOpenFileFunc", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall, CharSet = CharSet.Ansi, ExactSpelling = true)] public static extern short SuperSpecialOpenFileFunc(ref SuperSpecialStruct stuff); [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, Pack = 1, CharSet = CharSet.Ansi)] public struct SuperSpecialStruct { public int field1; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 256)] public string field2; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 20)] public string field3; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 10)] public string field4; public ushort field5; public ushort field6; public ushort field7; public short field8; public short field9; public uint field10; public short field11; }; C++: short SuperSpecialOpenFileFunc(SuperSpecialStruct * stuff); struct SuperSpecialStruct { int field1; char field2[256]; char field3[20]; char field4[10]; unsigned short field5; unsigned short field6; unsigned short field7; short field8; short field9; unsigned int field10; short field11; }; Here is the error: Managed Debugging Assistant 'PInvokeStackImbalance' has detected a problem in 'Managed application path'. Additional Information: A call to PInvoke function 'SuperSpecialOpenFileFunc' has unbalanced the stack. This is likely because the managed PInvoke signature does not match the unmanaged target signature. Check that the calling convention and parameters of the PInvoke signature match the target unmanaged signature.

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  • How to modify my Response.Document XSD for getting author name form Sharepoint

    - by Rohan Patil
    Hi, This is my XSD currently <?xml version="1.0" encoding="Windows-1252"?> <xsd:schema xmlns:tns="urn:Microsoft.Search.Response.Document" attributeFormDefault="unqualified" elementFormDefault="qualified" targetNamespace="urn:Microsoft.Search.Response.Document" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xsd:import namespace="urn:Microsoft.Search.Response.Document.Document" schemaLocation="Microsoft.Search.Response.Document.Document.xsd" /> <xsd:annotation> <xsd:documentation> </xsd:documentation> <xsd:documentation> Defines a Query Respnose from a Windows SharePoint Services 3.0 Query Service. </xsd:documentation> </xsd:annotation> <!-- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - --> <!-- Root Element: Document --> <!-- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - --> <xsd:element name="Document"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:sequence> <xsd:element name="Title" type="xsd:string" minOccurs="0" /> <xsd:element name="Action"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:sequence> <xsd:element name="LinkUrl"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:simpleContent> <xsd:extension base="xsd:string"> <xsd:attribute name="size" type="xsd:unsignedByte" use="optional" /> <xsd:attribute name="fileExt" type="xsd:string" use="required" /> </xsd:extension> </xsd:simpleContent> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> </xsd:sequence> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> <xsd:element name="Description" type="xsd:string" minOccurs="0" /> <xsd:element name="Date" type="xsd:dateTime" minOccurs="0" /> <xsd:element xmlns:q1="urn:Microsoft.Search.Response.Document.Document" ref="q1:Properties" minOccurs="0" /> </xsd:sequence> <xsd:attribute name="relevance" type="xsd:unsignedByte" use="optional" /> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> </xsd:schema> I want to able to get the author name.. Please help..

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  • HelloWebView Sample: now using SDK 3 and getting killed

    - by Tim
    Hey Folks, Well I was trying to get the HelloWebview example working with SDK 7 with no success (see HelloWebView Sample: java.lang.SecurityException: Permission Denial thread), so I decided just out of curiosity to back off to SDK3 to see if I could learn anything. I have been able to get all the "Layout" samples to work and decided to try something a little harder. Unfortunately, I still cannot get the simple HelloWebView app to run. I no longer get a Permission Denial but now the app is getting killed. Killed usually implies that there are not enough resources (memory etc.) for an application to run.... Any thoughts? Are there any other log files I can look at either on my computer or on the emulator? The main.xml, manifest, and console output are below. Let me know if you need more information. Thanks, Tim main.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <WebView android:id="@+id/webview" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"/> </LinearLayout> mainfest file: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="3" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:name=".HelloWebView3" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> <activity android:name=".HelloWebView3" android:label="@string/app_name" android:theme="@android:style/Theme.NoTitleBar"> </activity> </application> Console output: [2010-06-05 08:43:37 - HelloWebView3] ------------------------------ [2010-06-05 08:43:37 - HelloWebView3] Android Launch! [2010-06-05 08:43:37 - HelloWebView3] adb is running normally. [2010-06-05 08:43:37 - HelloWebView3] Performing com.example.hellowebview3.HelloWebView3 activity launch [2010-06-05 08:43:37 - HelloWebView3] Automatic Target Mode: launching new emulator with compatible AVD 'Android1.5' [2010-06-05 08:43:37 - HelloWebView3] Launching a new emulator with Virtual Device 'Android1.5' [2010-06-05 08:43:42 - HelloWebView3] New emulator found: emulator-5554 [2010-06-05 08:43:42 - HelloWebView3] Waiting for HOME ('android.process.acore') to be launched... [2010-06-05 08:45:04 - HelloWebView3] HOME is up on device 'emulator-5554' [2010-06-05 08:45:04 - HelloWebView3] Uploading HelloWebView3.apk onto device 'emulator-5554' [2010-06-05 08:45:04 - HelloWebView3] Installing HelloWebView3.apk... [2010-06-05 08:45:19 - HelloWebView3] Success! [2010-06-05 08:45:19 - HelloWebView3] Starting activity com.example.hellowebview3.HelloWebView3 on device [2010-06-05 08:45:23 - HelloWebView3] ActivityManager: Starting: Intent { action=android.intent.action.MAIN categories={android.intent.category.LAUNCHER} comp={com.example.hellowebview3/com.example.hellowebview3.HelloWebView3} } [2010-06-05 08:45:23 - HelloWebView3] ActivityManager: [1] Killed am start -n com....

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  • How do I refactor these two C# functions to abstract their logic from the specific class properties

    - by ObligatoryMoniker
    I have two functions whose underlying logic is the same but in one case it sets one property value on a class and in another case it sets a different one. How can I rewrite the following two functions to abstract away as much of the algorithm as possible so that I can make changes in logic in a single place? SetBillingAddress private void SetBillingAddress(OrderAddress newBillingAddress) { BasketHelper basketHelper = new BasketHelper(SiteConstants.BasketName); OrderAddress oldBillingAddress = basketHelper.Basket.Addresses[basketHelper.BillingAddressID]; bool NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress = ((oldBillingAddress == null) || (newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId != oldBillingAddress.OrderAddressId)); bool BillingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet = (oldBillingAddress != null); bool BillingAddressIsNotSameAsShippingAddress = (basketHelper.ShippingAddressID != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); bool NewBillingAddressIsNotShippingAddress = (newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId != basketHelper.ShippingAddressID); if (NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress && BillingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet && BillingAddressIsNotSameAsShippingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Remove(oldBillingAddress); } if (NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress && NewBillingAddressIsNotShippingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Add(newBillingAddress); } basketHelper.BillingAddressID = newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId; basketHelper.Basket.Save(); } And here is the second one: SetShippingAddress private void SetBillingAddress(OrderAddress newShippingAddress) { BasketHelper basketHelper = new BasketHelper(SiteConstants.BasketName); OrderAddress oldShippingAddress = basketHelper.Basket.Addresses[basketHelper.ShippingAddressID]; bool NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress = ((oldShippingAddress == null) || (newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId != oldShippingAddress.OrderAddressId)); bool ShippingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet = (oldShippingAddress != null); bool ShippingAddressIsNotSameAsBillingAddress = (basketHelper.ShippingAddressID != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); bool NewShippingAddressIsNotBillingAddress = (newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); if (NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress && ShippingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet && ShippingAddressIsNotSameAsBillingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Remove(oldShippingAddress); } if (NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress && NewShippingAddressIsNotBillingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Add(newShippingAddress); } basketHelper.ShippingAddressID = newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId; basketHelper.Basket.Save(); } My initial thought was that if I could pass a class's property by refernce then I could rewrite the previous functions into something like private void SetPurchaseOrderAddress(OrderAddress newAddress, ref String CurrentChangingAddressIDProperty) and then call this function and pass in either basketHelper.BillingAddressID or basketHelper.ShippingAddressID as CurrentChangingAddressIDProperty but since I can't pass C# properties by reference I am not sure what to do with this code to be able to reuse the logic in both places. Thanks for any insight you can give me.

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  • C++0x Overload on reference, versus sole pass-by-value + std::move?

    - by dean
    It seems the main advice concerning C++0x's rvalues is to add move constructors and move operators to your classes, until compilers default-implement them. But waiting is a losing strategy if you use VC10, because automatic generation probably won't be here until VC10 SP1, or in worst case, VC11. Likely, the wait for this will be measured in years. Here lies my problem. Writing all this duplicate code is not fun. And it's unpleasant to look at. But this is a burden well received, for those classes deemed slow. Not so for the hundreds, if not thousands, of smaller classes. ::sighs:: C++0x was supposed to let me write less code, not more! And then I had a thought. Shared by many, I would guess. Why not just pass everything by value? Won't std::move + copy elision make this nearly optimal? Example 1 - Typical Pre-0x constructor OurClass::OurClass(const SomeClass& obj) : obj(obj) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy OurClass(std::move(o)); // single copy OurClass(SomeClass()); // single copy Cons: A wasted copy for rvalues. Example 2 - Recommended C++0x? OurClass::OurClass(const SomeClass& obj) : obj(obj) {} OurClass::OurClass(SomeClass&& obj) : obj(std::move(obj)) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy OurClass(std::move(o)); // zero copies, one move OurClass(SomeClass()); // zero copies, one move Pros: Presumably the fastest. Cons: Lots of code! Example 3 - Pass-by-value + std::move OurClass::OurClass(SomeClass obj) : obj(std::move(obj)) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy, one move OurClass(std::move(o)); // zero copies, two moves OurClass(SomeClass()); // zero copies, one move Pros: No additional code. Cons: A wasted move in cases 1 & 2. Performance will suffer greatly if SomeClass has no move constructor. What do you think? Is this correct? Is the incurred move a generally acceptable loss when compared to the benefit of code reduction?

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  • Getting jQuery slideshow animation to stop on click

    - by hollyb
    I have a slide show built with jQuery that pauses on hover. It has a group of thumbnails sitting on top of the image that advances the image when clicked, otherwise the slideshow just auto-rotates through all the images. There is also a +/- to expand and contract a caption related to each image. I want to have the slideshow's automatic advancing to stop if one of the thumbnails is clicked, or the +/-. Basically, just stop whenever a user clicks anywhere within the gallery (div class=".homeImg"). I'm having a major brain fart in getting this working properly and could use some advice. Here's the jQuery: $(document).ready(function() { $(".main_image .desc").show(); //Show image info $(".main_image .block").animate({ opacity: 0.85 }, 1 ); //Set Opacity //Click and Hover events for thumbnail list $(".image_thumb ul li:first").addClass('active'); // * Adds a class 'last' to the last li to let the rotator know when to return to the first $(".image_thumb ul li:last").addClass('last'); $(".image_thumb ul li").click(function(){ //Set Variables var imgAlt = $(this).find('img').attr("alt"); //Get Alt Tag of Image var imgTitle = $(this).find('a').attr("href"); //Get Main Image URL var imgDesc = $(this).find('.block').html(); //Get HTML of block var imgDescHeight = $(".main_image").find('.block').height(); //Calculate height of block if ($(this).is(".active")) { //If it's already active, then… return false; // Don't click through } else { //Animate $(".main_image img").animate({ opacity: 0}, 800 ); $(".main_image .block").animate({ opacity: 0, marginBottom: -imgDescHeight }, 800, function() { $(".main_image .block").html(imgDesc).animate({ opacity: 0.85, marginBottom: "0" }, 250 ); $(".main_image img").attr({ src: imgTitle , alt: imgAlt}).animate({ opacity: 1}, 250 ); }); } $(".image_thumb ul li").removeClass('active'); //Remove class of 'active' on all lists $(this).addClass('active'); //add class of 'active' on this list only return false; }) .hover(function(){ $(this).addClass('hover'); }, function() { $(this).removeClass('hover'); }); //Toggle teaser $("a.collapse").click(function(){ $(".main_image .block").slideToggle(); $("a.collapse").toggleClass("show"); return false; // added to remove # browser jump }); // If we are hovering over the image area, pause the clickNext function pauseClickNext = false; $(".homeImg").hover( function () { pauseClickNext = true; }, function () { pauseClickNext = false; } ); // Define function to click the next li var clickNext = function(){ if(!pauseClickNext) { /// find the next li after .active var $next_li = $("li.active").next("li"); if($("li.active").hasClass("last") ){ $(".image_thumb ul li:first").trigger("click"); } else { $next_li.trigger("click"); } } }; // Time between image transition setInterval(clickNext, 6000); });

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  • Overwrite values when using gridview Edit?

    - by sah302
    I am using a GridView which is bound to a LinqDataSource and using the automatic edit and delete buttons. However, I don't want the user to edit two of the columns manually, but done automatically. Specifically username who last updated the entry, and the date it was updated. The gridview only contains 3 columns: Name, Date modified, last updated by. Right now when the user clicks the edit button they can only edit the name column (other two set to read-only). Upon clicking the update button, I want the other 2 fields to update as well based on some extra code. I thought this was done in the code behind within the event rowUpdating, but it doesn't seem to work. My gridview: <asp:GridView ID="gvNewsSources" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataSourceID="ldsNewsSource" AutoGenerateDeleteButton="True" AutoGenerateEditButton="True" CellPadding="4" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None" DataKeyNames="Id"> <RowStyle BackColor="#F7F6F3" ForeColor="#333333" /> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="Name" HeaderText="Name" SortExpression="Name" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="LastUpdatedBy" HeaderText="Last Updated By" SortExpression="LastUpdatedBy" ReadOnly="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="DatedModified" HeaderText="Dated Modified" SortExpression="DatedModified" ReadOnly="True" /> </Columns> <FooterStyle BackColor="#5D7B9D" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <PagerStyle BackColor="#284775" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <SelectedRowStyle BackColor="#E2DED6" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="#333333" /> <HeaderStyle BackColor="#5D7B9D" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <EditRowStyle BackColor="#999999" /> <AlternatingRowStyle BackColor="White" ForeColor="#284775" /> </asp:GridView> My code behind: Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub gvNewsSources_RowUpdating(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridViewUpdateEventArgs) Handles gvNewsSources.RowUpdating e.NewValues("LastUpdatedBy") = GetUser.GetUserName e.NewValues("DateModified") = Date.Now() lblOutput.Text = e.NewValues("DateModified").ToString() End Sub End Class Yet when I run through this, I get no errors, but the values aren't being updated in the database or in the gridview. I ran through debug mode and the new values dictionary starts at 1 and ends up being 3 by the end of the rowUpdating event and the value is being set (tested by output the newValue of Datemodified), but it isn't saving. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Css simple style dont work on IE but yes in any other browser

    - by DomingoSL
    Hello guys, i have a simple css file called Titulos.css who contain this: h1 { font: 50px Tahoma, Helvetica, Arial, Sans-Serif; text-align: center; color: #111; text-shadow: 0px 2px 3px #555; } h2 { font: 14px Tahoma, Helvetica, Arial, Sans-Serif; text-align: center; color: #CCC; text-shadow: 0px 1px 2px #555; } h3 { font: 10px Tahoma, Helvetica, Arial, Sans-Serif; text-align: center; color: #CCC; } b1 { font: 16px Tahoma, Helvetica, Arial, Sans-Serif; color: #DDD; } b2 { font: 10px Tahoma, Helvetica, Arial, Sans-Serif; color: #F9F7ED; } .caja { width: 690px; height: 40px; background-color: transparent; border: 0px solid #000000; font-size:x-large; color: #222; font-family: 'Trebuchet MS', 'Lucida Sans Unicode', 'Lucida Grande', 'Lucida Sans', Arial, sans-serif; font-weight: bold;" size="299"; } .style1 { text-align: right; } And a page who call this file like: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="LIB/titulos.css" /> Later in this page im trying to use some of the styles like: <div id="todo" align="center" > <div id="cabeza" style="width:850px;height:100px"> </div> <div id="contenido" style="width:850px;height:420px;background-image: url(IMG/cuadro.png)" > <div id="titulo" style="width:765px;height:75px;padding-top: 18px;margin: auto;text-align: left;"> <b1>Bienvenido <b><?php echo($username); ?></b></b1><br> <?php $check = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM sms WHERE ref = '".$username."' ORDER BY fecha DESC LIMIT 0, 1") or die(mysql_error()); while($info = mysql_fetch_array( $check )) { echo("<b1> Tu ultimo mensaje enviado fue: </b1><b2>" . $info['texto'] . " enviado el " . $info['fecha'] . "</b2>"); That only a part of the code of course, the think is, Firefox and Chrome display the code above like this: that as you can see have the styles applied. But when i see the code from IE 8 (even 7 or 6) this is what you see: So, what do you think?

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  • NonUniqueObjectException during DAO integration test?

    - by HDave
    I have a JPA/Hibernate application and am trying to get it to run against H2 and MySQL. Currently I am using Atomikos for transactions and C3P0 for connection pooling. Despite my best efforts my DAO integration tests are failing with org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException. I do tend to re-use the same object (same ID even) over and over for all the different tests and I am sure that is the cause, but I can see in the logs that Spring Test and Atomikos are clearly rolling back the transaction associated with each test method. I would have thought the rollback would have also cleared the persistence context too. On a hunch, I added an a call to dao.clear() at the beginning of the faulty test methods and the problem went away!! Rollback doesn't clear the persistence context...hmmm.... Not sure if this is relevant, but I see a possible autocommit setting problem in the log file: [20100613 23:06:34] DEBUG [main] SessionFactoryImpl.(242) | instantiating session factory with properties: .....edited for brevity.... hibernate.connection.autocommit=true, ....more stuff follows Because I am using connection pooling, I figure that Hibernate is where I'll have to indicate I want autocommit off. I found the autocommit property documented here and I put it in my EntityManagerFactory config as follows: <bean id="myappTestLocalEmf" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="myapp-core" /> <property name="persistenceUnitPostProcessors"> <bean class="com.myapp.core.persist.util.JtaPersistenceUnitPostProcessor"> <property name="jtaDataSource" ref="myappPersistTestJdbcDataSource" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <property name="database" value="$DS{hibernate.database}" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="$DS{hibernate.dialect}" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.AtomikosJTATransactionFactory</prop> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.manager_lookup_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.TransactionManagerLookup</prop> <prop key="hibernate.connection.autocommit">false</prop> <prop key="hibernate.format_sql">true"</prop> <prop key="hibernate.use_sql_comments">true</prop> </property> </bean>

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  • XML Schema for a .NET type that inherits and implements

    - by John Ruiz
    Hi, Please consider the following three .NET types: I have an interface, an abstract class, and a concrete class. My question is how to write the XML Schema to include the properties from the interface and from the abstract class. public interface IStartable { bool RequiresKey { get; set; } void Start(object key); } public abstract class Vehicle { uint WheelCount { get; set; } } public class Car : Vehicle, IStartable { public bool RequiresKey { get; set; } public string Make { get; set; } publilc string Model { get; set; } public Car() {} public void Start(object key) { // start car with key } } I don't know how to complete this schema: <xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" targetNamespace="cars" xmlns="cars" xmlns:c="cars"> <!-- How do I get car to have vehicle's wheelcount AND IStartable's RequiresKey? --> <xs:element name="Car" type="c:Car" /> <xs:complexType name="Car"> <xs:complexContent> <xs:extension base="c:Vehicle"> <xs:group ref=c:CarGroup" /> </xs:extension> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType> <xs:group name="CarGroup"> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="Make" type="xs:token" /> <xs:element name="Model" type="xs:token" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:group> <xs:complexType name="Vehicle"> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="WheelCount" type="xs:unsignedInt" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> <xs:complexType name="IStartable"> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="RequiresKey" type="xs:boolean" /> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:schema>

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  • How can I show a div, then hide the other divs when a link is clicked?

    - by Abriel
    I am right now trying to hide six divs while showing only one of the divs. I've tried JavaScript and in jQuery, but nothing seems to work! Click here to get to the website. I would like to know if it has to do with my CSS, jQuery, or the HTML. Or is there an easier way of doing this? HTML: <div id="resourceLinks"> <a href="#" name="resource" id="resource1">General&nbsp;Information</a><br /> <a href="#" name="resource" id="resource2">Automatic&nbsp;401(k)</a><br /> <a href="#" name="resource" id="resource3">Consumer&nbsp;Fraud</a><br /> <a href="#" name="resource" id="resource4">Direct&nbsp;Deposit</a><br /> <a href="#" name="resource" id="resource5">Diversity</a><br /> <a href="#" name="resource" id="resource6">Women</a><br /> <a href="#" name="resource" id="resource7">Young&nbsp;Adults&nbsp;(20s&nbsp;-&nbsp;40s)</a> </div> <div id="resource1></div> <div id="resource2></div> <div id="resource3></div> <div id="resource4></div> <div id="resource5></div> <div id="resource6></div> <div id="resource7></div> CSS: #resource1, #resource2, #resource3, #resource4, #resource5, #resource6, #resource7 { position: absolute; margin-left: 400px; margin-top: -10px; width: 300px; padding-bottom: 120px; } #resourceLinks { position: fixed; margin-left: -450px; z-index: 3; margin-top: 180px; font-size: 16px; } jQuery: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#resourceLinks a').click(function (selected) { var getName = $(this).attr("id"); var projectImages = $(this).attr("name"); $(function() { $(".resource").hide().removeClass("current"); $("#" + projectImages ).show("normal").addClass("current"); }); }); });

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  • Creating a music catalog and extracting first 30 seconds as soon as the first words are sung

    - by Rad
    I already read a question: Separation of singing voice from music. I don’t need this complex audio processing. I only need some detection mechanism that would detect that there is some voice/vocal playing while the music is playing (or not playing) I need to extract first 30 seconds when a vocalist starts singing along with full band music. See question 2 below. I want to create a music catalog using ASP.NET MVC 2 and Silverlight clients and C#.NET 4.0 programming language that would be front store. On the backend I would also like to create a desktop WPF/Windows application to create the music catalog from already existing music files, most of which have metadata in them ID3v1, ID3v2.3, ID3v2.4, iTunes MP4, WMA, Vorbis Comments and APE Tags etc. I would possibly like to create a web service that would allow catalog contributors to upload a zipped album and trigger metadata extraction of music data and extraction of music segments as described below. I would be happy if I achieve no. 1 below. Let's say I have 1000ths of songs in mp3 (or other formats) grouped in subfolders using some classification (Genre, Artists, Albums, Composers or other groupings). I want to create tables in DB that would organize songs so they can be searched based on different criteria (year, length, above classification or by song title, description etc) like what iTune store allows to their customers. I want to extract metadata from various formats (I will try to get songs in mp3 format, but there may be other popular formats) and allow music Catalog manager person to add missing data from either desktop or web applications. He or other contributors can upload zipped music via an HTML or Silverlight upload or WPF. Can anybody suggest open source libraries, articles, code snippets that can do that in an automatic way using .NET and possibly SQL Server DB? My main questions are these. This is an audio processing challenge. I want to extract 2 segments of music (questions 1 and 2): 1. How to extract a music segment: 1-2 seconds before a vocal starts singing and up to 30 seconds from that point in time and 2. Much more challenging is to find repeating segments (One would usually find or recognize the names of the songs and songs are usually known by these refrains. How would I go about creating a list of songs that go great together like what Genius from iTune does? Is there any characteristics of music that can be used to match songs? The goal is for people quickly scan and recognize songs i.e. associate melody, words with a title/album so they can make intelligent decisions like buying a song, create similar mood songs.

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  • C# - calling ext. DLL function containing Delphi "variant record" parameter

    - by CaldonCZE
    Hello, In external (Delphi-created) DLL I've got the following function that I need to call from C# application. function ReadMsg(handle: longword; var Msg: TRxMsg): longword; stdcall; external 'MyDll.dll' name 'ReadMsg'; The "TRxMsg" type is variant record, defined as follows: TRxMsg = record case TypeMsg: byte of 1: (accept, mask: longword); 2: (SN: string[6]); 3: (rx_rate, tx_rate: word); 4: (rx_status, tx_status, ctl0, ctl1, rflg: byte); end; In order to call the function from C#, I declared auxiliary structure "my9Bytes" containing array of bytes and defined that it should be marshalled as 9 bytes long array (which is exactly the size of the Delphi record). private struct my9Bytes { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValArray, ArraySubType = UnmanagedType.U1, SizeConst = 9)] public byte[] data; } Then I declared the imported "ReadMsg" function, using the "my9bytes" struct. [DllImport("MyDll.dll")] private static extern uint ReadMsg(uint handle, ref my9Bytes myMsg); I can call the function with no problem... Then I need to create structure corresponding to the original "TRxMsg" variant record and convert my auxiliary "myMsg" array into this structure. I don't know any C# equivalent of Delphi variant array, so I used inheritance and created the following classes. public abstract class TRxMsg { public byte typeMsg; } public class TRxMsgAcceptMask:TRxMsg { public uint accept, mask; //... } public class TRxMsgSN:TRxMsg { public string SN; //... } public class TRxMsgMRate:TRxMsg { public ushort rx_rate, tx_rate; //... } public class TRxMsgStatus:TRxMsg { public byte rx_status, tx_status, ctl0, ctl1, rflg; //... } Finally I create the appropriate object and initialize it with values manually converted from "myMsg" array (I used BitConverter for this). This does work fine, this solution seems to me a little too complicated, and that it should be possible to do this somehow more directly, without the auxiliary "my9bytes" structures or the inheritance and manual converting of individual values. So I'd like to ask you for a suggestions for the best way to do this. Thanks a lot!

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  • How do I delete a [sub]hash based off of the keys/values of another hash?

    - by Zack
    Lets assume I have two hashes. One of them contains a set of data that only needs to keep things that show up in the other hash. e.g. my %hash1 = ( test1 => { inner1 => { more => "alpha", evenmore => "beta" } }, test2 => { inner2 => { more => "charlie", somethingelse => "delta" } }, test3 => { inner9999 => { ohlookmore => "golf", somethingelse => "foxtrot" } } ); my %hash2 = ( major=> { test2 => "inner2", test3 => "inner3" } ); What I would like to do, is to delete the whole subhash in hash1 if it does not exist as a key/value in hash2{major}, preferably without modules. The information contained in "innerX" does not matter, it merely must be left alone (unless the subhash is to be deleted then it can go away). In the example above after this operation is preformed hash1 would look like: my %hash1 = ( test2 => { inner2 => { more => "charlie", somethingelse => "delta" } }, ); It deletes hash1{test1} and hash1{test3} because they don't match anything in hash2. Here's what I've currently tried, but it doesn't work. Nor is it probably the safest thing to do since I'm looping over the hash while trying to delete from it. However I'm deleting at the each which should be okay? This was my attempt at doing this, however perl complains about: Can't use string ("inner1") as a HASH ref while "strict refs" in use at while(my ($test, $inner) = each %hash1) { if(exists $hash2{major}{$test}{$inner}) { print "$test($inner) is in exists.\n"; } else { print "Looks like $test($inner) does not exist, REMOVING.\n"; #not to sure if $inner is needed to remove the whole entry delete ($hash1{$test}{$inner}); } }

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  • UDP Tracker not responding

    - by kelton52
    Alright, so I'm trying to connect to UDP trackers using c#, but I never get a response. I also don't get any errors. Here's my code. namespace UDPTester { class MainClass { public static bool messageReceived = false; public static Random Random = new Random(); public static void LOG(string format, params object[] args) { Console.WriteLine (format,args); } public static void Main (string[] args) { LOG ("Creating Packet..."); byte[] packet; using(var stream = new MemoryStream()) { var bc = new MiscUtil.Conversion.BigEndianBitConverter(); using(var br = new MiscUtil.IO.EndianBinaryWriter(bc,stream)) { LOG ("Magic Num: {0}",(Int64)0x41727101980); br.Write (0x41727101980); br.Write((Int32)0); br.Write ((Int32)Random.Next()); packet = stream.ToArray(); LOG ("Packet Size: {0}",packet.Length); } } LOG ("Connecting to tracker..."); var client = new System.Net.Sockets.UdpClient("tracker.openbittorrent.com",80); UdpState s = new UdpState(); s.e = client.Client.RemoteEndPoint; s.u = client; StartReceiving(s); LOG ("Sending Packet..."); client.Send(packet,packet.Length); while(!messageReceived) { Thread.Sleep(1000); } LOG ("Ended"); } public static void StartReceiving(UdpState state) { state.u.BeginReceive(ReceiveCallback,state); } public static void ReceiveCallback(IAsyncResult ar) { UdpClient u = (UdpClient)((UdpState)(ar.AsyncState)).u; IPEndPoint e = (IPEndPoint)((UdpState)(ar.AsyncState)).e; Byte[] receiveBytes = u.EndReceive(ar, ref e); string receiveString = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(receiveBytes); LOG("Received: {0}", receiveString); messageReceived = true; StartReceiving((UdpState)ar.AsyncState); } } public class UdpState { public UdpClient u; public EndPoint e; } } I was using a normal BinaryWriter, but that didn't work, and I read somewhere that it wants it's data in BigEndian. This doesn't work for any of the UDP trackers I've found, any ideas why I'm not getting a response? Did they maybe change the protocol and not tell anyone? HTTP trackers all work fine. Trackers I've tried udp://tracker.publicbt.com:80 udp://tracker.ccc.de:80 udp://tracker.istole.it:80 Also, I'm not interested in using MonoTorrent(and when I was using it, the UDP didn't work anyways). Protocol Sources http://xbtt.sourceforge.net/udp_tracker_protocol.html http://www.rasterbar.com/products/libtorrent/udp_tracker_protocol.html

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  • union marshalling issue in C#

    - by senthil
    I have union inside structure and the structure looks like struct tDeviceProperty { DWORD Tag; DWORD Size; union _DP value; }; typedef union _DP { short int i; LONG l; ULONG ul; float flt; double dbl; BOOL b; double at; FILETIME ft; LPSTR lpszA; LPWSTR lpszW; LARGE_INTEGER li; struct tBinary bin; BYTE reserved[40]; } __UDP; struct tBinary { ULONG size; BYTE * bin; }; from the tBinary structure bin has to be converted to tImage (structure is given below) struct tImage { DWORD x; DWORD y; DWORD z; DWORD Resolution; DWORD type; DWORD ID; diccid_t SourceID; const void *buffer; const char *Info; const char *UserImageID; }; to use the same in c# I have done marshaling but not giving proper values when converting the pointer to structure. The C# code is follows, tBinary tBin = new tBinary(); IntPtr tBinbuffer = Marshal.AllocCoTaskMem(Marshal.SizeOf(tBin)); Marshal.StructureToPtr(tBin.bin, tBinbuffer, false); tDeviceProperty tDevice = new tDeviceProperty(); tDevice.bin = tBinbuffer; IntPtr tDevicebuffer = Marshal.AllocCoTaskMem(Marshal.SizeOf(tDevice)); Marshal.StructureToPtr(tDevice.bin, tDevicebuffer, false); Battary tbatt = new Battary(); tbatt.value = tDevicebuffer; IntPtr tbattbuffer = Marshal.AllocCoTaskMem(Marshal.SizeOf(tbatt)); Marshal.StructureToPtr(tbatt.value, tbattbuffer, false); result = GetDeviceProperty(ref tbattbuffer); Battary v = (Battary)Marshal.PtrToStructure(tbattbuffer, typeof(Battary)); tDeviceProperty v2 = (tDeviceProperty)Marshal.PtrToStructure(tDevicebuffer, typeof(tDeviceProperty)); tBinary v3 = (tBinary)Marshal.PtrToStructure(tBinbuffer, typeof(tBinary));

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  • How can I map a spring controller to a url with .jsp extension?

    - by Matteo Caprari
    Hi. We are in the process of migrating a jsp-only application to Spring-MVC. For various reasons we can't change the extension of the current pages. (calls to login.jsp need to handled by a spring controller that will use a jsp file as view). We are doing this iteratively, so some pages need to stay jsp files (calls to welcome.jsp won't be handled by a controller). To do that I mapped both the DispatcherDervlet and the HandlerMapping to *.jsp, and configured the JstlView in the standard way. Unfortunately, if I browse to //login.jsp I get an error saying <No mapping found for HTTP request with URI [/<context>/WEB-INF/jsp/login.jsp] in DispatcherServlet with name 'spring'> It all works if I change .jsp to any other extension in DispatcherServlet and HandlerMapping. web.xml: <servlet> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <url-pattern>*.jsp</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> spring-servlet.xml: <!-- View resolver --> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.UrlBasedViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"/> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/"/> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"/> </bean> <!-- URL Mapping --> <bean id="publicUrlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.SimpleUrlHandlerMapping"> <property name="urlMap"> <map> <entry key="/login.jsp" value-ref="loginController"/> </map> </property> </bean> Thanks a lot.

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