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  • hdmi output of windows 7 does not stay alive

    - by sjors miltenburg
    I have built a server that is connected to ONLY my tv (with hdmi). If I switch my tv to hdmi and boot my server I get the expected result (windows is displayed on my tv) and I can fully interact with it, no problem. However when "some time" passes the image on my tv dissapears and it seems the server is not outputting any hdmi signal anymore. It does not wake up on mousemove or keyboard presses. I can still interact with my server through a remote desktop session. The only way to get the hdmi output back is to reboot the server. I tried to prevent the computer from "sleeping" but this did not work. I tried upgrading from windows vista to windows 7 but this also did not work. Do you guys have any other ideas?

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  • Migrating Split Access Database from one domain to another (not working, details in Q)

    - by Expo_Rob
    Some background: I'm a programmer, not a network administrator, who has been asked to migrate some accounting software (Integrated Office Accounting version 3.2) from an existing domain (OLD_NETWORK) to a new domain (NEW_NETWORK). No-body at the office knows how it works under the hood. It is a split Access 2000 database with the back-end shared and on a file server (which is also the DC) using mapped drives. The DC is NT Server 4 SP 6. The new server is server 2003. The two networks are running independently (ie: two computers on each desk). I have been able to get new computers set up on NEW_NETWORK and working with the IOA software just perfectly but for one problem: The company here uses other entirely separate databases which access the tables IOA maintains (specifically the 'customers' table) via links. To switch between these systems, you press F11 then File-Open the appropriate database and away you go (this is necessary to maintain the permissions that the IOA system uses to protect the customers table). The entire database is Access 2000, the links go to other Access databases, SQL-Server is not involved in any way, nor is a migration to SQL server likely. If I can't migrate anything over, everything will stay as it is, and the NEW_NETWORK computers will not be used. The problem: When I try and update these seperate databases (I shall call one "BANK_ACCOUNT", but the name does not matter), it says "this recordset cannot be updated". It also will sometimes not pull information out of the 'customers' table (ie: date_entered) when looking at a report of everyone who opened a bank account on a certain day (ie: today). I have tried: Giving 'everyone' full control via. shared directory permissions Giving 'everyone' full control on a file system level Checking the permissions within Access (everyone has full read/write on all tables) Copying the entire server contents from one file server to another (ie: xcopy everything) Copying the entire local client files from one computer to another, putting them in the exact same position in the file system, with the same permissons (or full control to 'everyone'). Running as an Administrator Taking one of the NEW_NETWORK computers, having it join OLD_NETWORK and run the software (direct copy from a working system with identical drive mappings), this did not work Weeping openly My Question: Is there anything else I can try? (sorry for this being so long)

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  • Why is this server redirecting to another page???

    - by Mike L.
    I am building a site for a client. For a reason unknown to me www.domain.com forwards to www.domain.com/directory/home.html. If i type www.domain.com/index.php it works correctly. I have checked .htaccess there was nothing there, so I set the index to index.php which works fine in every directory other than the root directory. I have root access and have checked the httpd.conf (did a search in VI for the document that I was being redirected to) and anything else I could think of. Where should I look next? The server is a VPS running CentOS 5.5 with multiple domains, has CPanel WHM 11 for root access and CPanel X installed for each domain.

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  • Why is ksoftirqd using 100% of the CPU?

    - by Yegor
    Running FC release 12. Im alaways seeing ksoftirqd/x (x being 0-9) at the top of the processlist, with 100% cpu. The server has a bonded 2gbit connection, serving files from an SSD array. Currently its using 1.6gbit. Server load is ~ 1.5 (dual quad core). iowait is non-existent.

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  • Why is 'System' process at 100%?

    - by ripper234
    On Windows 7, the 'system' process is taking up 100% CPU (well 50% on a duel core) for a rather long time. Its CPU usage doesn't seem to drop at all. How can I diagnose this problem? What could be the cause? I don't see any other problems with the system and am using an up-to-date AVG, so I don't yet suspect a maelware.

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  • Why does Sharepoint 2010 Web Reference work, but Service Reference does not

    - by Darien Ford
    Sharepoint is setup to use NTLM authentication. When I reference http://myserver/Sites/Ops/_vti_bin/Lists.asmx?WSDL as a Web Reference, I can call the methods and get valid responses. When I reference the same url as a Service Reference, the server throws an exception when calling methods. My account is admin on the Sharepoint Farm. This is the app.config for the service reference (mostly auto generated): <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> </configSections> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="ListsSoap" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="TransportCredentialOnly"> <transport clientCredentialType="Ntlm" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://myserver/Sites/Ops/_vti_bin/Lists.asmx" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="ListsSoap" contract="SharepointLists.ListsSoap" name="ListsSoap" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> Saddly, the only information the exception provides is this: "Exception of type 'Microsoft.SharePoint.SoapServer.SoapServerException' was thrown." No other details. The code that I'm using is: public ListClass() { _Client = new SharepointLists.ListsSoapClient(); } public System.Xml.Linq.XElement GetTaskList() { return _Client.GetList("Tasks"); } Any thoughts? I would like to use the Service Reference rather than the Web Reference. UPDATE: I tried Rob's suggestion and got this error: HTTP GET Error URI: http://myserver/Sites/Ops/_vti_bin/Lists.asmx The document at the url http://myserver/Sites/Ops/_vti_bin/Lists.asmx was not recognized as a known document type. The error message from each known type may help you fix the problem: - Report from 'http://myserver/Sites/Ops/_vti_bin/Lists.asmx' is 'The document format is not recognized (the content type is 'text/html; charset=utf-8').'. - Report from 'DISCO Document' is 'There was an error downloading 'http://myserver/_vti_bin/Lists.asmx?disco'.'. - The request failed with HTTP status 404: Not Found. - Report from 'WSDL Document' is 'The document format is not recognized (the con tent type is 'text/html; charset=utf-8').'. - Report from 'XML Schema' is 'The document format is not recognized (the conten t type is 'text/html; charset=utf-8').'.

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  • Can't see why JavaMail doesn't work in a Spring MVC application on Tomcat

    - by Kartoch
    I have wrote a small web application using Spring MVC. It runs on tomcat and use the JavaMail library. At the present time I can't find why the mails are not sent. But I have no pertinent log messages in tomcat log files to find where is the problem. At the present time, my logging is configured in a log4j.properties file in the root of my CLASSPATH: log4j.rootLogger= DEBUG, CONSOLE log4j.appender.CONSOLE=org.apache.log4j.ConsoleAppender log4j.appender.CONSOLE.layout=org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout log4j.appender.CONSOLE.layout.ConversionPattern=%-4r [%t] %-5p %c %x - %m%n How can i see the java mail log message in debug mode ? I think it is related to JDK logging system (as I'm using Sun's JavaMail) but I don't know how to configure it. Edit: Well, one problem solves and another arises. I change my bean definition to include debug support for javamail: mail.debug=true But still no pertinent info in it: DEBUG: JavaMail version 1.4.1ea-SNAPSHOT DEBUG: not loading file: /usr/lib/jvm/java-6-sun-1.6.0.12/jre/lib/javamail.providers DEBUG: java.io.FileNotFoundException: /usr/lib/jvm/java-6-sun-1.6.0.12/jre/lib/javamail.providers (No such file or directory) DEBUG: !anyLoaded DEBUG: not loading resource: /META-INF/javamail.providers DEBUG: successfully loaded resource: /META-INF/javamail.default.providers DEBUG: Tables of loaded providers DEBUG: Providers Listed By Class Name:{com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPSSLTransport=javax.mail.Provider[TRANSPORT,smtps,com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPSSLTransport,Sun Microsystems, Inc], com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport=javax.mail.Provider[TRANSPORT,smtp,com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport,Sun Microsystems, Inc], com.sun.mail.imap.IMAPSSLStore=javax.mail.Provider[STORE,imaps,com.sun.mail.imap.IMAPSSLStore,Sun Microsystems, Inc], com.sun.mail.pop3.POP3SSLStore=javax.mail.Provider[STORE,pop3s,com.sun.mail.pop3.POP3SSLStore,Sun Microsystems, Inc], com.sun.mail.imap.IMAPStore=javax.mail.Provider[STORE,imap,com.sun.mail.imap.IMAPStore,Sun Microsystems, Inc], com.sun.mail.pop3.POP3Store=javax.mail.Provider[STORE,pop3,com.sun.mail.pop3.POP3Store,Sun Microsystems, Inc]} DEBUG: Providers Listed By Protocol: {imaps=javax.mail.Provider[STORE,imaps,com.sun.mail.imap.IMAPSSLStore,Sun Microsystems, Inc], imap=javax.mail.Provider[STORE,imap,com.sun.mail.imap.IMAPStore,Sun Microsystems, Inc], smtps=javax.mail.Provider[TRANSPORT,smtps,com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPSSLTransport,Sun Microsystems, Inc], pop3=javax.mail.Provider[STORE,pop3,com.sun.mail.pop3.POP3Store,Sun Microsystems, Inc], pop3s=javax.mail.Provider[STORE,pop3s,com.sun.mail.pop3.POP3SSLStore,Sun Microsystems, Inc], smtp=javax.mail.Provider[TRANSPORT,smtp,com.sun.mail.smtp.SMTPTransport,Sun Microsystems, Inc]} DEBUG: successfully loaded resource: /META-INF/javamail.default.address.map DEBUG: !anyLoaded DEBUG: not loading resource: /META-INF/javamail.address.map DEBUG: not loading file: /usr/lib/jvm/java-6-sun-1.6.0.12/jre/lib/javamail.address.map DEBUG: java.io.FileNotFoundException: /usr/lib/jvm/java-6-sun-1.6.0.12/jre/lib/javamail.address.map (No such file or directory)

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  • Why no switch on pointers?

    - by meeselet
    For instance: #include <stdio.h> void why_cant_we_switch_him(void *ptr) { switch (ptr) { case NULL: printf("NULL!\n"); break; default: printf("%p!\n", ptr); break; } } int main(void) { void *foo = "toast"; why_cant_we_switch_him(foo); return 0; } gcc test.c -o test test.c: In function 'why_cant_we_switch_him': test.c:5: error: switch quantity not an integer test.c:6: error: pointers are not permitted as case values Just curious. Is this a technical limitation? EDIT People seem to think there is only one constant pointer expression. Is that is really true, though? For instance, here is a common paradigm in Objective-C (it is really only C aside from NSString, id and nil, which are merely a pointers, so it is still relevant — I just wanted to point out that there is, in fact, a common use for it, despite this being only a technical question): #include <stdio.h> #include <Foundation/Foundation.h> static NSString * const kMyConstantObject = @"Foo"; void why_cant_we_switch_him(id ptr) { switch (ptr) { case kMyConstantObject: // (Note that we are comparing pointers, not string values.) printf("We found him!\n"); break; case nil: printf("He appears to be nil (or NULL, whichever you prefer).\n"); break; default: printf("%p!\n", ptr); break; } } int main(void) { NSString *foo = @"toast"; why_cant_we_switch_him(foo); foo = kMyConstantObject; why_cant_we_switch_him(foo); return 0; } gcc test.c -o test -framework Foundation test.c: In function 'why_cant_we_switch_him': test.c:5: error: switch quantity not an integer test.c:6: error: pointers are not permitted as case values It appears that the reason is that switch only allows integral values (as the compiler warning said). So I suppose a better question would be to ask why this is the case? (though it is probably too late now.)

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  • Why does Scala apply thunks automatically, sometimes?

    - by Anonymouse
    At just after 2:40 in ShadowofCatron's Scala Tutorial 3 video, it's pointed out that the parentheses following the name of a thunk are optional. "Buh?" said my functional programming brain, since the value of a function and the value it evaluates to when applied are completely different things. So I wrote the following to try this out. My thought process is described in the comments. object Main { var counter: Int = 10 def f(): Int = { counter = counter + 1; counter } def runThunk(t: () => Int): Int = { t() } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { val a = f() // I expect this to mean "apply f to no args" println(a) // and apparently it does val b = f // I expect this to mean "the value f", a function value println(b) // but it's the value it evaluates to when applied to no args println(b) // and the evaluation happens immediately, not in the call runThunk(b) // This is an error: it's not println doing something funny runThunk(f) // Not an error: seems to be val doing something funny } }   To be clear about the problem, this Scheme program (and the console dump which follows) shows what I expected the Scala program to do. (define counter (list 10)) (define f (lambda () (set-car! counter (+ (car counter) 1)) (car counter))) (define runThunk (lambda (t) (t))) (define main (lambda args (let ((a (f)) (b f)) (display a) (newline) (display b) (newline) (display b) (newline) (runThunk b) (runThunk f)))) > (main) 11 #<procedure:f> #<procedure:f> 13   After coming to this site to ask about this, I came across this answer which told me how to fix the above Scala program: val b = f _ // Hey Scala, I mean f, not f() But the underscore 'hint' is only needed sometimes. When I call runThunk(f), no hint is required. But when I 'alias' f to b with a val then apply it, it doesn't work: the evaluation happens in the val; and even lazy val works this way, so it's not the point of evaluation causing this behaviour.   That all leaves me with the question: Why does Scala sometimes automatically apply thunks when evaluating them? Is it, as I suspect, type inference? And if so, shouldn't a type system stay out of the language's semantics? Is this a good idea? Do Scala programmers apply thunks rather than refer to their values so much more often that making the parens optional is better overall? Examples written using Scala 2.8.0RC3, DrScheme 4.0.1 in R5RS.

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  • Why this search can not generate correct result?

    - by user482742
    Hi, All: Below is to find same customer and if he is in list, the number add one. If he is not in the list, just add him in the list. I use Search function to do this, but failed and generated incorrect records. It can not find the customer or the right number of customers. But if I use For..loop to iterate the list, it does well and can find the customer and add new customer in that for..loop search procedure. (I did not paste for ..loop search procedrue here). Another problem is that there is no difference between setting list.sorted true and false. It seems Search function is not correct. This search function is from an example of delphi textbook. The below is with Delphi 7. Thank you. Procedure Form1.create; begin list:=Tstringlist.create; list.sorted:=true; // Search function will generate exactly Same and Incorrect //records no matter list.sorted is set true or false. list.duplicates:=dupignore; .. end; Procedure addcustomer; var .. begin while p1.MatchAgain do begin //p1 is regular expression customer:=p1.MatchedExpression; if (search(customer)=false) then begin list.Add(customer+'=1'); end; allcustomer:=allcustomer+1; .. end; Function Tform1.search(customer: string): boolean; var fre:string; num:integer; L:integer; R:integer; M: Integer; CompareResult: Integer; found: boolean; begin result:=false; found:=false; L := 0; R := List.Count - 1; while (L <= R) and ( not found ) do begin M := (L + R) div 2; CompareResult := Comparetext(list.Names[m]), customer); if (compareresult=0) then begin fre:=list.ValueFromIndex [m]; num:=strtoint(fre); num:=num+1; list.ValueFromIndex[m]:=inttostr(num); Found := True; Result := true; exit; end else if compareresult > 0 then r := m - 1 else l := m + 1; end; end;

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  • why does windows authentication / impersonation fail on asp.net application with iis 7.5 / windows 7

    - by velvet sheen
    hi there; i'm troubleshooting why i cannot get past the login dialog on an asp.net site configured for windows authentication and impersonation. help me before i switch to os x development and objective-c i have an asp.net 2.0 application and i'm trying to deploy it on windows 7 with iis 7.5. i've created a new site, and bound it to localhost and a fully qualified domain name. the fqdn is in my hosts file, and is redirected to 127.0.0.1 the site is also running with an appdomain i created, with integrated pipeline mode, and the process model identity is set to ApplicationPoolIdentity. web.config includes the following: <trust level="High" /> <authentication mode="Windows" /> <authorization> <deny users="?"/> </authorization> <identity impersonate="true"/> acl on the directory for the site is desperation set to everyone full control, the application pool virtual account (windows 7 thing) is set to full control on the physical directory for the site also. iis authentication has asp.net impersonation enabled, and windows authentication enabled. when i connect to the site as localhost, it permits me to get past the login prompt and the application loads without incident. when i connect to the site as the fqdn set in the host headers bindings for this site/ip/port, i cannot get past the login prompt. clicking cancel throws to a http 401.1 error page. why? thanks very much in advance.

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  • Why is Selenium RC so slow?

    - by Pete
    Hi. For some time I have been investigating Selenium RC in order to do functional testing of my web application. I have now found a test strategy that is so effective, that I do not want to move away from Selenium RC (after spending weeks trying to figure out a good way to validate ASP.NET validation controls). But now that my Selenium RC adventure is moving from a POC to be something that I actually use, I'm running into a problem. It is insanely slow. Executing a single test that loads a page, fills in some fields, and clicks a button takes in the magnitude of seconds to execute. When it is executing, I can easily see each individual field being filled out one at a time. Using Selenium IDE in Firefox is not that slow. I found this page, that clearly specifies that Selenium RC is slow http://selenium-grid.seleniumhq.org/how_it_works.html But why is that? Is it because the browser is polling the selenium server? If so, can this polling interval not be modified? Or is there another reason. I am not accustomed to a remote call taking a humanly noticable amount of time to execute. It is horrible that executing a few tests should take so long. I can execute my entire presentation (MVP), business, and database layer test suite (500+ tests) way quicker than it takes to run 10 tests for a single web page.

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  • Why use short-circuit code?

    - by Tim Lytle
    Related Questions: Benefits of using short-circuit evaluation, Why would a language NOT use Short-circuit evaluation?, Can someone explain this line of code please? (Logic & Assignment operators) There are questions about the benefits of a language using short-circuit code, but I'm wondering what are the benefits for a programmer? Is it just that it can make code a little more concise? Or are there performance reasons? I'm not asking about situations where two entities need to be evaluated anyway, for example: if($user->auth() AND $model->valid()){ $model->save(); } To me the reasoning there is clear - since both need to be true, you can skip the more costly model validation if the user can't save the data. This also has a (to me) obvious purpose: if(is_string($userid) AND strlen($userid) > 10){ //do something }; Because it wouldn't be wise to call strlen() with a non-string value. What I'm wondering about is the use of short-circuit code when it doesn't effect any other statements. For example, from the Zend Application default index page: defined('APPLICATION_PATH') || define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../application')); This could have been: if(!defined('APPLICATION_PATH')){ define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../application')); } Or even as a single statement: if(!defined('APPLICATION_PATH')) define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../application')); So why use the short-circuit code? Just for the 'coolness' factor of using logic operators in place of control structures? To consolidate nested if statements? Because it's faster?

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  • Why is my mssql query failing?

    - by Eric Reynolds
    connect(); $arr = mssql_fetch_assoc(mssql_query("SELECT Applications.ProductName, Applications.ProductVersion, Applications.ProductSize, Applications.Description, Applications.ProductKey, Applications.ProductKeyID, Applications.AutomatedInstaller, Applications.AutomatedInstallerName, Applications.ISO, Applications.ISOName, Applications.Internet, Applications.InternetURL, Applications.DatePublished, Applications.LicenseID, Applications.InstallationGuide, Vendors.VendorName FROM Applications INNER JOIN Vendors ON Applications.VendorID = Vendors.VendorID WHERE ApplicationID = ".$ApplicationID)); $query1 = mssql_query("SELECT Issues.AppID, Issues.KnownIssues FROM Issues WHERE Issues.AppID=".$ApplicationID); $issues = mssql_fetch_assoc($query1); $query2 = mssql_query("SELECT ApplicationInfo.AppID, ApplicationInfo.Support_Status, ApplicationInfo.UD_Training, ApplicationInfo.AtomicTraining, ApplicationInfo.VendorURL FROM software.software_dbo.ApplicationInfo WHERE ApplicationInfo.AppID = ".$ApplicationID); $row = mssql_fetch_assoc($query2); function connect(){ $connect = mssql_connect(DBSERVER, DBO, DBPW) or die("Unable to connect to server"); $selected = mssql_select_db(DBNAME, $connect) or die("Unable to connect to database"); return $connect; } Above is the code. The first query/fetch_assoc works perfectly fine, however the next 2 queries fail and I cannot figure out why. Here is the error statement that shows up from php: Warning: mssql_query() [function.mssql-query]: message: Invalid object name 'Issues'. (severity 16) in /srv/www/htdocs/agreement.php on line 47 Warning: mssql_query() [function.mssql-query]: General SQL Server error: Check messages from the SQL Server (severity 16) in /srv/www/htdocs/agreement.php on line 47 Warning: mssql_query() [function.mssql-query]: Query failed in /srv/www/htdocs/agreement.php on line 47 Warning: mssql_fetch_assoc(): supplied argument is not a valid MS SQL-result resource in /srv/www/htdocs/agreement.php on line 48 Warning: mssql_query() [function.mssql-query]: message: Invalid object name 'software.software_dbo.ApplicationInfo'. (severity 16) in /srv/www/htdocs/agreement.php on line 51 Warning: mssql_query() [function.mssql-query]: General SQL Server error: Check messages from the SQL Server (severity 16) in /srv/www/htdocs/agreement.php on line 51 Warning: mssql_query() [function.mssql-query]: Query failed in /srv/www/htdocs/agreement.php on line 51 Warning: mssql_fetch_assoc(): supplied argument is not a valid MS SQL-result resource in /srv/www/htdocs/agreement.php on line 52 The error clearly centers around the fact that the query is not executing. In my database I have a table called Issues and a table called ApplicationInfo so I am unsure why it is telling me that they are invalid objects. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Eric R.

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  • Why are floating point values so prolific?

    - by Kibbee
    So, title says it all. Why are floating point values so prolific in computer programming. Due to problems like rounding errors, and not being able to even accurately represent numbers such as 0.1, I really can't see how they got as far as they did. I understand that the computation is faster with floating point numbers, however, I can think of only a few cases that they actually the right data type would be using. If you sat back and think about every time you used a floating point value, how many times did you say, well, some error would be ok, as long as the result was a few microseconds faster. It really makes me think because Jeff was talking about NP completeness, and how heuristics give an answer that is kind of right. And well, computers shouldn't do that. They should give you the answer that is correct. Yet we see floating point values used in many applications where they are completely not valid. What really bugs me, isn't that floating point exists, but that in many languages, there isn't even a viable alternative, non-floating point, decimal value. A lot of programmers when doing financial applications have to fall back to storing the number of cents in an integer field. Which brings with it all kinds of other problems. Why do floats continue to be so prolific, even though they can't represent the real answer, and we expect computers to be accurate? [EDIT] Just to clarify, I was talking about Base 2 floating points, and not base 10 floating points. .Net offers the Decimal data type, which is a base 10 floating point value which offers a much better representation of the numbers we deal with on a daily basis in most computer programs. I find it hard to believe that even modern languages like Java don't support base 10 floating point values, unless you want to move into the realm of things like BigDecimal, which isn't really the right answer either in a lot of situations.

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  • Why should we call SuppressFinalize when we dont have a destructor

    - by somaraj
    I have few Question for which I am not able to get a proper answer . 1) Why should we call SuppressFinalize in the Dispose function when we dont have a destructor . 2) Dispose and finalize are used for freeing resources before the object is garbage collected. Whether it is managed or unmanaged resource we need to free it , then why we need a condition inside the dispose funtion , saying pass 'true' when we call this overriden function from IDisposable:Dispose and pass false when called from a finalize. See the below code i copied from net. class Test : IDisposable { private bool isDisposed = false; ~Test() { Dispose(false); } protected void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (disposing) { // Code to dispose the managed resources of the class } // Code to dispose the un-managed resources of the class isDisposed = true; } public void Dispose() { Dispose(true); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } } what if I remove the boolean protected Dispose function and implement the as below. class Test : IDisposable { private bool isDisposed = false; ~Test() { Dispose(); } public void Dispose() { // Code to dispose the managed resources of the class // Code to dispose the un-managed resources of the class isDisposed = true; // Call this since we have a destructor . what if , if we dont have one GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } }

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  • why is this C++ Code not doing his job

    - by hamza
    i want to create a program that write all the primes in a file ( i know that its a popular algorithm but m trying to make it by my self ) , but it still showing all the numbers instead of just the primes , & i dont know why someone pleas tell me why #include <iostream> #include <stdlib.h> #include <stdio.h> void afficher_sur_un_ficher (FILE* ficher , int nb_bit ); int main() { FILE* p_fich ; char tab[4096] , mask ; int nb_bit = 0 , x ; for (int i = 0 ; i < 4096 ; i++ ) { tab[i] = 0xff ; } for (int i = 0 ; i < 4096 ; i++ ) { mask = 0x01 ; for (int j = 0 ; j < 8 ; j++) { if ((tab[i] & mask) != 0 ) { x = nb_bit ; while (( x > 1 )&&(x < 16384)) { tab[i] = tab[i] ^ mask ; x = x * 2 ; } afficher_sur_un_ficher (p_fich , nb_bit ) ; } mask = mask<<1 ; nb_bit++ ; } } system ("PAUSE"); return 0 ; } void afficher_sur_un_ficher (FILE* ficher , int nb_bit ) { ficher = fopen("res.txt","a+"); fprintf (ficher ,"%d \t" , nb_bit); int static z ; z = z+1 ; if ( z%10 == 0) fprintf (ficher , "\n"); fclose(ficher); }

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  • Why is my addSubview: method causing a leak?

    - by Nathan
    Okay, so I have done a ton of research on this and have been pulling my hair out for days trying to figure out why the following code leaks: [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = YES; UIImage *comicImage = [self getCachedImage:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@%@",@"http://url/",comicNumber,@".png"]]; self.imageView = [[[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:comicImage] autorelease]; [self.scrollView addSubview:self.imageView]; self.scrollView.contentSize = self.imageView.frame.size; self.imageWidth = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f",imageView.frame.size.width]; [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = NO; Both self.imageView and self.scrollView are @propety (nonatomic, retain) and released in my dealloc.. imageView isn't used anywhere else in the code. This code is also run in a thread off of the main thread. If I run this code on my device, it will quickly run out of memory if I continually load this view. However, I've found if I comment out the following line: [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = YES; UIImage *comicImage = [self getCachedImage:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@%@%@",@"http://url/",comicNumber,@".png"]]; self.imageView = [[[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:comicImage] autorelease]; //[self.scrollView addSubview:self.imageView]; self.scrollView.contentSize = self.imageView.frame.size; self.imageWidth = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f",imageView.frame.size.width]; [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = NO; Memory usage becomes stable, no matter how many times I load the view. I have gone over everything I can think to see why this is leaking, but as far as I can tell I have all my releases straight. Can anyone see what I am missing?

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  • Why is XmlSerializer so hard to use?

    - by mafutrct
    I imagine to use XML serialization like this: class Foo { public Foo (string name) { Name1 = name; Name2 = name; } [XmlInclude] public string Name1 { get; private set; } [XmlInclude] private string Name2; } StreamWriter wr = new StreamWriter("path.xml"); new XmlSerializer<Foo>().Serialize (wr, new Foo ("me")); But this does not work at all: XmlSerializer is not generic. I have to cast from and to object on (de)serialization. Every property has to be fully public. Why aren't we just using Reflection to access private setters? Private fields cannot be serialized. I'd like to decorate private fields with an attribute to have XmlSerializer include them. Did I miss something and XmlSerializer is actually offering the described possibilities? Are there alternate serializers to XML that handle these cases more sophisticatedly? If not: We're in 2010 after all, and .NET has been around for many years. XML serialization is often used, totally standard and should be really easy to perform. Or is my understanding possibly wrong and XML serialization ought not to expose the described features for a good reason? (Feel free to adjust caption or tags. If this should be CW, please just drop a note.)

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  • Why Finalize method not allowed to override

    - by somaraj
    I am new to .net ..and i am confused with the destructor mechanism in C# ..please clarify In C# destructors are converted to finalize method by CLR. If we try to override it (not using destructor ) , will get an error Error 2 Do not override object.Finalize. Instead, provide a destructor. But it seems that the Object calss implementation in mscorlib.dll has finalize defined as protected override void Finalize(){} , then why cant we override it , that what virtual function for . Why is the design like that , is it to be consistent with c++ destructor concept. Also when we go to the definition of the object class , there is no mention of the finalize method , then how does the hmscorlib.dll definition shows the finalize funtion . Does it mean that the default destructor is converted to finalize method. public class Object { public Object(); public virtual bool Equals(object obj); public static bool Equals(object objA, object objB); public virtual int GetHashCode(); public Type GetType(); protected object MemberwiseClone(); public static bool ReferenceEquals(object objA, object objB); public virtual string ToString(); }

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  • Why use SQL database?

    - by martinthenext
    I'm not quite sure stackoverflow is a place for such a general question, but let's give it a try. Being exposed to the need of storing application data somewhere, I've always used MySQL or sqlite, just because it's always done like that. As it seems like the whole world is using these databases, most of all software products, frameworks, etc. It is rather hard for a beginning developer like me to ask a question - why? Ok, say we have some object-oriented logic in our application, and objects are related to each other somehow. We need to map this logic to the storage logic, so we need relations between database objects too. This leads us to using relational database and I'm ok with that - to put it simple, our database rows sometimes will need to have references to other tables' rows. But why do use SQL language for interaction with such a database? SQL query is a text message. I can understand this is cool for actually understanding what it does, but isn't it silly to use text table and column names for a part of application that no one ever seen after deploynment? If you had to write a data storage from scratch, you would have never used this kind of solution. Personally, I would have used some 'compiled db query' bytecode, that would be assembled once inside a client application and passed to the database. And it surely would name tables and colons by id numbers, not ascii-strings. In the case of changes in table structure those byte queries could be recompiled according to new db schema, stored in XML or something like that. What are the problems of my idea? Is there any reason for me not to write it myself and to use SQL database instead?

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  • Why do the overloads of String.Format exist?

    - by GiddyUpHorsey
    I was using Reflector to look at the implementation of String.Format and had always been under the impression that the overloads of String.Format that took 1, 2 & 3 arguments were optimized versions of the method that takes an object array. However, what I found was that internally they create an object array and then call a method that takes an object array. 1 arg public static string Format(string format, object arg0) { if (format == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("format"); } return Format(null, format, new object[] { arg0 }); } 2 args public static string Format(string format, object arg0, object arg1) { if (format == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("format"); } return Format(null, format, new object[] { arg0, arg1 }); } 3 args public static string Format(string format, object arg0, object arg1, object arg2) { if (format == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("format"); } return Format(null, format, new object[] { arg0, arg1, arg2 }); } Object array public static string Format(string format, params object[] args) { if ((format == null) || (args == null)) { throw new ArgumentNullException((format == null) ? "format" : "args"); } return Format(null, format, args); } Internally they all end up using the same code and so using the 1, 2 & 3 argument versions are no faster than the object array version. So my question is - why do they exist? When you use the object array version with a comma separated list of values, the compiler automatically converts the arguments into an object array because of the params/ParamArray keyword which is essentially what the 1, 2 & 3 versions do, so they seem redundant. Why did the BCL designers add these overloads?

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  • Why do IOExceptions occur in ReadableByteChannel.read()

    - by Steffen Heil
    Hi The specification of ReadableByteChannel.read() shows -1 as result value for end-of-stream. Moreover it specifies ClosedByInterruptExceptionas possible result if the thread is interrupted. Now I thought that would be all - and it is most of the time. However, now and then I get the following: java.io.IOException: Eine vorhandene Verbindung wurde vom Remotehost geschlossen at sun.nio.ch.SocketDispatcher.read0(Native Method) at sun.nio.ch.SocketDispatcher.read(SocketDispatcher.java:25) at sun.nio.ch.IOUtil.readIntoNativeBuffer(IOUtil.java:233) at sun.nio.ch.IOUtil.read(IOUtil.java:206) at sun.nio.ch.SocketChannelImpl.read(SocketChannelImpl.java:236) at ... I do not unterstand why I don't get -1 in this case. Also this is not a clean exception, as I cannot catch it without catching any possible IOException. So here are my questions: Why is this exception thrown in the first place? Is it safe to assume that ANY exception thrown by read are about the socket being closed? Is all this the same for write()? And by the way: If I call SocketChannel.close() do I have to call SocketChannel.socket().close() as well or is this implied by the earlier? Thanks, Steffen

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  • Why is Collection<String>.class Illegal?

    - by Peter
    I am puzzled by generics. You can declare a field like: Class<Collection<String>> clazz = ... It seems logical that you could assign this field with: Class<Collection<String>> clazz = Collection<String>.class; However, this generates an error: Syntax error on token ">", void expected after this token So it looks like the .class operator does not work with generics. So I tried: class A<S> {} class B extends A<String> {} Class<A<String>> c = B.class; Also does not work, generates: Type mismatch: cannot convert from Class<Test.StringCollection> to Class<Collection<String>> Now, I really fail to see why this should not work. I know generic types are not reified but in both cases it seems to be fully type safe without having access to runtime generic types. Anybody an idea? Peter Kriens

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  • Why Spark viewengine renders unnecessary (or unexpected) quotes?

    - by Arnis L.
    If i add pageBaseType="Spark.Web.Mvc.SparkView" in my web.config (necessary to fix intellisense), somehow it does not render links (probably not only) correctly anymore. This is how it's supposed to look like (and does, if page base type is not specified)= This is how it looks when base type is specified= Chrome source viewer shows identical page source code for both cases= <body> <div class="content"> <div class="navigation"> <a href="/Employee/List">Employees</a> <a href="/Product/List">Products</a> <a href="/Store/List">Stores</a> <div class="navigation_title"> Navigation</div> </div> <div class="main"> <div class="content"> <h2>Employees</h2>Nothing found... &lt;a href=&quot;/Employee/Create&quot;&gt;Create&lt;/a&gt; </div> </div> </div> </body> Developer tools does not= So - why my link gets htmlencoded (if that's what happens)? If it's default behavior, then how to render raw html? Using latest Spark version, rebuilt with Asp.Net Mvc2 RC assemblies.

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