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  • Grandma's Computer - Can a user that belongs only to the "Users" group in Windows XP install malware, virus or IE addons?

    - by DanC
    I am trying to figure out if having a user in the "Users" group will be enough to prevent her from install unwanted software. The things that I don't want the user to be able to install are: virus malware bandoo stuff Internet Explorer Addons To put you in context, I am thinking of my grandma's computer, I want her to be able to read all her email stuff and attachments, but without the hassle of needing to reinstall the whole computer every few months. The computer will run Windows XP, with some free antivirus. It will not be part of any domain. It is just a home computer. Linux, I have tried making her use it, but she was already accustomed to Windows and was not really an option to have her re-learn where was the shutdown button. So, are these considerations enough to prevent her installing unwanted software? What other options come to you mind? Thanks

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • Problem with the output of Jquery function .offset in IE

    - by vandalk
    Hello! I'm new to jquery and javascript, and to web site developing overall, and I'm having a problem with the .offset function. I have the following code working fine on chrome and FF but not working on IE: $(document).keydown(function(k){ var keycode=k.which; var posk=$('html').offset(); var centeryk=screen.availHeight*0.4; var centerxk=screen.availWidth*0.4; $("span").text(k.which+","+posk.top+","+posk.left); if (keycode==37){ k.preventDefault(); $("html,body").stop().animate({scrollLeft:-1*posk.left-centerxk}) }; if (keycode==38){ k.preventDefault(); $("html,body").stop().animate({scrollTop:-1*posk.top-centeryk}) }; if (keycode==39){ k.preventDefault(); $("html,body").stop().animate({scrollLeft:-1*posk.left+centerxk}) }; if (keycode==40){ k.preventDefault(); $("html,body").stop().animate({scrollTop:-1*posk.top+centeryk}) }; }); hat I want it to do is to scroll the window a set percentage using the arrow keys, so my thought was to find the current coordinates of the top left corner of the document and add a percentage relative to the user screen to it and animate the scroll so that the content don't jump and the user looses focus from where he was. The $("span").text are just so I know what's happening and will be turned into comments when the code is complete. So here is what happens, on Chrome and Firefox the output of the $("span").text for the position variables is correct, starting at 0,0 and always showing how much of the content was scrolled in coordinates, but on IE it starts on -2,-2 and never gets out of it, even if I manually scroll the window until the end of it and try using the right arrow key it will still return the initial value of -2,-2 and scroll back to the beggining. I tried substituting the offset for document.body.scrollLetf and scrollTop but the result is the same, only this time the coordinates are 0,0. Am I doing something wrong? Or is this some IE bug? Is there a way around it or some other function I can use and achieve the same results? On another note, I did other two navigating options for the user in this section of the site, one is to click and drag anywhere on the screen to move it: $("html").mousedown(function(e) { var initx=e.pageX var inity=e.pageY $(document).mousemove(function(n) { var x_inc= initx-n.pageX; var y_inc= inity-n.pageY; window.scrollBy(x_inc*0.7,y_inc*0.7); initx=n.pageX; inity=n.pageY //$("span").text(initx+ "," +inity+ "," +x_inc+ "," +y_inc+ "," +e.pageX+ "," +e.pageY+ "," +n.pageX+ "," +n.pageY); // cancel out any text selections document.body.focus(); // prevent text selection in IE document.onselectstart = function () { return false; }; // prevent IE from trying to drag an image document.ondragstart = function() { return false; }; // prevent text selection (except IE) return false; }); }); $("html").mouseup(function() { $(document).unbind('mousemove'); }); The only part of this code I didn't write was the preventing text selection lines, these ones I found in a tutorial about clicking and draging objects, anyway, this code works fine on Chrome, FireFox and IE, though on Firefox and IE it's more often to happen some moviment glitches while you drag, sometimes it seems the "scrolling" is a litlle jagged, it's only a visual thing and not that much significant but if there's a way to prevent it I would like to know.

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  • What else can I do to secure my Linux server?

    - by eric01
    I want to put a web application on my Linux server: I will first explain to you what the web app will do and then I will tell you what I did so far to secure my brand new Linux system. The app will be a classified ads website (like gumtree.co.uk) where users can sell their items, upload images, send to and receive emails from the admin. It will use SSL for some pages. I will need SSH. So far, what I did to secure my stock Ubuntu (latest version) is the following: NOTE: I probably did some things that will prevent the application from doing all its tasks, so please let me know of that. My machine's sole purpose will be hosting the website. (I put numbers as bullet points so you can refer to them more easily) 1) Firewall I installed Uncomplicated Firewall. Deny IN & OUT by default Rules: Allow IN & OUT: HTTP, IMAP, POP3, SMTP, SSH, UDP port 53 (DNS), UDP port 123 (SNTP), SSL, port 443 (the ones I didn't allow were FTP, NFS, Samba, VNC, CUPS) When I install MySQL & Apache, I will open up Port 3306 IN & OUT. 2) Secure the partition in /etc/fstab, I added the following line at the end: tmpfs /dev/shm tmpfs defaults,rw 0 0 Then in console: mount -o remount /dev/shm 3) Secure the kernel In the file /etc/sysctl.conf, there are a few different filters to uncomment. I didn't know which one was relevant to web app hosting. Which one should I activate? They are the following: A) Turn on Source Address Verification in all interfaces to prevent spoofing attacks B) Uncomment the next line to enable packet forwarding for IPv4 C) Uncomment the next line to enable packet forwarding for IPv6 D) Do no accept ICMP redirects (we are not a router) E) Accept ICMP redirects only for gateways listed in our default gateway list F) Do not send ICMP redirects G) Do not accept IP source route packets (we are not a router) H) Log Martian Packets 4) Configure the passwd file Replace "sh" by "false" for all accounts except user account and root. I also did it for the account called sshd. I am not sure whether it will prevent SSH connection (which I want to use) or if it's something else. 5) Configure the shadow file In the console: passwd -l to lock all accounts except user account. 6) Install rkhunter and chkrootkit 7) Install Bum Disabled those services: "High performance mail server", "unreadable (kerneloops)","unreadable (speech-dispatcher)","Restores DNS" (should this one stay on?) 8) Install Apparmor_profiles 9) Install clamav & freshclam (antivirus and update) What did I do wrong and what should I do more to secure this Linux machine? Thanks a lot in advance

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  • Specifying different initial values for fields in inherited models (django)

    - by Shawn Chin
    Question : What is the recommended way to specify an initial value for fields if one uses model inheritance and each child model needs to have different default values when rendering a ModelForm? Take for example the following models where CompileCommand and TestCommand both need different initial values when rendered as ModelForm. # ------ models.py class ShellCommand(models.Model): command = models.Charfield(_("command"), max_length=100) arguments = models.Charfield(_("arguments"), max_length=100) class CompileCommand(ShellCommand): # ... default command should be "make" class TestCommand(ShellCommand): # ... default: command = "make", arguments = "test" I am aware that one can used the initial={...} argument when instantiating the form, however I would rather store the initial values within the context of the model (or at least within the associated ModelForm). My current approach What I'm doing at the moment is storing an initial value dict within Meta, and checking for it in my views. # ----- forms.py class CompileCommandForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = CompileCommand initial_values = {"command":"make"} class TestCommandForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = TestCommand initial_values = {"command":"make", "arguments":"test"} # ------ in views FORM_LOOKUP = { "compile": CompileCommandFomr, "test": TestCommandForm } CmdForm = FORM_LOOKUP.get(command_type, None) # ... initial = getattr(CmdForm, "initial_values", {}) form = CmdForm(initial=initial) This feels too much like a hack. I am eager for a more generic / better way to achieve this. Suggestions appreciated. Other attempts I have toyed around with overriding the constructor for the submodels: class CompileCommand(ShellCommand): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): kwargs.setdefault('command', "make") super(CompileCommand, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) and this works when I try to create an object from the shell: >>> c = CompileCommand(name="xyz") >>> c.save() <CompileCommand: 123> >>> c.command 'make' However, this does not set the default value when the associated ModelForm is rendered, which unfortunately is what I'm trying to achieve. Update 2 (looks promising) I now have the following in forms.py which allow me to set Meta.default_initial_values without needing extra code in views. class ModelFormWithDefaults(forms.ModelForm): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): if hasattr(self.Meta, "default_initial_values"): kwargs.setdefault("initial", self.Meta.default_initial_values) super(ModelFormWithDefaults, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) class TestCommandForm(ModelFormWithDefaults): class Meta: model = TestCommand default_initial_values = {"command":"make", "arguments":"test"}

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  • How can get unique values from data table using dql?

    - by piemesons
    I am having a table in which there is a column in which various values are stored.i want to retrieve unique values from that table using dql. Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('rec.school') ->from('Records rec') ->where("rec.city='$city' ") ->execute(); Now i want only unique values. Can anybody tell me how to do that... Edit Table Structure: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `records` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `state` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, `city` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, `school` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci AUTO_INCREMENT=16334 ; This is the Query I am using: Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('DISTINCT rec.city') ->from('Records rec') ->where("rec.state = '$state'") // ->getSql(); ->execute(); Generting Sql for this gives me: SELECT DISTINCT r.id AS r__id, r.city AS r__city FROM records r WHERE r.state = 'AR' Now check the sql generated:::: DISTINCT is on 'id' column where as i want Distinct on city column. Anybody know how to fix this. EDIT2 Id is unique cause its an auto incremental value.Ya i have some real duplicates in city column like: Delhi and Delhi. Right.. Now when i am trying to fetch data from it, I am getting Delhi two times. How can i make query like this: select DISTINCT rec.city where state="xyz"; Cause this will give me the proper output. EDIT3: Anybody who can tell me how to figure out this query..???

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  • Spring MessageSource not being used during validation

    - by Jeremy
    I can't get my messages in messages.properties to be used during Spring validation of my form backing objects. app-config.xml: <bean id="messageSource" class="org.springframework.context.support.ResourceBundleMessageSource"> <property name="basename" value="messages" /> </bean> WEB-INF/classes/messages.properties: NotEmpty=This field should not be empty. Form Backing Object: ... @NotEmpty @Size(min=6, max=25) private String password; ... When I loop through all errors in the BindingResult and output the ObjectError's toString I get this: Field error in object 'settingsForm' on field 'password': rejected value []; codes [NotEmpty.settingsForm.password,NotEmpty.password,NotEmpty.java.lang.String,NotEmpty]; arguments [org.springframework.context.support.DefaultMessageSourceResolvable: codes [settingsForm.password,password]; arguments []; default message [password]]; default message [may not be empty] As you can see the default message is "may not be empty" instead of my message "This field should not be empty". I do get my correct message if I inject the messageSource into a controller and output this: messageSource.getMessage("NotEmpty", new Object [] {"password"}, "default empty message", null); So why isn't the validation using my messages.properties? I'm running Spring 3.1.1. Thanks!

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  • Exporting and reformatting data out of MS Excel

    - by Matt H
    I have a huge Excel spreadsheet containing telephone calling rates to a number of different countries. The format of the columns is: Country, RateLocality, Prefixes, Rate, Wholesale e.g. Afganistan, Default, 93;930;931;9321;9322;9323;9324;9325;9326;9327;9328;9329;9331;9332;9333;9334;9335;9336;9337;9338;9339;9341;9342;9343;9344;9345;9346;9347;9348;9349;9351;9352;9353;9354;9355;9356;9357;9358;9359;9361;9362;9363;9364;9365;9366;9367;9368;9369;9371;9372;9373;9374;9376;938;939; $ 1.023, $0.455 These rates change every so often and I need to get them into another system that can import them using CSV. The eventual format is: LD PREPEND CODE ie. 00 or 011,CountryCode,Area Code,Comment,Connect Cost,Included Seconds,Per Minute Cost,Pricelist,Increment So to convert that above line I'd have 00,"Afganistan",93,"Default",1.023,60,1.023,10 00,"Afganistan",931,"Default",1.023,60,1.023,10 ... 00,"Afganistan",939,"Default",1.023,60,1.023,10 Where 00, 60 and 10 are hard coded and merged with the other data from excel. How can I export this data into the required format given that I need to reformat it as it goes. Should I export to XML and use XSLT or some other process to massage the data into CSV? If that is the case, how do I do it simply and quickly.

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  • Switch to switch encryption over a wireless bridge (TrustSec?)

    - by metatheorem
    I am planning to connect an existing Cisco 3750 switch to a 3560C switch over a wireless PTP bridge. The bridge will be WPA2 protected, but I am looking for an additional measure of security between the switches to prevent other wireless access through either switch. They do not support IPSec, only 802.1Q tunnels, and buying additional hardware is not likely an option. I am looking into using TrustSec manual mode between the switches. After some effort reading into TrustSec and MACsec, I am mostly certain this is a good choice over the wireless bridge, keeping in mind it is a shared medium. Two questions: Can I reliably prevent other wireless traffic from accessing the switches using TrustSec? Does anyone know of any better options with the 3000 series switches?

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  • Magento layout related basic Questions ?

    - by user197992
    Here is what I think about Magento (plz correct me if I am wrong ) 1)Each module has its own layout.xml stored in /interface/theme/layouts/ folder. 2)Magento loads all these layouts for current theme and creates a big xml file. Now what I am confused at . a)If magento loads /default/default/ (interface & theme) then why all the templates & layouts are inside base/default/ ?? b)what if I create my module name “page” inside my namespace “Jason” i.e Jason_Page , now what will happen to blocks in layout files which are named c)Since all the layouts are loaded and merged into one big xml file , then what happen to all those reference blocks which have same name attribute and are inside “Default” handle tag ? e.g d)what is Local.xml layout for and its use ?? e)wats the relation ship between a module name foo , and its layout name foo.xml ? What will happen to layout.xml if two modules with same name exist in diff namespace ? Thanks in advance .

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  • Does PCI bus really occupy 1.8GB

    - by Neil
    I am using a Dell Vostro 1700 laptop which currently has 2GB of RAM. I was considering buying some more memory to upgrade it to 4GB. I am running 32 bit Windows Vista and I know that there can be issues that prevent it from making use of a full 4GB which I believe relate to the fact that memory mapped devices, e.g. graphics card, also need to be allocated addresses in the 4GB range addressable with 32 bits. Consequently I was looking at device manager - resources by connection - memory to see what devices where allocated what memory addresses. I was surprised to see that there was an entry for [80000000 - F3FFFFFF] PCI bus. That is a 1.8GB range of addresses. When I expanded it the only thing in it was [E0000000 - EFFFFFFF] NVIDIA GeForce 8600M GT which is only 256MB. So my question is does the PCI bus really occupy 1.8GB of address space and will it prevent my computer from making use of any more memory than it already has.

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  • Re-authentication required for registered-path links (to ASP.NET site) coming to IE from PowerPoint

    - by Daniel Halsey
    We're using URL routing based on Phil Haack's example, with config modifications based on MSDN Library article #CC668202, to provide "shareable" links for a ASP.NET forms site, and have run into a strange issue: For users attempting to open links from PowerPoint presentations, and who have IE set as their default browser, using one of these links forces (forms-based) re-authentication, even in the same browser instance with a live session. Info: We know the session is still alive. (Page returns information for the currently logged-in user; confirmed via debug watches) This doesn't happen with other browsers (FF, Chrome) or with other programs (Notepad++) as the URL source. We do not have a default path set, as this caused issues with root path handling at initial login. This primarily happens with PowerPoint, but will also happen in Word and OCS. On some machines, even after changing the default browser, Office apps will continue to use IE for these links, forcing this error. (A potential registry fix for this failed, but even if it had worked, we can't control default browser choice for our users.) We can't figure out if this is an Office oddity or is being caused by our decision to use app-level URL routing (rather than IIS rewriting). Has anyone else encountered this and found a solution?

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  • How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

    - by sycobuny
    I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

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  • How much does an InnoDB table benefit from having fixed-length rows?

    - by Philip Eve
    I know that dependent on the database storage engine in use, a performance benefit can be found if all of the rows in the table can be guaranteed to be the same length (by avoiding nullable columns and not using any VARCHAR, TEXT or BLOB columns). I'm not clear on how far this applies to InnoDB, with its funny table arrangements. Let's give an example: I have the following table CREATE TABLE `PlayerGameRcd` ( `User` SMALLINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `Game` MEDIUMINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `GameResult` ENUM('Quit', 'Kicked by Vote', 'Kicked by Admin', 'Kicked by System', 'Finished 5th', 'Finished 4th', 'Finished 3rd', 'Finished 2nd', 'Finished 1st', 'Game Aborted', 'Playing', 'Hide' ) NOT NULL DEFAULT 'Playing', `Inherited` TINYINT NOT NULL, `GameCounts` TINYINT NOT NULL, `Colour` TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `Score` SMALLINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL DEFAULT 0, `NumLongTurns` TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL DEFAULT 0, `Notes` MEDIUMTEXT, `CurrentOccupant` TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL DEFAULT 0, PRIMARY KEY (`Game`, `User`), UNIQUE KEY `PGR_multi_uk` (`Game`, `CurrentOccupant`, `Colour`), INDEX `Stats_ind_PGR` (`GameCounts`, `GameResult`, `Score`, `User`), INDEX `GameList_ind_PGR` (`User`, `CurrentOccupant`, `Game`, `Colour`), CONSTRAINT `Constr_PlayerGameRcd_User_fk` FOREIGN KEY `User_fk` (`User`) REFERENCES `User` (`UserID`) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE, CONSTRAINT `Constr_PlayerGameRcd_Game_fk` FOREIGN KEY `Game_fk` (`Game`) REFERENCES `Game` (`GameID`) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE ) ENGINE=INNODB CHARACTER SET utf8 COLLATE utf8_general_ci The only column that is nullable is Notes, which is MEDIUMTEXT. This table presently has 33097 rows (which I appreciate is small as yet). Of these rows, only 61 have values in Notes. How much of an improvement might I see from, say, adding a new table to store the Notes column in and performing LEFT JOINs when necessary?

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  • Is there programming language with better approach for switch's break statements ?

    - by Vitaly Polonetsky
    It's the same syntax in a way too many languages: switch (someValue) { case OPTION_ONE: case OPTION_LIKE_ONE: case OPTION_ONE_SIMILAR: doSomeStuff1(); break; // EXIT the switch case OPTION_TWO_WITH_PRE_ACTION: doPreActionStuff2(); // the default is to CONTINUE to next case case OPTION_TWO: doSomeStuff2(); break; // EXIT the switch case OPTION_THREE: doSomeStuff3(); break; // EXIT the switch } Now all you know that break statements are required, because the switch will continue to the next case when break statement is missing. We have an example of that with OPTION_LIKE_ONE, OPTION_ONE_SIMILAR and OPTION_TWO_WITH_PRE_ACTION. The problem is that we only need this "skip to next case" very very very rarely. And very often we put break at the end of case. It very easy for a beginner to forget about it. And one of my C teachers even explained it to us as if it was a bug in C language (don't want to talk about it :) I would like to ask if there are any other languages that I don't know of (or forgot about) that handle switch/case like this: switch (someValue) { case OPTION_ONE: continue; // CONTINUE to next case case OPTION_LIKE_ONE: continue; // CONTINUE to next case case OPTION_ONE_SIMILAR: doSomeStuff1(); // the default is to EXIT the switch case OPTION_TWO_WITH_PRE_ACTION: doPreActionStuff2(); continue; // CONTINUE to next case case OPTION_TWO: doSomeStuff2(); // the default is to EXIT the switch case OPTION_THREE: doSomeStuff3(); // the default is to EXIT the switch } The second question: is there any historical meaning to why it is like this in C? May be continue to next case was used far more often than we use it these days ?

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  • Is this a situation where I should "hg push -f"?

    - by user144182
    I have two machines, A and B that both access an external hg repository. I did some development on A, wasn't ready to push changesets to the external, and needed to switch machines, so I pushed the changesets to B using hg serve. Changesets continued on B, were committed and then pushed to external repo. I then pulled on A and updated to default/tip. This left the local changesets that had previously been pushed to B as a branch, but because of how I pushed things around, the changes in the local changesets are already in default/tip. I've now continued to make changes and commit locally on A, but when I try to push hg asks me to merge or do push -f instead. I know push -f is almost never recommended. This situation is close to one where I should use rebase, however the changesets that would be "rebased" I don't really need locally or in the external repository since they are already effectively in default/tip via the push to B. Now, I know I could merge with the latest local changeset and just discard the changes, but then I would still have to commit the merge which gets me back into rebase territory. Is this a case where I could do hg push -f? Also, why would pushing from A create remote heads if I've updated to default/tip before I continued to commit changesets?

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  • Change URL Submitted to Depending on Form Selection

    - by Chris
    I have a form which I need to submit to one of three different URLs depending on a selection made in the form. I suspect the easiest solution is to use jQuery to insert the appropriate path before the rest of the form parameters as the selection is made, but not sure on what the code would be. Any pointers greratly appreciated! <form id="myForm" action='/booking/default-path' accept-charset='utf-8' method='get'> <select name="paramA" id="paramA"> <option id="optionA" value="A" selected="selected">Option A</option> <option id="optionB" value="B">Option B</option> </select> <select name="currency" id="currency"> <option id="GBP" value="GBP" selected="selected">British Pounds</option> <option id="EUR" value="EUR">Euros</option> <option id="USD" value="USD">US Dollars</option> </select> <input type="submit" value="submit" id="submit" name="submit" /> </form> Where the three different URLs would be: ../booking/default-path-gbp?...[params here]... ../booking/default-path-eur?...[params here]... ../booking/default-path-usd?...[params here]... I know it would be a lot easier to incorporate the parameter in the usual way and just use one submission URL root, but unfortunately I'm submitting to an eComms system out of my control and am stuck with having to find a solution to this. Should be easy I think, but not sure where to start, jQuery used elsewhere, so would prefer to use this framework in any solutions.

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  • C++: Constructor/destructor unresolved when not inline?

    - by Anamon
    In a plugin-based C++ project, I have a TmpClass that is used to exchange data between the main application and the plugins. Therefore the respective TmpClass.h is included in the abstract plugin interface class that is included by the main application project, and implemented by each plugin. As the plugins work on STL vectors of TmpClass instances, there needs to be a default constructor and destructor for the TmpClass. I had declared these in TmpClass.h: class TmpClass { TmpClass(); ~TmpClass(); } and implemented them in TmpClass.cpp. TmpClass::~TmpClass() {} TmpClass::TmpClass() {} However, when compiling plugins this leads to the linker complaining about two unresolved externals - the default constructor and destructor of TmpClass as required by the std::vector<TmpClass> template instantiation - even though all other functions I declare in TmpClass.h and implement in TmpClass.cpp work. As soon as I remove the (empty) default constructor and destructor from the .cpp file and inline them into the class declaration in the .h file, the plugins compile and work. Why is it that the default constructor and destructor have to be inline for this code to compile? Why does it even maatter? (I'm using MSVC++8).

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  • How to check the correct radio button.

    - by MrW
    I have a Table containing some information that I need. All these rows also contains a column with a radio button in it so that the user is suppose to be able to check one of the rows as default. When I'm bringing the data back from the DB and want to select the one that's currentlly the default one. <% foreach (var item in (IEnumerable<Locale>) ViewData["Locales"]) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.Language.Name) %> </td> <td> <input type="radio" id="defaultLocale" name="defaultLocele" value="on" checked="<%= item.Default == false ? "false" : "true" %>" /> </td> I've also tried to do this: <input type="radio" id="defaultLocale" name="defaultLocele" value="on" checked="<%=item.Default == false ? "" : "checked" %>" /> but nothing seems to do the right thing. I always end up with having the last row in checked, which it isn't for sure.

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  • Handling nulls in Datawarehouse

    - by rrydman
    I'd like to ask your input on what the best practice is for handling null or empty data values when it pertains to data warehousing and SSIS/SSAS. I have several fact and dimension tables that contain null values in different rows. Specifics: 1) What is the best way to handle null date/times values? Should I make a 'default' row in my time or date dimensions and point SSIS to the default row when there is a null found? 2) What is the best way to handle nulls/empty values inside of dimension data. Ex: I have some rows in an 'Accounts' dimensions that have empty (not NULL) values in the Account Name column. Should I convert these empty or null values inside the column to a specific default value? 3) Similar to point 1 above - What should I do if I end up with a Facttable row that has no record in one of the dimension columns? Do I need default dimension records for each dimension in case this happens? 4) Any suggestion or tips in regards to how to handle these operation in Sql server integration services (SSIS)? Best data flow configurations or best transformation objects to use would be helpful. Thanks :-)

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  • Remote Debian System Preventing Logon

    - by choobablue
    I have a dozen or so single board computers on a network running Debian (squeeze) and access them via ssh (ssh server is dropbear). To give an idea of the hardware of these computers they're 1.2 GHz x86 processors, 1GB of RAM and 4GB flash drives formatted as ext2 (I avoided ext3 to prevent the added flash write stress from journaling), there is also a swap partition on the drive. Normally the setup I'm using works great and I can access all the computers. Every once in a while one will prevent access. What happens is I try to connect via ssh (putty) and it gives me the login prompt, I enter the username and password and it responds 'Access Denied' and it will also refuse any public key in ~/.ssh/authorized_keys. The credentials are correct as they worked previously. The computer responds to pings and putty recognizes the server public key, which implies to me the system is still running. Restarting the server fixes the problem and I can log in again. (I tried a temporary fix of putting shutdown -r now in the root crontab but this doesn't seem to reliably be run once the hang happens) Once I restart however there doesn't seem to be any information in any of the system logs to indicate what happened, the logs are simply empty for that time period, as if the system had crashed. There is some custom software running on the system which appears to stop working (which is why I wanted to ssh to begin with). I'm assuming that this program is the source of the problems but I'm unsure of how it would cause it and how to debug what is happening. The most likely explanation I can think of is that there is a memory leak in the other program that then prevents dropbear from spawning a new login shell (and crontab from executing shutdown) as there is not enough free memory. But looking at memory usage of the other (working) computers there doesn't seem to be any meaningful increase in memory to indicate a leak (unless it's a very big, fast acting and rare leak). I would think that when the OS ran out of memory it would restart the system or kill processes (the Linux kernel restarts right?). The other thing I wonder about is if the fact that they are running off a flash drive could have some effect, especially the swap partition (which I think I should remove to prevent wear of the flash), but the flash drives are young (~1 month) and I don't think that wear would be a factor yet. Does anybody have an idea of what could cause these symptoms, if it could be done by a memory leak, or something else I haven't thought of. And does anybody know of a method to try to debug the problem and find out more information about what's going wrong?

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  • SQL Server Connection Timeout C#

    - by Termin8tor
    First off I'd like to let everyone know I have searched my particular problem and can't seem to find what's causing my problem. I have an SQL Server 2008 instance running on a network machine and a client I have written connecting to it. To connect I have a small segment of code that establishes a connection to an sql server 2008 instance and returns a DataTable populated with the results of whatever query I run against the server, all pretty standard stuff really. Anyway the issue is, whenever I open my program and call this method, upon the first call to my method, regardless as to what I've set my Connection Timeout value as in the connection string, it takes about 15 seconds and then times out. Bizarrely though the second or third call I make to the method will work without a problem. I have opened up the ports for SQL Server on the server machine as outlined in this article: How to Open firewall ports for SQL Server and verified that it is correctly configured. Can anyone see a particular problem in my code? string _connectionString = "Server=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlServer + "; Initial Catalog=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlInitialCatalog + ";User Id=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlUsername + ";Password=" + @Properties.Settings.Default.sqlPassword + "; Connection Timeout=1"; private DataTable ExecuteSqlStatement(string command) { using (SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) { try { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataAdapter adaptor = new SqlDataAdapter(command, conn)) { DataTable table = new DataTable(); adaptor.Fill(table); return table; } } catch (SqlException e) { throw e; } } } The SqlException that is caught at my catch is : "Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding." This occurs at the conn.Open(); line in the code snippet I have included. If anyone has any ideas that'd be great!

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