Search Results

Search found 7570 results on 303 pages for 'doug hope'.

Page 194/303 | < Previous Page | 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201  | Next Page >

  • Hyper-V vss-writer not making current copies

    - by Martinnj
    I'm using diskshadow to backup live Hyper-V machines on a Windows 2008 server. The backup consists of 3 scripts, the first will create the shadow copies and expose them, the second uses robocopy to copy them to a remote location and the third unexposes the shadow copies again. The first script – the one that runs correctly but fails to do what it's supposed to: # DiskShadow script file to backup VM from a Hyper-V host # First, delete any shadow copies of the drives. System Drives needs to be included. Delete Shadows volume C: Delete Shadows volume D: Delete Shadows volume E: #Ensure that shadow copies will persist after DiskShadow has run set context persistent # make sure the path already exists set verbose on begin backup add volume D: alias VirtualDisk add volume C: alias SystemDrive # verify the "Microsoft Hyper-V VSS Writer" writer will be included in the snapshot # NOTE: The writer GUID is exclusive for this install/machine, must be changed on other machines! writer verify {66841cd4-6ded-4f4b-8f17-fd23f8ddc3de} create end backup # Backup is exposed as drive X: make sure your drive letter X is not in use Expose %VirtualDisk% X: Exit The next is just a robocopy and then an unexpose. Now, when I run the above script, I get no errors from it, except that the "BITS" writer has been excluded because none of its components are included. That's okay because I really only need the Hyper-V writer. Also I double checked the GUID for the writer, it's correct. During the time when the Hyper-V writer becomes active, 2 things will happen on the guest machines: The Debian/Linux machine will go to a saved state and restore when done, all fine. The Windows guests will "creating vss snapshop-sets" or something similar. Then X: gets exposed and I can copy the .vhd files over. The problem is, for some reason, the VHD files I get over seems to be old copies, they miss files, users and updates that are on the actual machines. I also tried putting the machines in a saved sate manually, didn't change the outcome. I hope someone here has an idea of how to solve this.

    Read the article

  • Scaling databases with cheap SSD hard drives

    - by Dennis Kashkin
    Hey guys! I hope that many of you are working with high traffic database-driven websites, and chances are that your main scalability issues are in the database. I noticed a couple of things lately: Most large databases require a team of DBAs in order to scale. They constantly struggle with limitations of hard drives and end up with very expensive solutions (SANs or large RAIDs, frequent maintenance windows for defragging and repartitioning, etc.) The actual annual cost of maintaining such databases is in $100K-$1M range which is too steep for me :) Finally, we got several companies like Intel, Samsung, FusionIO, etc. that just started selling extremely fast yet affordable SSD hard drives based on SLC Flash technology. These drives are 100 times faster in random read/writes than the best spinning hard drives on the market (up to 50,000 random writes per second). Their seek time is pretty much zero, so the cost of random I/O is the same as sequential I/O, which is awesome for databases. These SSD drives cost around $10-$20 per gigabyte, and they are relatively small (64GB). So, there seems to be an opportunity to avoid the HUGE costs of scaling databases the traditional way by simply building a big enough RAID 5 array of SSD drives (which would cost only a few thousand dollars). Then we don't care if the database file is fragmented, and we can afford 100 times more disk writes per second without having to spread the database across 100 spindles. . Is anybody else interested in this? I've been testing a few SSD drives and can share my results. If anybody on this site has already solved their I/O bottleneck with SSDs, I would love to hear your war stories! PS. I know that there are plenty of expensive solutions out there that help with scalability, for example the time proven RAM-based SANs. I want to be clear that even $50K is too expensive for my project. I have to find a solution that costs no more than $10K and does not take much time to implement.

    Read the article

  • How should I perform database maintenance on a 24x7 system

    - by solublefish
    I'm a software developer who inherited a part-time DBA role. I'm responsible for an application backed by a small, high-volume 24x7 database on SQL Server 2008. While there's other stuff in the DB, the critical piece is a 50GB, 7.5M row table that serves 100K requests/sec during peak load, and about half that at "night". This is 99%+ read traffic, but the writes are constant, and required. I need to be able to perform periodic maintenance without a maintenance window. Say an index rebuild, a job to purge old data, Windows Update, or hardware upgrade. Most of the advice I've seen is along the lines of "MAKE a maintenance window." While I appreciate the sentiment, I hope there's another way. If it will solve this problem, I do have the ability to purchase new hardware or modify the database, the clients (a set of web services servers), and much of the application code (ADO.NET + ASP.NET). I've been thinking along the lines of using the warm spare (or a 3rd server) to do the maintenance, and then "swap" it into production. 1 Synchronize the spare by restoring backups, including a current transaction log. 2 Perform the maintenance tasks. 3 Reconfigure clients to connect to the spare server. Existing connections are finished within a minute or so. 4 The spare server is now the production server. The problem remaining is that the new production server is now out of date by however long it took to perform maintenance. Is there some way that the original production server can be made to queue up changes and merge them to the spare between steps 2 and 3? Any other ideas?

    Read the article

  • General name for Macs' operating system

    - by andy124
    First of all, I hope that my question is fairly suitable for this site. I have a website where I would like to write articles about some operating systems. Therefore, I have created a main category called "Operating systems". Within a subcategory, I would like to write articles about Apple's operating system that is running on Macs. However, I do not know what to name this category. I have always thought the name was just OS X, but come to think about it, the "X" is actually part of the version (10). Therefore I cannot exactly call my category OS X, because what about when OS 11 is released in a few years? And since Apple has gone from Mac OS X to just OS X, then I cannot use "Mac OS". And, if I remove the X from OS X, then I only have "OS" left, which does not seem so proper. I am really looking for a meaningful all-round name for the Macs' operating system that does not involve the versioning. I was thinking about just calling the category "Mac", but that is not precise either - but perhaps the closest I can get?

    Read the article

  • RTNETLINK answers: File exists... maybe because assigned a new mac adress

    - by steven
    I got a "RTNETLINK answers: File exists Failed to bring up eth0:1" on "ifup eth0:1". I suspect it happens because i assigned a new mac adress in my VM's network adapter. Can you tell me how to fix the issue? My configuration looks like this: # The loopback network interface auto lo iface lo inet loopback # The primary network interface auto eth0 allow-hotplug eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 192.168.1.80 netmask 255.255.255.0 gateway 192.168.1.1 dns-nameservers 192.168.1.1 # Alias being connected to 192.168.10.x Network auto eth0:1 allow-hotplug eth0:1 iface eth0:1 inet static address 192.168.10.83 netmask 255.255.255.0 gateway 192.168.10.10 dns-nameservers 192.168.10.1 Why do I get "RTNETLINK answer: File exists.." suddenly? I worked with this configuration before without problems. All i did in the past is to renew the adapters mac adress. At the moment I am connected to the 192.168.10.x Network and if I do /etc/init.d/networking stop /etc/init.d/networking start then i got "RTNETLINK [...] falied to bring up eth0:1" but the strage thing is that i am able to connect to 192.168.10.83 via ssh from my host machine. But I cannot reach the internet from the debian client. I hope it is clear what my problem is, now. update if i change my /etc/network/interfaces like this then "ifup eth0" fails, too with the same error! # The loopback network interface auto lo iface lo inet loopback # The primary network interface auto eth0 allow-hotplug eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 192.168.10.83 netmask 255.255.255.0 gateway 192.168.10.10 dns-nameservers 192.168.10.1 with verbose option enabled i got: Configuring interfache eth0=eth0 (inet) run-parts --verbose /etc/network/if-pre-up.d ip addr add 192.168.10.83/255.255.255.0 broadcast 192.168.10.255 dev eth0 label eth0 RTNETLINK answers: File exists Failed to bring up eth0. same if i type this manually: ip addr add 192.168.10.83/255.255.255.0 broadcast 192.168.10.255 dev eth0 label eth0

    Read the article

  • which vista services can be disabled with impunity?

    - by GwenKillerby
    I use Vista on a HP pavilion DV2 laptop. When I look through all the services my laptop starts, it really seems there's way too much of it. I multi boot with XP and 7. Both startup in 40 seconds. Vista takes four minutes. Is there some software that can determine which services I don't need? On 7, there's no propietary HP stuff at all, yet it seems to run fine. Because all these service, there's a LOT of them and some just sit there doing nothing, monitoring for updates I don't really need or want or need to know about the second they're available. my laptop is the only computer i use at home, there's no home network, aside from the modem-router, which is cabled, not wifi. Take for instance Parental controls, and stuff for people with bad eyesight, Tablet PC. I really never use any of that stuff. Hope this question is specific enough. I've looked at the other questions but they didn't answer me. thanks, Gwen.

    Read the article

  • Mailman delivery troubles

    - by stanigator
    I have apparently posted at the wrong place (superuser.com) for this question, so I'll just repost it here. Hope those of you who read both sites are not going to be offended. It's about mailing list management software called Mailman from GNU. Here are the details: Hosting provider: Vlexofree Domain: www.sysil.com with Google Apps Mailing List created from hosting cpanel: [email protected] I have registered a list of subscribers, and tried sending an email to [email protected]. I got the following error message: Delivery to the following recipient failed permanently: [email protected] Technical details of permanent failure: Google tried to deliver your message, but it was rejected by the recipient domain. We recommend contacting the other email provider for further information about the cause of this error. The error that the other server returned was: 550 550-5.1.1 The email account that you tried to reach does not exist. Please try 550-5.1.1 double-checking the recipient's email address for typos or 550-5.1.1 unnecessary spaces. Learn more at 550 5.1.1 http://mail.google.com/support/bin/answer.py?answer=6596 23si6479194ewy.44 (state 14). ----- Original message ----- MIME-Version: 1.0 Received: by 10.216.90.136 with SMTP id e8mr1469147wef.110.1264220118960; Fri, 22 Jan 2010 20:15:18 -0800 (PST) Date: Fri, 22 Jan 2010 20:15:18 -0800 Message-ID: <[email protected]> Subject: From: Stanley Lee <[email protected]> To: [email protected] Content-Type: multipart/alternative; boundary=0016e6dab0931bccc3047dcd2f1e - Show quoted text - Is there any way of fixing this problem? I would like to be able to have this mailing list to work through my hosting and domain. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Single m0n0wall - Two LAN Subnets - How To Setup

    - by SnAzBaZ
    I have two LAN subnets that I need to link together they are 192.168.4.0/24 and 192.168.5.0/24 There is a m0n0wall running on 192.168.4.1. It's LAN connection goes out to our network switch, and it's WAN port goes out to our ADSL modem. WAN is connected via PPPoE. The 192.168.4.0 subnet contains all of our office workstations. The 192.168.5.0 subnet contains development servers and test machines that need to obtain internet access and be "managed" by computers on the 192.168.4.0 subnet, but need to be on their own subnet as well. I have a Draytek 2820N configured on 192.168.5.1 with it's WAN2 port configured as 192.168.4.25 and a default gateway of 192.168.4.1. Machines on the 5.0 subnet can connect to the internet via the m0n0wall just fine. I configured a static route on the m0n0wall LAN interface, Network 192.168.5.0/24 and Gateway 192.168.4.25. Machines on the 5.0 subnet can ping machines on the 4.0 network but the reverse does not work. I configured a new firewall rule on the m0n0wall that allows any traffic on the LAN interface with a source IP of 192.168.4.25 to be allowed. The DrayTek firewall is currently configured to pass all traffic regardless. When I try to ping a machine in the 5.0 subnet from 4.0 I see this in my m0n0wall log: BLOCK 14:45:27.888157 LAN 192.168.4.25 192.168.4.37, type echoreply/0 ICMP So the reply is being sent from the 5.0 subnet but is not being allowed to reach my workstation because the firewall is blocking it. Why is the firewall blocking it ? I hope the explanation of my network is clear, please ask if you require further clarification. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Setting up ssh config file with id_rsa through tunnel

    - by Rubens
    I've been struggling to set up a valid configuration to open a connection with a second machine, passing through another one, and using an id_rsa (which requests me a password) to connect to the third machine. I've asked this question in another forum, but I've received no answer that could be considered very helpful. The problem, better described, goes as follows: Local machine: user1@localhost Intermediary machine: user1@inter Remote target: user2@final I'm able to do the entire connection using pseudo-tty: ssh -t inter ssh user2@final (this will ask me the password for the id_rsa file I have in machine "inter") However, for speeding things up, I'd like to set my .ssh/config file, so that I can simply connect to machine "final" using: ssh final What I've got so far -- which does not work -- is, in my .ssh/config file: Host inter User user1 HostName inter.com IdentityFile ~/.ssh/id_rsa Host final User user2 HostName final.com IdentityFile ~/.ssh/id_rsa_2 ProxyCommand ssh inter nc %h %p The id_rsa file is used to connect to the middle machine (this requires me no password typing), and id_rsa_2 file is used to connect to machine "final" (this one requests a password). I've tried mixing up some LocalForward and/or RemoteForward fields, and putting the id_rsa files in both first and second machines, but I could not seem to succeed with no configuration whatsoever. Hope somebody can help me here! Regards! P.S.: the thread I've tried to get some help from: http://www.linuxquestions.org/questions/linux-general-1/proxycommand-on-ssh-config-file-4175433750/

    Read the article

  • Configure a Windows PC as network appliance w/o monitor, keyboard and mouse

    - by Joshua Lim
    I intend to use a small form factor PC with Windows 7 Professional installed as a network appliance attached directly to my customer's LAN without connecting a monitor, keyboard or mouse. How should I configure the networking for my PC so that I can access it via say my laptop? I figure that I can do it 2 ways. Attach my laptop to the PC using a crossover cable? Connect via RDP and configure networking. Configure an IP address on the PC before I deliver it to the customer place. At the customer's place, attach the PC to LAN and connect to the IP address which I previously configured from my laptop or from one of the customer's workstations. I know the first way is doable, but is the second way possible? I'm sorry if this question sounds ridiculous - I am Delphi programmer but a novice on networking. Finally, if possible, I hope to make the configuration process web based as I wouldn't like to reveal the fact that I am using Win7 Pro for the network appliance!

    Read the article

  • How to set up a PRIVATE vimwiki on Dropbox.com

    - by Zongheng Yang
    Hi everyone, I assume those who are reading this page know what vimwiki and dropbox.com are and what they are for, so I might directly go into my confusion. The common way of setting a PRIVATE vimwiki on dropbox is simply let your vimwiki directories be under Dropbox folder (but not Dropbox/Public/ because it would be PUBLIC). Dropbox allows directly viewing html with dropbox.com/* url: for example a index.html can be accessed by url https://dl-web.dropbox.com/get/Wiki/html/index.html?w=bfead71a, being added after the file name a specified string, ?w=bfead71a. Hence, if inside index.html there is reference to A.html, which is located in the same folder index.html is in, it has to be accessed using some url like https://dl-web.dropbox.com/get/Wiki/html/index.html?w=SPECIFIED_STRING. But it is seemingly impossible to hack vimwiki in order to make the hrefs in converted htmls corrected in this way. Is there some approach that can resolve this problem? I hope I make myself clear. Had you any questions, please ask me for further explanations. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • IIS 7.5 truncating POST body containing JSON data with ASP.NET MVC 3

    - by Guneet Sahai
    I'm facing a problem which I hope is a configuration thing with IIS but is right now giving a lot of trouble. Basically I have a controller that accepts a JSON and does some processing. While it generally works fine, but every now and then when the system has some load I get an error. After some painful debugging, we figured the incoming JSON gets truncated which causes the deserialzer to fail. To narrow down the problem - we wrote a simple controller that accepts a JSON and tries to deserialize it. In case it fails it just logs it. This works fine but when I hit it using a load testing tool (JMeter) it throws the same error (truncation) for a few requests. The # of failures increased when I increase parallel connections. It starts showing with 150 concurrent requests. We are running IIS 7 on windows 2008 server with ASP.Net MVC 3 with more or less default configuration of IIS. More information available in my question below http://stackoverflow.com/questions/12662282/content-length-of-http-request-body-size

    Read the article

  • Strange 400 error with IIS 7.5 and a webservice?

    - by Juw
    Ok, this is a longshot. I have been pondering this for hours. I have no clue how to solve this. But maybe someone here can recognize the problem and point me to right direction. I have an IIS 7.5 server and a MSSQL database on a different server. On the IIS server there is a webservice that communicates with the MSSQL server. The problem is that when there is data that the MSSQL server needs to send back to the webservice and the webservice delivers that back to the webbrowser (JSON) i get a 400 error. Looking through the logs for the IIS there is just a 400....nothing more. When i put in a call to the service in my browsers URL field i get this: "The server encountered an error processing the request. Please see the service help page for constructing valid requests to the service." There is NOTHING wrong with how i call the webservice. It has worked before on a different server (a dev server). Do someone have a clue on what this can be about? 400 means malformed URL...it isn´t. And why is that when there are no data to return to the user...everything works. But when there is data fetched from the MSSQL DB...the 400 error shows up. Hope someone have some tips how to solve it. Thanx in advance.

    Read the article

  • Implementing an isolated guest WLAN via IPSec VPN on Windows

    - by sysadmin1138
    We are attempting to set up a guest WLAN network that is isolated from the rest of our network. This is proving difficult due to a couple of technical reasons. My first choice was to use a separate VLAN, on which our Firewall's handy WLAN port would handle DHCP, DNS and the network isolation we need. Unfortunately, due to the fact that our main office and our Internet connection itself are in different locations connected by way of a Metro Ethernet connection, I'm at the mercy of our ISP for VLAN transit. They won't pass a second VLAN between our two sites. And my hardware doesn't support 802.1ad "Q-in-Q", which would also solve this problem. So I can't use the VLAN method for isolation. At least not without spending money. As our Firewall can handle IPSec site-to-site VPN connections, I hope it is possible to connect a Server 2008R2 (standard) server I have in the office location to the WLAN and provide gateway services to the firewall. Thusly: Unfortunately, I don't know if it is possible to connect the two this way. The firewall has a pretty flexible IPSec/L2TP implementation (I've used it to connect iPads in the wild), but is neither Kerberized or supports NTLM. The Connection Security Rules view on the Windows server seems to get close to what I think needs to be done, but I'm failing on figuring out how to get it to do what I need it to do. Is this even possible, or do I need to pursue alternate solution?

    Read the article

  • Windows is very slow with my new SSD

    - by Maksym H.
    I have a laptop HP probook 4520s with Core i5 M480 @ 2.67Ghz, 4Gb RAM, 640 GB HDD Radeon HD 6370m 1GB video card. It would seem like a good stack for work, right? But My HDD has crashed after everyday walking with laptop about 1 year. After buying my new SSD (Patriot memory - Torqx II 128 Gb SATA II) and installing new Windows 8 from scratch - it was amazing fast. But I had only install windows updates, and I feel that the speed become the same as my old HDD, after install other software for my work, it becomes so slow, so when I use my PC with old lower configuration and it really works better than my awesome laptop... I checked that TRIM and AHCI mode are turned on. So why's that? I asked for help in Patriot Memory support, they suggested to send them ATTO test results, done, sent. Here is the response: "Thank you very much for the attached results. Looking at the results, I can see that your SSD speed is a lot lower than it should be. Can you tell me your system specs?" Until they checked my email, I re-installed Windows 8 to Windows 7 and it was again perfect, but the story repeats it becomes slower and slower after every installing new software. Check out some screenshots.. (sorry for the screenshot with russian TaskManager, I hope you will recognize those parameters accordingly with your english or other lang TaskManager) So the main issue that something everytime loads the disc on 100% and the response time is jumping around 1000-3000 ms. Why am I asking about Windows? Because I tried to install Linux Mint (x86) and It just flies. So great performance independent on how many programs I have installed. Only Windows (any 7 or 8) has this problem. So guys, I appreciate any ideas about how to fix that and may be answers of main question - "why is it so.?" Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Understanding Authorized Access to your Google Account

    - by firebush
    I'm having trouble understanding what I'm am granting to sites when they have "Authorized Access to my Google Account." This is how I see what has authorized access: Log into gmail. Click on the link that is my name in the upper-right corner, and from the drop-down select Account. From the list of links to the left, select Security. Click on Edit next to Authorized applications and sites. Authenticate again. At the top of the page, I see a set of sites that have authorized access to my account in various ways. I'm having trouble finding out information about what is being told to me here. There's no "help" link anywhere on the page and my Google searches are coming up unproductive. From the looks of what I see there, Google has access to my Google calendar. I feel comfortable about that, I think. But other sites have authorization to "Sign in using your Google account". My question is, what exactly does that authorization mean? What do the sites that have authorization to "Sign in using my Google account" have the power to do? I hope that this simply means that they authorize using the same criterion that gmail does. I assume that this doesn't grant them the ability to access my email. Can someone please calm my paranoia by describing (or simply pointing me to a site that describes) what these terms mean exactly? Also, if you have any thoughts about the safety of this feature, please share. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Undeliverable e-mail message from [email protected]

    - by QGfisher
    I am responsible for IT for a small charity and we have a problem with a few individuals who e-mail us on our hosted e-mail addresses. The individual is on btconnect and our server is also on BT broadband and using MSExchange. I understand that the message from [email protected] are generated by Exchange but can't tell whether this is a problem with our server (seems unlikely as most people send and receive e-mails perfectly well) or with the sender's server. I have copied a sample test message below and would be very grateful if somebody can explain what is causing this problem. I have * the personal details - hope that's acceptable but I don't want to compromise the individual's identity/security. ----- Original Message ----- From: "System Administrator" To: "****" <****.***@btconnect.com Sent: Tuesday, April 06, 2010 3:26 PM Subject: Undeliverable: Test Message Your message To: ***** Subject: Test Message Sent: Tue, 6 Apr 2010 15:25:59 +0100 did not reach the following recipient(s): ***@quiltersguild.org.uk on Tue, 6 Apr 2010 15:26:07 +0100 The e-mail account does not exist at the organization this message was sent to. Check the e-mail address, or contact the recipient directly to find out the correct address.

    Read the article

  • CIFS Mounting Permissions

    - by malco
    I have an issue that I;m going round in circles with, I hope you can help. The Set up: Server 1 (CIFS Client) - CentOS 6.3 AD integrated uing Samba/Winbind & idmap_ad Server 2 (CIFS Server) - CentOS 6.3 AD integrated uing Samba/Winbind & idmap_ad All users (apart from root) are AD authenticated and this, including groups, etc works happily. What's working: I have created a share on Server 2: [share2] path = /srv/samba/share2 writeable = yes Permissions on the share: drwxrwx---. 2 root domain users 4096 Oct 12 09:21 share2 I can log into a Windows machine as user5 (member of domain users) and everything works as it should, for example: If I create a file it shows the correct permissions and attributes on both the MS and the Linux sides. Where I Fall Down: I mount the share on Server 1 using: # mount //server2/share2 /mnt/share2/ -o username=cifsmount,password=blah,domain=blah Or using fstab: //server2/share2 /mnt/share2 cifs credentials=/blah/.creds 0 0 This mounts fine, but.... If I log su, or log onto server 1 as a normal user (say user5) and try to create a file I get: #touch test touch test touch: cannot touch `test': Permission denied Then if I check the folder the file was created but as the cifsmount user: -rw-r--r--. 1 cifsmount domain users 0 Oct 12 09:21 test I can rename, delete, move or copy stuff around as user5, I just can't create anything, what am I doing wrong? I'm guessing it's something to do with the mount action as when I log onto server2 as user5 and access the folder locally it all works as it should. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • How to connect 2 routers (Asmax and D-link)

    - by piobyz
    I just bought a new router, D-link DSL 2641B and want to connect it to another one, provided by my ISP, Asmax AR 804MP. Previously, I had Linksys WRT350N, and there was no problem, while I had Ethernet cable plugged in to one of LAN ports in Asmax and INTERNET(RJ45) port in Linksys, connection used PPPoE protocol -- worked OK. D-link has DSL(RJ11) port (which I don't want to use as Asmax replacement, while there is a separate Ethernet cable with a TV plugged to Asmax, which I don't want to configure from scratch on D-link). How should I connect my new D-link to work with Asmax? Via DSL port? Via one of the LAN ports (in which case I probably should change the purpose of this port in the config, I guess?). I tried connecting D-link both ways: LAN(ASMAX) to LAN(DLINK) LAN(ASMAX) to DSL(DLINK) (using RJ11 - RJ45 cable) I hope there is some setting in the DLINK's config that I overlooked. I haven't tried to see what's in ASMAX's config, but I guess I don't need to change anything there, while Linksys worked just fine? The only difference I see, is that D-link has RJ11 DSL port as WAN, and Linksys has RJ45 (called by them INTERNET) as a main WAN port.

    Read the article

  • Broad Band LAN connection through existing 6 wire phone line ( no phone connected )

    - by Paul Taylor
    I have an (up to but never achieved ) 10 mb broadband signal coming into my house along the telephone line. The modem then connects the broadband signal via a LAN connection and Wi-Fi signal to my computers and iPad. My workshop desk is 54 yards (approx. 50m) downhill from the modem (part of a separate building) – too far to give a good direct signal. The inside corner of the workshop (by a window) receives a weak signal. I have a disconnected telephone cable consisting of 6 wires going from the house to the workshop. The telephone is no longer used in the workshop - we use our mobile number for business calls. A broad band signal using the cable would not have to share with a phone. What would be the most economic price/efficient way to get the broadband signal to the workshop? I am writing in hope that since the telephone didn't need the six wires, an Ethernet connection might be similar and not need all the eight wires for a LAN connection. In theory could use the telephone wire to pull an Ethernet cable trough the underground pipe but I doubt if the cable would survive the strain. The broad band connection in the workshop does not have to have network facility. My skill level is high enough to do house wiring, plumbing and gas fitting; so given any sound advice and a wiring diagram or instructions I can probably work out the rest myself.

    Read the article

  • configure a Macbook Pro to use external monitor at boot (Debian Linux)

    - by Eric
    In the spirit of reuse, I've installed Debian (version 6.0.5 "squeeze") on my wife’s old Macbook Pro (circa 2009 or so), to repurpose it for various tasks. The catch is the display is flaky. It will last a random amount of time, between 2 minutes and 2 hours, before freezing and graying out. This is a known issue with that generation of MBP. Fortunately it’s no problem for me, as I plan to use it with an external monitor anyway. Which brings us to the problem: How do I configure this thing to output to the external display by default, and hopefully disable the built-in LCD? The ideal solution would be to modify a setting in the EFI (BIOS), but I’m not holding out much hope for that. Next best thing would be a kernel option I can pass to the NVIDIA driver. What won’t work is a solution that doesn’t give me a display until X starts. I need to have console access, especially given that the built-in LCD is dying, and any day now might give out completely. So far I haven’t been able to find anything online. lspci says I’ve got an NVIDIA GeForce 9400M Help is much appreciated! Eric PS if this question is better suited to the Unix & Linux area, pls advise and I will move it.

    Read the article

  • Office Compatibility Pack and File Permissions

    - by hymie
    MS isn't my thing, so I hope somebody can give me a pointer. We have a Windows domain, with a Server-2003-SP1-Enterprise file server. One of the specific files is a MS Excel 2007 (XLSX) file created by user LK. In the "Security" preferences setting, about a half-dozen users (including me) have access to this file. LK is the owner and has "full control", while the rest of us have "Read" , "Read & Execute", and "Write" permission. LK is also the owner of the directory that this file resides in. I don't know if that's relevant. So far so good. My desktop machine has Windows XP SP3 , and Excel 2003 SP3 , and the "Office Compatibility Pack" which lets me read and write the new XLSX files. However, whenever I write the file, the permissions are changed. The newly-written file only has permissions for LK and me, and both are "Full control" So in short, what am I doing wrong, and how should I set this up to do it right, keeping the permissions on the file that were there when I started?

    Read the article

  • running a command as root with /bin/su and without gives different results

    - by n00bInCpp
    Some background: I have a machine with SLES 11 installed. I am running a bash script that one of its lines is /bin/su $USER -c SOME_CMD. Unfortunately, the SOME_CMD that comes after the -c keeps failing, no matter if USER=root or any different user. However, if /bin/su $USER -c part is omitted then everything runs smoothly. Moreover, I have run the script on RHEL5 and it worked fine. Anyway, my question is why does it happen? If it is a permissions problems then why when I run this as root with /bin/su and without I get different results? P.S. apologize if somebody else has asked it before, I have done many googling and got nothing that satisfies. Thanks in advance, n00bInCpp EDIT Okay, I figured it out, I hope so. Instead of running /bin/su I used /user/bin/sudo -u $MY_USER_1 MY_ENV_VAR="/home/user1" SOME_CMD. I don't understand why I have to use sudo, though. I am used to run a command as a different user using su and not worrying about permissions problems, but I guess it doesn't work like that on SLES 11/SuSE. Anyhow, thanks to everyone who wanted to or helped me.

    Read the article

  • Rebuilding LVM after RAID recovery

    - by Xiong Chiamiov
    I have 4 disks RAID-5ed to create md0, and another 4 disks RAID-5ed to create md1. These are then combined via LVM to create one partition. There was a power outage while I was gone, and when I got back, it looked like one of the disks in md1 was out of sync - mdadm kept claiming that it only could find 3 of the 4 drives. The only thing I could do to get anything to happen was to use mdadm --create on those four disks, then let it rebuild the array. This seemed like a bad idea to me, but none of the stuff I had was critical (although it'd take a while to get it all back), and a thread somewhere claimed that this would fix things. If this trashed all of my data, then I suppose you can stop reading and just tell me that. After waiting four hours for the array to rebuild, md1 looked fine (I guess), but the lvm was complaining about not being able to find a device with the correct UUID, presumably because md1 changed UUIDs. I used the pvcreate and vgcfgrestore commands as documented here. Attempting to run an lvchange -a y on it, however, gives me a resume ioctl failed message. Is there any hope for me to recover my data, or have I completely mucked it up?

    Read the article

  • Recover data from Dynamic Disk (MBR) bigger than 2TB

    - by Helder
    Here is the situation: Promise Array FastTrak TX4310 with 3 disks (750 GB each) in RAID5. This comes to around 1500 GB of data. Last week I had the idea of expanding the RAID with an additional 750 GB disk. This would bring the volume to around 2250 GB. I plugged the disk and used the Webpam software to do the RAID expansion. However, I didn't count with the MBR 2TB limit, as I didn't remembered that the disk was using MBR instead of GPT and I didn't check it prior to the expansion. After a couple of days of expansion, today when I got home, the disk in Windows disk manager showed the message "Invalid disk" and when I try to activate it, it says "The operation is not allowed on the Invalid pack". From what I figured, the logical volume on the RAID expanded, and passed that info to the Windows layer and I ended up with an "larger than 2TB" MBR disk. I'm hopping that somehow I can still recover some data from this, and I was wondering if I can "rewrite" the MBR structure back to the 1500 GB partition size, so I can access the partition in Windows. Right now I'm doing an "Analyse" with TestDisk, as I hope the program will pickup the old 1500 structure and allow me to somehow revert back to it. I think that even though the Logical Drive in the RAID is bigger than the 2TB, I can somehow correct the MBR to show the 1500 GB partition again. I had a similar problem once, and I was able to recover the data using a similar method. What do you guys think? Is it a dead end? Am I totally screwed because there is the extra RAID layer that I'm not counting? Or is there other way to move with this? Thanks all!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201  | Next Page >