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• MySQL table organization and optimization (Rails)

  - by aguynamedloren

  I've been learning Ruby on Rails over the past few months with no prior programming experience. Lately, I've been thinking about database optimization and table organization. I know there are great books on the subject, but I typically learn by example / as I go. Here's a hypothetical situation: Let's say I am building a social network for a niche community with 250,000 members (users). The users have the ability to attend events. Let's say there are 50,000 past/present/future events. Much like Facebook events, a user can attend any number of events and an event can have any number of attendees. In the database, there would be a table for users and a table for events. Somehow I would have to create an association between the users and events. I could create an "events" column in the users table such that each user row would contain a hash of event IDs, or I could create an "attendees" column in the events table such that each event row would contain a hash of user IDs. Neither of these solutions seem ideal, however. On a users profile page, I want to display the list of events they are associated with, which would require scanning the 50,000 event rows for the user ID of said user if I include an "attendees" column in the events table. Likewise, on an event page, I want to display a list of attendees for the event, which would require scanning the 250,000 user rows for the event ID of said event if I include an "events" column in the users table. Option 3 would be to create a third table that contains the attendee information for each and every event - but I don't see how this would solve any problems. Are these non-issues? Rails makes accessing all of this information easy, but I guess I'm worried about scale. It is entirely possible that I am under-estimating the speed and processing power of modern databases / servers / etc. How long would it take to scan 250,000 user rows for specific event IDs - 10ms? 100ms? 1,000ms? I guess that's not that bad. Am I just over-thinking this?

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• Problem inserting JavaScript into a CKEditor Instance running inside a jQuery-UI Dialog Box

  - by PlasmaFlux

  Hello Overflowers! Here's what's going on: I'm building an app (using PHP, jQuery, etc), part of which lets users edit various bits of a web page (Header, Footer, Main Content, Sidebar) using CKEditor. It's set up so that each editable bit has an "Edit Content" button in the upper right that, on click, launches an instance of CKEditor inside a jQuery-UI Dialog box. After the user is done editing, they can click an 'Update Changes' button that passes the edited content back off to the main page and closes the Dialog/CKeditor. It's all working magnificently, save for one thing. If someone inserts any JavaScript code, wrapped in 'script' tags, using either the Insert HTML Plugin for CKEditor or by going to 'Source' in CKEditor and placing the code in the source, everything seems okay until they click the 'Update Changes' button. The JavaScript appears to be inserting properly, but when 'Update Changes' is clicked, instead of the Dialog closing and passing the script back into the div where it belongs, what I get instead is an all-white screen with just the output of the JavaScript. For example, a simple 'Hello World' script results in a white screen with the string 'Hello World' in the upper left corner; for more intricate scripts, like an API call to, say Aweber, that generates a newsletter signup form, I get an all-white screen with the resulting form from the Aweber API call perfectly rendered in the middle of the screen. One of the most confusing parts is that, on these pages, if I click 'View Source', I get absolutely nothing. Blank emptiness. Here's all my code that handles the launching of the CKEditor instance inside the jQuery-UI Dialog, and the passing of the edited data back into its associated div on click of the 'Update Changes' button: $(function() { $('.foobar_edit_button') .button() .click(function() { var beingEdited = $(this).nextAll('.foobar_editable').attr('id'); var content = $(this).nextAll('.foobar_editable').html(); $('#foobar_editor').html(content); $('#foobar_editor').dialog( { open:function() { $(this).ckeditor(function() { CKFinder.SetupCKEditor( this, '<?php echo '/foobar/lib/editor/ckfinder/'; ?>' ); }); }, close:function() { $(this).ckeditorGet().destroy(); }, autoOpen: false, width: 840, modal: true, buttons: { 'Update Changes': function() { // TODO: submit changes to server via ajax once its completed: for ( instance in CKEDITOR.instances ) CKEDITOR.instances[instance].updateElement(); var edited_content = $('#foobar_editor').html(); $('#' + beingEdited).html(edited_content); $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); $('#foobar_editor').dialog('open'); }); }); I'm all sorts of confused. If anyone can point me in the right direction, it will be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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• Any simple approaches for managing customer data change requests for global reference files?

  - by Kelly Duke

  For the first time, I am developing in an environment in which there is a central repository for a number of different industry standard reference data tables and many different customers who need to select records from these industry standard reference data tables to fill in foreign key information for their customer specific records. Because these industry standard reference files are utilized by all customers, I want to reserve Create/Update/Delete access to these records for global product administrators. However, I would like to implement a (semi-)automated interface by which specific customers could request record additions, deletions or modifications to any of the industry standard reference files that are shared among all customers. I know I need something like a "data change request" table specifying: user id, user request datetime, request type (insert, modify, delete), a user entered text explanation of the change request, the user request's current status (pending, declined, completed), admin resolution datetime, admin id, an admin entered text description of the resolution, etc. What I can't figure out is how to elegantly handle the fact that these data change requests could apply to dozens of different tables with differing table column definitions. I would like to give the customer users making these data change requests a convenient way to enter their proposed record additions/modifications directly into CRUD screens that look very much like the reference table CRUD screens they don't have write/delete permissions for (with an additional text explanation and perhaps request priority field). I would also like to give the global admins a tool that allows them to view all the outstanding data change requests for the users they oversee sorted by date requested or user/date requested. Upon selecting a data change request record off the list, the admin would be directed to another CRUD screen that would be populated with the fields the customer users requested for the new/modified industry standard reference table record along with customer's text explanation, the request status and the text resolution explanation field. At this point the admin could accept/edit/reject the requested change and if accepted the affected industry standard reference file would be automatically updated with the appropriate fields and the data change request record's status, text resolution explanation and resolution datetime would all also be appropriately updated. However, I want to keep the actual production reference tables as simple as possible and free from these extraneous and typically null customer change request fields. I'd also like the data change request file to aggregate all data change requests across all the reference tables yet somehow "point to" the specific reference table and primary key in question for modification & deletion requests or the specific reference table and associated customer user entered field values in question for record creation requests. Does anybody have any ideas of how to design something like this effectively? Is there a cleaner, simpler way I am missing? Thank you so much for reading.

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• Adding a generic image field onto a ModelForm in django

  - by Prairiedogg

  I have two models, Room and Image. Image is a generic model that can tack onto any other model. I want to give users a form to upload an image when they post information about a room. I've written code that works, but I'm afraid I've done it the hard way, and specifically in a way that violates DRY. Was hoping someone who's a little more familiar with django forms could point out where I've gone wrong. Update: I've tried to clarify why I chose this design in comments to the current answers. To summarize: I didn't simply put an ImageField on the Room model because I wanted more than one image associated with the Room model. I chose a generic Image model because I wanted to add images to several different models. The alternatives I considered were were multiple foreign keys on a single Image class, which seemed messy, or multiple Image classes, which I thought would clutter my schema. I didn't make this clear in my first post, so sorry about that. Seeing as none of the answers so far has addressed how to make this a little more DRY I did come up with my own solution which was to add the upload path as a class attribute on the image model and reference that every time it's needed. # Models class Image(models.Model): content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('content_type', 'object_id') image = models.ImageField(_('Image'), height_field='', width_field='', upload_to='uploads/images', max_length=200) class Room(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=50) image_set = generic.GenericRelation('Image') # The form class AddRoomForm(forms.ModelForm): image_1 = forms.ImageField() class Meta: model = Room # The view def handle_uploaded_file(f): # DRY violation, I've already specified the upload path in the image model upload_suffix = join('uploads/images', f.name) upload_path = join(settings.MEDIA_ROOT, upload_suffix) destination = open(upload_path, 'wb+') for chunk in f.chunks(): destination.write(chunk) destination.close() return upload_suffix def add_room(request, apartment_id, form_class=AddRoomForm, template='apartments/add_room.html'): apartment = Apartment.objects.get(id=apartment_id) if request.method == 'POST': form = form_class(request.POST, request.FILES) if form.is_valid(): room = form.save() image_1 = form.cleaned_data['image_1'] # Instead of writing a special function to handle the image, # shouldn't I just be able to pass it straight into Image.objects.create # ...but it doesn't seem to work for some reason, wrong syntax perhaps? upload_path = handle_uploaded_file(image_1) image = Image.objects.create(content_object=room, image=upload_path) return HttpResponseRedirect(room.get_absolute_url()) else: form = form_class() context = {'form': form, } return direct_to_template(request, template, extra_context=context)

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• How to build Lucene / Solr from source code in windows environment in order to add patches

  - by Simon

  I have successfully implemented Apache’s Solr for free text searching a database driven web site build for windows platforms using Visual Studio in c#. I am trying to get a version Solr working with field collapsing (which is not in the release version). There are patches available from apache and discussions on the web of people successfully doing this for the version I am using but my problem is cannot get the build to work. I am a c# coder on windows platforms so java development is new to me. I understand I need to get the correct source code (and revision) from SVN, add the appropriate patches, then build the war file to deploy to my system. I cannot seem to get the source to build and produce the deployment code including jar (and subsequent war) files. My system is: Windows 7 Ultimate for development Visual Studio 2010 for c# / javascript development MyEclipse 8.6 / Eclipse 3.5 for the java build from source Subecplise 1.6x SVN plugin to get the source from apache’s SVN Apache Solr 1.4.1 So far I have: Found the right patches for the function I need: https://issues.apache.org/jira/browse/SOLR-236 Specifically I need to patch: field_collapsing_1.1.0.patch HTTPS //issues.apache.org/jira/secure/attachment/12357681/field_collapsing_1.1.0.patch and SOLR-236-1_4_1.patch HTTPS //issues.apache.org/jira/secure/attachment/12448216/SOLR-236-1_4_1.patch I downloaded the Lucene trunk version from the day before the patch was released (revision 958303 from 28/6/10) via subeclipse into a java package in myeclipse from: HTTPS //svn.apache.org/repos/asf/lucene/dev/trunk (Solr is the web implementation of Lucene and is in the subfolder solr/) I can apply patches to the solr directory once it has downloaded but the parent Lucene project doesn’t build the war files, copy the jar or other files into the bin folder (it stays empty). The build process starts, but doesn’t do anything apart from creating the folders bin and src. I am building the whole Lucene project, which contains Solr. I have tried building the source without patching and the same happens. If I copy out the Solr directory into a new project, it runs the build and copies all the related files, tests, etc but fails with 4,500 errors and does not produce the jar files or war file, which I assume is because it can’t find the Lucene trunk files which it depends on. I have two interrelated problems 1) I can't get the Lucene downloaded trunk to build 2) The jar, war and associated files are not created Can anyone help with what I am missing to build the war file? I have spent 2 days to get this far as the help online is extremely patchy and I can’t find a walk though tutorial on building a java war file from source in a windows environment. Any help will be much appreciated. Simon

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• Exposing C# COM server events to Delphi client applications

  - by hectorsosajr

  My question is very similar to these two: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1140984/c-component-events http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1638372/c-writing-a-com-server-events-not-firing-on-client However, what worked for them is not working for me. The type library file, does not have any hints of events definitions, so Delphi doesn't see it. The class works fine for other C# applications, as you would expect. COM Server tools: Visual Studio 2010 .NET 4.0 Delphi applications: Delphi 2010 Delphi 7 Here's a simplified version of the code: /// <summary> /// Call has arrived delegate. /// </summary> [ComVisible(false)] public delegate void CallArrived(object sender, string callData); /// <summary> /// Interface to expose SimpleAgent events to COM /// </summary> [ComVisible(true)] [GuidAttribute("1FFBFF09-3AF0-4F06-998D-7F4B6CB978DD")] [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IAgentEvents { ///<summary> /// Handles incoming calls from the predictive manager. ///</summary> ///<param name="sender">The class that initiated this event</param> ///<param name="callData">The data associated with the incoming call.</param> [DispId(1)] void OnCallArrived(object sender, string callData); } /// <summary> /// Represents the agent side of the system. This is usually related to UI interactions. /// </summary> [ComVisible(true)] [GuidAttribute("EF00685F-1C14-4D05-9EFA-538B3137D86C")] [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] [ComSourceInterfaces(typeof(IAgentEvents))] public class SimpleAgent { /// <summary> /// Occurs when a call arrives. /// </summary> public event CallArrived OnCallArrived; public SimpleAgent() {} public string AgentName { get; set; } public string CurrentPhoneNumber { get; set; } public void FireOffCall() { if (OnCallArrived != null) { OnCallArrived(this, "555-123-4567"); } } } The type library file has the definitions for the properties and methods, but no events are visible. I even opened the type library in Delphi's viewer to make sure. The Delphi app can see and use any property, methods, and functions just fine. It just doesn't see the events. I would appreciate any pointers or articles to read. Thanks!

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• Armchair Linguists: 'code' vs. 'codes'--or why I write 'code' and my manager asks for 'codes'

  - by Ukko

  I wanted to tap into the collective wisdom here to see if I can get some insight into one of my pet peeves, people who thread "code" as a countable noun. Let me also preface this by saying that I am not talking about anyone who speaks english as a second language, this is a native phenomenon. For those of us who slept through grammar class there are two classes of nouns which basically refer to things that are countable and non-countable (sometimes referred to as count and noncount). For instance 'sand' is a non-count noun and 'apple' is count. You can talk about "two apples" but "two sands" does not parse. The bright students then would point out a word like "beer" where is looks like this is violated. Beer as a substance is certainly a non-count noun, but I can ask for "two beers" without offending the grammar police. The reason is that there are actually two words tied up in that one utterance, Definition #1 is a yummy golden substance and Definition #2 is a colloquial term for a container of said substance. #1 is non-count and #2 is countable. This gets to my problem with "codes" as a countable noun. In my mind the code that we programmers write is non-count, "I wrote some code today." When used in the plural like "Have you got the codes" I can only assume that you are asking if I have the cryptographically significant numbers for launching a missile or the like. Every time my peer in marketing asks about when we will have the new codes ready I have a vision of rooms of code breakers going over the latest Enigma coded message. I corrected the usage in all the documents I am asked to review, but then I noticed that our customer was also using the work "codes" when they meant "code". At this point I have realized that there is a significant sub-population that uses "codes" and they seem to be impervious to what I see as the dominant "correct" usage. This is the part I want some help on, has anyone else noticed this phenomenon? Do you know what group it is associated with, old Fortran programmer perhaps? Is it a regionalism? I have become quick to change my terms when I notice a customer's usage, but it would be nice to know if I am sending a proposal somewhere what style they expect. I would hate to get canned with a review of "Ha, these guy's must be morons they don't even know 'code' is plural!"

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• Help with infrequent segmentation fault in accessing struct

  - by Sarah

  I'm having trouble debugging a segmentation fault. I'd appreciate tips on how to go about narrowing in on the problem. The error appears when an iterator tries to access an element of a struct Infection, defined as: struct Infection { public: explicit Infection( double it, double rt ) : infT( it ), recT( rt ) {} double infT; // infection start time double recT; // scheduled recovery time }; These structs are kept in a special structure, InfectionMap: typedef boost::unordered_multimap< int, Infection > InfectionMap; Every member of class Host has an InfectionMap carriage. Recovery times and associated host identifiers are kept in a priority queue. When a scheduled recovery event arises in the simulation for a particular strain s in a particular host, the program searches through carriage of that host to find the Infection whose recT matches the recovery time (double recoverTime). (For reasons that aren't worth going into, it's not as expedient for me to use recT as the key to InfectionMap; the strain s is more useful, and coinfections with the same strain are possible.) assert( carriage.size() > 0 ); pair<InfectionMap::iterator,InfectionMap::iterator> ret = carriage.equal_range( s ); InfectionMap::iterator it; for ( it = ret.first; it != ret.second; it++ ) { if ( ((*it).second).recT == recoverTime ) { // produces seg fault carriage.erase( it ); } } I get a "Program received signal EXC_BAD_ACCESS, Could not access memory. Reason: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at address..." on the line specified above. The recoverTime is fine, and the assert(...) in the code is not tripped. As I said, this seg fault appears 'randomly' after thousands of successful recovery events. How would you go about figuring out what's going on? I'd love ideas about what could be wrong and how I can further investigate the problem.

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• custom view with layout

  - by user270811

  ok, what i am trying to do is to embed a custom view in the default layout main.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <com.lam.customview.CustomDisplayView android:id="@+id/custom_display_view1" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" /> <LinearLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> <Button android:id="@+id/prev" android:layout_width="0dip" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_weight="50" android:textAppearance="?android:attr/textAppearanceSmall" android:text="@string/prev" /> </LinearLayout> </LinearLayout> as you can see the class is called com.lam.customview.CustomDisplayView, with the id of custom_display_view1. now in the com.lam.customview.CustomDisplayView class, i want to use another layout called custom_display_view.xml because i don't want to programmatically create controls/widgets. custom_display_view.xml is just a button and an image, the content of which i want to change based on certain conditions: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <TextView android:id="@+id/display_text_view1" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/hello" /> <ImageView android:id="@+id/display_image_view1" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content"> </ImageView> </LinearLayout> i tried to do: 1) public CustomDisplayView(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); try { // register our interest in hearing about changes to our surface SurfaceHolder holder = getHolder(); holder.addCallback(this); View.inflate(context, R.layout.custom_display_view, null); ... but got this error, "03-08 20:33:15.711: ERROR/onCreate(10879): Binary XML file line #8: Error inflating class java.lang.reflect.Constructor ". 2) public CustomDisplayView(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); try { // register our interest in hearing about changes to our surface SurfaceHolder holder = getHolder(); holder.addCallback(this); View.inflate(context, R.id.custom_display_view1, null); ... but got this error, "03-08 20:28:47.401: ERROR/CustomDisplayView(10806): Resource ID #0x7f050002 type #0x12 is not valid " also, if i do it this way, as someone has suggested, it's not clear to me how the custom_display_view.xml is associated with the custom view class. thanks.

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• Change a UIButton View's background upon press

  - by Michael

  This should be easy but its got me stumped. I've got a button on each row of a table cell. The button is to delete the file associated with that row. I have an image that indicates if the file is present on the iPhone or not present. When the user presses the button, the target action method (showDeleteSheet) then calls a UIActionSheet with a variable to give it the indexPath of the row pressed. Then the user presses delete on the action sheet and the action sheet's clickedButtonAtIndex method deletes the file. Now, I need to update the button's background image property to change the image in the appropriate table cell to the not downloaded image. This can be done in either the button's target action method or the action sheet's clickedButtonAtIndex method. Here is some code: In the table's cellForRowAtIndexPath method I create the button: UIButton *deleteButton = [[UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom] retain]; [deleteButton addTarget:self action:@selector(showDeleteSheet:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchDown]; deleteButton.frame = CGRectMake(246, 26, 30, 30); if (![AppData isDownloaded:[dets objectForKey:@"fileName"]]) { [deleteButton setBackgroundImage:notdownloadedImage forState:UIControlStateNormal]; } else { [deleteButton setBackgroundImage:notdownloadedImage forState:UIControlStateNormal]; } In the button's target method: -(void)showDeleteSheet:(id)sender { //get the cell row that the button is in NSIndexPath *indexPath = [table indexPathForCell:(UITableViewCell *)[[sender superview] superview]]; NSInteger currentSection = indexPath.section; NSInteger currentIndexRow = indexPath.row; NSLog(@"section = %i row = %i", currentSection, currentIndexRow); UIButton *deleteButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [table reloadData]; //if deleteButton is declared in .h then the other instances of deleteButton show 'local declaration hides instance variable' [deleteButton setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"not-downloaded.png"] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; UIActionSheet *actionSheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:@"Delete this file?" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"Cancel" destructiveButtonTitle:@"Delete" otherButtonTitles:nil]; actionSheet.tag = currentIndexRow; actionSheet.actionSheetStyle = UIActionSheetStyleDefault; [actionSheet showInView:self.view]; [actionSheet release]; } Perhaps the issue is that the call to [deleteButton setBackgroundImage...]; doesn't know which cell's button should be updated. If so I don't know how to tell it which. Because I test if the file is downloaded when the button is made and the background image is set, when I scroll down so the cell in question is de-queued then scroll back up it show's the correct image. I've tried to force the table to reload but [table reloadData]; is doing nothing. I've tried reloadRowsAtIndexPaths and still no good. Any one care to educate me on how this is done?

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• Undefined Behavior and Sequence Points Reloaded

  - by Nawaz

  Consider this topic a sequel of the following topic: Previous Installment Undefined Behavior and Sequence Points Let's revisit this funny and convoluted expression (the italicized phrases are taken from the above topic *smile* ): i += ++i; We say this invokes undefined-behavior. I presume that when say this, we implicitly assume that type of i is one of built-in types. So my question is: what if the type of i is a user-defined type? Say it's type is Index which is defined later in this post (see below). Would it still invoke undefined-behavior? If yes, why? Is it not equivalent to writing i.operator+=(i.operator ++()); or even syntactically simpler i.add(i.inc());? Or, do they too invoke undefined-behavior? If no, why not? After all, the object i gets modified twice between consecutive sequence points. Please recall the rule of thumb : an expression can modify an object's value only once between consecutive "sequence points. And if i += ++i is an expression, then it must invoke undefined-behavior. If so, then it's equivalents i.operator+=(i.operator ++()); and i.add(i.inc()); must also invoke undefined-behavior which seems to be untrue! (as far as I understand) Or, i += ++i is not an expression to begin with? If so, then what is it and what is the definition of expression? If it's an expression, and at the same time, it's behavior is also well-defined, then it implies that number of sequence points associated with an expression somehow depends on the type of operands involved in the expression. Am I correct (even partly)? By the way, how about this expression? a[++i] = i; //taken from the previous topic. but here type of `i` is Index. class Index { int state; public: Index(int s) : state(s) {} Index& operator++() { state++; return *this; } Index& operator+=(const Index & index) { state+= index.state; return *this; } operator int() { return state; } Index & add(const Index & index) { state += index.state; return *this; } Index & inc() { state++; return *this; } };

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• Creating a column of RadioButtons in Adobe Flex

  - by adnan

  I am having an un-predictable behavior of creating radio buttons in advancedDataGrid column using itemRenderer. Similar kind of problem has been reported at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/112036/creating-a-column-of-radiobuttons-in-adobe-flex. I tried to use the same procedure i.e. bind every radio button selectedValue and value attributes with the property specified in the property of the associated bean but still facing the problem. The button change values! The selected button becomes deselected, and unselected ones become selected. Here is the code of my advancedDataGrid: <mx:AdvancedDataGrid id="adDataGrid_rptdata" width="100%" height="100%" dragEnabled="false" sortableColumns="false" treeColumn="{action}" liveScrolling="false" displayItemsExpanded="true" > <mx:dataProvider> <mx:HierarchicalData source="{this.competenceCollection}" childrenField="competenceCriteria"/> </mx:dataProvider> <mx:columns> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="" id="action" dataField="criteriaName" /> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="Periode 1" dataField="" width="200"> <mx:itemRenderer> <mx:Component> <mx:HBox horizontalAlign="center" width="100%" verticalAlign="middle"> <mx:RadioButton name="period1" value="{data}" selected="{data.period1}" group="{data.radioBtnGrpArray[0]}" visible="{data.showRadioButton}" /> </mx:HBox> </mx:Component> </mx:itemRenderer> </mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="Periode 2" dataField="" width="200"> <mx:itemRenderer> <mx:Component> <mx:HBox horizontalAlign="center" width="100%" verticalAlign="middle"> <mx:RadioButton name="period2" value="{data}" selected="{data.period2}" group="{data.radioBtnGrpArray[1]}" visible="{data.showRadioButton}" /> </mx:HBox> </mx:Component> </mx:itemRenderer> </mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn> <mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn headerText="Periode 3" dataField="" width="200"> <mx:itemRenderer> <mx:Component> <mx:HBox horizontalAlign="center" width="100%" verticalAlign="middle"> <mx:RadioButton name="period3" value="{data}" selected="{data.period3}" group="{data.radioBtnGrpArray[2]}" visible="{data.showRadioButton}" /> </mx:HBox> </mx:Component> </mx:itemRenderer> </mx:AdvancedDataGridColumn> </mx:columns> </mx:AdvancedDataGrid> Any work around is highly appreciated in this regard!

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• Error in facebook.dll facebooksdk

  - by Surendar Radhakrishnan

  I got the web application working with facebooksdk and when i deployed it...it is running fine for sometime and it is throwing the error like this... Server Error in '/' Application. Could not load file or assembly 'Facebook, Version=4.1.1.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=58cb4f2111d1e6de' or one of its dependencies. Access is denied. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'Facebook, Version=4.1.1.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=58cb4f2111d1e6de' or one of its dependencies. Access is denied. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Assembly Load Trace: The following information can be helpful to determine why the assembly 'Facebook, Version=4.1.1.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=58cb4f2111d1e6de' could not be loaded. WRN: Assembly binding logging is turned OFF. To enable assembly bind failure logging, set the registry value [HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Fusion!EnableLog] (DWORD) to 1. Note: There is some performance penalty associated with assembly bind failure logging. To turn this feature off, remove the registry value [HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Fusion!EnableLog]. Stack Trace: [FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'Facebook, Version=4.1.1.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=58cb4f2111d1e6de' or one of its dependencies. Access is denied.] Secured_Login.FacebookVerification() +0 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +25 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +71 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +3048 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:4.0.30319; ASP.NET Version:4.0.30319.1 i got this method in pageload protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { FacebookVerification(); } protected void FacebookVerification() { try { FacebookApp fbApp = new FacebookApp(); if (fbApp.Session != null) { dynamic myinfo = fbApp.Get("me"); String firstname = myinfo.first_name; String lastname = myinfo.last_name; lblFBStatus.Text = "you signed in as " + firstname + " " + lastname ; } else { lblFBStatus.Text = "Please sign in with facebook"; } } catch (Exception) { throw; } }

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• IDs necessary in update script not being stored (or even seen!?) (PHP MySQL)

  - by Derek

  Hi guys, I really need help with this one...have spent 3 hours trying to figure it out... Basically, I have 3 tables necessary for this function to work (the query and PHP)... Authors, Books and Users. An author can have many books, and a user can have many books - that's it. When the admin user selects to update a book, they are presented with a form, displaying the current data within the fields, very straight forward... However there is one tricky part, the admin user can change the author for a book (incase they make a mistake) and also change the user for which the book is associated with. When I select to update the single book information I am not getting any values what so ever for author_id or user_id. Meaning that when the user updates the book info, the associations with the user and author is being scrapped altogether (when before there was an association)... I cannot see why this is happening because I can clearly see the IDs for the users and authors for my option values (this is because they are in select dropdowns). Here is what my sql to retrieve the user ID is: SELECT user_id, name FROM users and then i have my select options which brings up all the users in the system: <label>This book belongs to:</label> <select name="name" id="name"> <option value="<?php echo $row['user_id']?>" SELECTED><?php echo $row['name']?> - Current</option> <?php while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { ?> <option value="<?php echo $row['user_id']; if (isset($_POST['user_id']));?>"><?php echo $row['name']?></option> <?php } ?> In the presented HTML form, I can select the users (by name) and within the source code I can see the IDs (for the value) matching against the names of the users. Finally, in my script that performs the update, I have this: $book_id = $_POST['book_id']; $bookname = $_POST['bookname']; $booklevel = $_POST['booklevel']; $author_id = $_POST['author_id']; $user_id = $_POST['user_id']; $sql = "UPDATE books SET bookname= '".$bookname."', booklevel= '".$booklevel."', author_id='".$author_id."', user_id= '".$user_id."' WHERE book_id = ".$book_id; The result of this query returns no value for either author_id or user_id... Obviously in this question I have given the information for the user stuff (with the HTML being displayed) but im guessing that I have the same problem with authors aswell... How can I get these ID's passed to the script so that the change can be acknowledge!! :(

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• SharedObject (Flex 3.2) behaving unexpectedly when query string present in URL

  - by rhtx

  Summary: The behavior detailed below seems to indicate that if your app at www.someplace.com sets/retrieves data via a SharedObject, there is some sort of .sol collision if the user hits your app at someplace.com, and then later at someplace.com?name=value. Can anyone confirm or refute this? I'm working on a Flex web app that presents the user with a login page. When the user has logged in, he/she is presented with a 'room' which is associated with a 'group'. We store the last-visited room/group combination in a SharedObject - so when a given user logs in, they are taken into the most recent room in which they were active. That works fine, but we also have an auto-login system which involves the user clicking on a link to the app url with a query string attached. There are two types of these links. 1) the query string includes username, groupId, and roomId 2) the query string includes only the username Because we are working fast and have only a few developers, the auto-login system is built on the last-vist system. During the auto-login process, the url is inspected and if groupId and roomId values are found in the query string, the SharedObject is opened and the last-visit group/room id values are overwritten by the param values. That works fine, also, when the app is hit with a query string of the second type (no groupId and roomId params), the app goes to the SharedObject to get the stored room and group id values, as it normally would. And here's the problem: The values it comes back with are whatever the last room/group param values were, not whatever the last last-visit room/group values are. And if the given user has never hit the app with query string that included group and room id values, the app gets null values from the SharedObject. It took some digging around, but what it looks like is happening is that a second set of data is being stored/expected in the SharedObject if a query string is present in the URL. Looking at the .sol file in a text editor I see more untranslated code, and additional group and room values, once I've hit the app with URLs that contain query strings. I'm not finding anything on the web about this, but that may just be due to a lack of necessary search skills. Has anyone else run into anything similar? Or do you know how to address this? I've tried setting Security.exactSettings to false, already - was really hoping that was going to work.

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• Accidental Complexity in OpenSSL HMAC functions

  - by Hassan Syed

  SSL Documentation Analaysis This question is pertaining the usage of the HMAC routines in OpenSSL. Since Openssl documentation is a tad on the weak side in certain areas, profiling has revealed that using the: unsigned char *HMAC(const EVP_MD *evp_md, const void *key, int key_len, const unsigned char *d, int n, unsigned char *md, unsigned int *md_len); From here, shows 40% of my library runtime is devoted to creating and taking down **HMAC_CTX's behind the scenes. There are also two additional function to create and destroy a HMAC_CTX explicetly: HMAC_CTX_init() initialises a HMAC_CTX before first use. It must be called. HMAC_CTX_cleanup() erases the key and other data from the HMAC_CTX and releases any associated resources. It must be called when an HMAC_CTX is no longer required. These two function calls are prefixed with: The following functions may be used if the message is not completely stored in memory My data fits entirely in memory, so I choose the HMAC function -- the one whose signature is shown above. The context, as described by the man page, is made use of by using the following two functions: HMAC_Update() can be called repeatedly with chunks of the message to be authenticated (len bytes at data). HMAC_Final() places the message authentication code in md, which must have space for the hash function output. The Scope of the Application My application generates a authentic (HMAC, which is also used a nonce), CBC-BF encrypted protocol buffer string. The code will be interfaced with various web-servers and frameworks Windows / Linux as OS, nginx, Apache and IIS as webservers and Python / .NET and C++ web-server filters. The description above should clarify that the library needs to be thread safe, and potentially have resumeable processing state -- i.e., lightweight threads sharing a OS thread (which might leave thread local memory out of the picture). The Question How do I get rid of the 40% overhead on each invocation in a (1) thread-safe / (2) resume-able state way ? (2) is optional since I have all of the source-data present in one go, and can make sure a digest is created in place without relinquishing control of the thread mid-digest-creation. So, (1) can probably be done using thread local memory -- but how do I resuse the CTX's ? does the HMAC_final() call make the CTX reusable ?. (2) optional: in this case I would have to create a pool of CTX's. (3) how does the HMAC function do this ? does it create a CTX in the scope of the function call and destroy it ? Psuedocode and commentary will be useful.

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• jQuery selectors - parental problems

  - by aressidi

  Hi there, I have an emote selector that opens up when a user clicks an entry in a diary. The way I've worked it is that the emote selector panel lives hidden at the top of the page. When a user clicks on the 'emote control' associated with an entry, I use JavaScript to grab the HTML of the emote selector panel from the top of the page and insert it next to the entry. Using Firebug, here's what the finished product would look like in the page (snippet from element inspect). I'm trying to get the ID for the class 'emote-control-container' which contains the entry id: <td> <div id="1467002" class="emote-select emote-default">&nbsp;</div> <div class="emote-control-container" id="emote-controls-1467002"> <div id="emote-control-selector"> <div id="emote-control-selector-body"> <ul> <li id="emote-1"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> <li id="emote-2"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> <li id="emote-3"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> <li id="emote-4"><img src="/images/default_emote.gif?1276134900" class="emote-image" alt="Default_emote"></li> </ul> </div> <div id="emote-control-selector-footer"> &nbsp; </div> </div> </div> </td> I need the entry ID along with the emote ID to make a post via AJAX when a user selects an emote from the selector panel by clicking on it. I'm able to get the emote ID just fine with this, which I'm using to alert-out the selected emote ID: jQuery('li').live('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault; var emoteId = this.id; alert(emoteId); }); I'm having trouble traversing up DOM to get the element ID from '.emote-control-container. I've tried everything, but I'd expect this to work, but it doesn't: jQuery('li').live('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault; var entryId = jQuery(this.id).parent(".emote-control-container").attr("id"); alert(entryId); }); What am I doing wrong.? I can't target the ID of the .emote-control-container.

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• Inference engine to calculate matching set according to internal rules

  - by Zecrates

  I have a set of objects with attributes and a bunch of rules that, when applied to the set of objects, provides a subset of those objects. To make this easier to understand I'll provide a concrete example. My objects are persons and each has three attributes: country of origin, gender and age group (all attributes are discrete). I have a bunch of rules, like "all males from the US", which correspond with subsets of this larger set of objects. I'm looking for either an existing Java "inference engine" or something similar, which will be able to map from the rules to a subset of persons, or advice on how to go about creating my own. I have read up on rule engines, but that term seems to be exclusively used for expert systems that externalize the business rules, and usually doesn't include any advanced form of inferencing. Here are some examples of the more complex scenarios I have to deal with: I need the conjunction of rules. So when presented with both "include all males" and "exclude all US persons in the 10 - 20 age group," I'm only interested in the males outside of the US, and the males within the US that are outside the 10 - 20 age group. Rules may have different priorities (explicitly defined). So a rule saying "exclude all males" will override a rule saying "include all US males." Rules may be conflicting. So I could have both an "include all males" and an "exclude all males" in which case the priorities will have to settle the issue. Rules are symmetric. So "include all males" is equivalent to "exclude all females." Rules (or rather subsets) may have meta rules (explicitly defined) associated with them. These meta rules will have to be applied in any case that the original rule is applied, or if the subset is reached via inferencing. So if a meta rule of "exclude the US" is attached to the rule "include all males", and I provide the engine with the rule "exclude all females," it should be able to inference that the "exclude all females" subset is equivalent to the "include all males" subset and as such apply the "exclude the US" rule additionally. I can in all likelihood live without item 5, but I do need all the other properties mentioned. Both my rules and objects are stored in a database and may be updated at any stage, so I'd need to instantiate the 'inference engine' when needed and destroy it afterward.

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• Share a "deep link" from a Windows 8/WinRT application

  - by Dave Parker

  I have searched using many different terms and phrases, and waded through many pages of results, but I have (remarkably) not seen anyone else addressing, even asking, about, this issue. So here goes... Ultimate Goal: Allow a user viewing a content-based page (may contain both text and images) within a Windows Store app to share that content with someone else. Description I am working on taking a fair amount of content and making it available for browsing/navigating as a Windows 8/WinRT/Windows Store (we need a consistent name here) application. One of the desired features is to take advantage of the Share Charm, such that someone viewing a page could share that page with someone else. The ideal behavior is for the application to implement the Share Source contract which would share an email message that contained some explanatory text, a link to get the app from the Windows Store, and a "deep link" into the shared page in the application. Solutions Considered We had originally looked at just generating a PDF representation of the page, but there are very few external libraries that would work under WinRT, and having to include externally licensed code would be problematic as well. Writing our own PDF generation code would out of scope. We have also considered generating a Word document or PowerPoint slide using OpenXML, but again, we run up against the limitaions of WinRT. In this case, it is highly unlikely the OpenXML SDK is useable in a WinRT application. Another thought was to pre-generate all of the pages as .pdf files, store them as resources, and when the Share Charm is invoked, share the .pdf file associated with the current page. The problem here is the application will have at least 150 content pages, and depending on how we break the content down, up to over 600. This would likely cause serious bloat. Where We Are At Thus we have come to sharing URIs. From what I can tell, though, the "deep linking" feature is only intended for use on Secondary Tiles tied to your application. Another avenue I considered was registering a protocol like, "my-special-app:" with the OS and having it fire up the application but that would require HKCR registry access, which is outside the WinRT sandbox. If it matters, we are leaning towards an HTML/JS application, rather than XAML/C#, because the converted content will all be in HTML and the WebView control in WinRT is fairly limited. This decision is not yet final, though. Conclusion So, is this possible, and if so, how would it be done or where can I find documentation on it? Thanks, Dave Parker

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• App dies on startup but not crash report

  - by brettr

  I've given an ad hoc version of my app to some users. Two of them have the app die on start up while one user has no issues. I can also install the ad hoc without issue...but that is always the case for me. One user sent the info below from the Xcode Organizer Console. They didn't find any crash logs. I don't know what to make of the info below. The one thing that stands out is "Permission denied". I place the provisioning and myapp.app files in a dropbox folder. The user then retrieves the files from the same location. I've run codesign against the .app file in the dropbox and get valid output: codesign -vvvv myapp.app myapp.app: valid on disk myapp.app: satisfies its Designated Requirement Any one have some ideas how I can figure out why the app doesn't work for this user? Here is the Console output from one user. They couldn't find any associated crash logs: Stats totalMLSITDBPostProcessing=5.31s commands=0.01 misc=0.45s icuSort=4.41s (MLS_icu_data=0.23s, MLS_icu_sec_data=0.13, dropIdx=0.04, normalize=0.13, update_orders=1.31, tStatsICUOther1=0.02, createIndex=2.50) Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Error>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x8cb6]) posix_spawn("/var/mobile/Applications/4B036396-3294-4E0A-BBCC-4118E72846D4/myapp.app/myapp", ...): Permission denied Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x8cb6]) Exited with exit code: 1 Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Failed to spawn myapp. Unable to obtain a task name port right for pid 179: (os/kern) failure Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x8cb6]) Throttling respawn: Will start in 2147483647 seconds Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Application 'myapp' exited abnormally with exit status 1 Sun Dec 13 12:35:10 unknown springboardservicesrelay[155] <Warning>: Unable to parse property list data of length: 0 Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Error>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x3ce5]) posix_spawn("/var/mobile/Applications/4B036396-3294-4E0A-BBCC-4118E72846D4/myapp.app/myapp", ...): Permission denied Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x3ce5]) Exited with exit code: 1 Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Failed to spawn myapp. Unable to obtain a task name port right for pid 182: (os/kern) failure Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x3ce5]) Throttling respawn: Will start in 2147483647 seconds Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Application 'myapp' exited abnormally with exit status 1

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• why is this rails association loading individually after an eager load?

  - by codeman73

  I'm trying to avoid the N+1 queries problem with eager loading, but it's not working. The associated models are still being loaded individually. Here are the relevant ActiveRecords and their relationships: class Player < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :tableau end Class Tableau < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :player has_many :tableau_cards has_many :deck_cards, :through => :tableau_cards end Class TableauCard < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :tableau belongs_to :deck_card, :include => :card end class DeckCard < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :card has_many :tableaus, :through => :tableau_cards end class Card < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :deck_cards end and the query I'm using is inside this method of Player: def tableau_contains(card_id) self.tableau.tableau_cards = TableauCard.find :all, :include => [ {:deck_card => (:card)}], :conditions => ['tableau_cards.tableau_id = ?', self.tableau.id] contains = false for tableau_card in self.tableau.tableau_cards # my logic here, looking at attributes of the Card model, with # tableau_card.deck_card.card; # individual loads of related Card models related to tableau_card are done here end return contains end Does it have to do with scope? This tableau_contains method is down a few method calls in a larger loop, where I originally tried doing the eager loading because there are several places where these same objects are looped through and examined. Then I eventually tried the code as it is above, with the load just before the loop, and I'm still seeing the individual SELECT queries for Card inside the tableau_cards loop in the log. I can see the eager-loading query with the IN clause just before the tableau_cards loop as well. EDIT: additional info below with the larger, outer loop Here's the larger loop. It is inside an observer on after_save def after_save(pa) @game = Game.find(turn.game_id, :include => :goals) @game.players = Player.find :all, :include => [ {:tableau => (:tableau_cards)}, :player_goals ], :conditions => ['players.game_id =?', @game.id] for player in @game.players player.tableau.tableau_cards = TableauCard.find :all, :include => [ {:deck_card => (:card)}], :conditions => ['tableau_cards.tableau_id = ?', player.tableau.id] if(player.tableau_contains(card)) ... end end end

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• PHP array help getting a value from the key

  - by sea_1987

  I have a variable that looks likes this, $rslt['expected_salary_level'] This returns a string similar to LEVEL_3, in another array that looks like this I have a set of salaries, Array ( [LEVEL_1] => Array ( [nice_name] => under &pound;10,000 [low] => 1 [high] => 10000 ) [LEVEL_2] => Array ( [nice_name] => &pound;10,000 - &pound;15,000 [low] => 10000 [high] => 15000 ) [LEVEL_3] => Array ( [nice_name] => &pound;15,000 - &pound;20,000 [low] => 15000 [high] => 20000 ) [LEVEL_4] => Array ( [nice_name] => &pound;20,000 - &pound;25,000 [low] => 20000 [high] => 25000 ) [LEVEL_5] => Array ( [nice_name] => &pound;25,000 - &pound;30,000 [low] => 25000 [high] => 30000 ) [LEVEL_6] => Array ( [nice_name] => &pound;30,000 - &pound;40,000 [low] => 30000 [high] => 40000 ) [LEVEL_7] => Array ( [nice_name] => &pound;40,000 - &pound;50,000 [low] => 40000 [high] => 50000 ) [LEVEL_8] => Array ( [nice_name] => &pound;50,000 - &pound;100,000 [low] => 50000 [high] => 100000 ) [LEVEL_9] => Array ( [nice_name] => &pound;100,000 or more [low] => 100000 [high] => 9999999 ) [LEVEL_VOLUNTARY] => Array ( [nice_name] => Voluntary [low] => [high] => ) [LEVEL_UNSPECIFIED] => Array ( [nice_name] => Not specified [low] => [high] => ) ) How do I get at the associated nice name?

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• Rest API Web Service - iOS

  - by zeekerg

  Its my first time to use web service in iOS. REST was my first choice and I use code igniter to form it. I have my Controller: require APPPATH.'/libraries/REST_Controller.php'; class Sample extends REST_Controller { function example_get() { $this->load->helper('arh'); $this->load->model('users'); $users_array = array(); $users = $this->users->get_all_users(); foreach($users as $user){ $new_array = array( 'id'=>$user->id , 'name'=>$user->name, 'age'=>$user->age, ); array_push( $users_array, $new_array); } $data['users'] = $users_array; if($data) { $this->response($data, 200); } } function user_put() { $this->load->model('users'); $this->users->insertAUser(); $message = array('message' => 'ADDED!'); $this->response($message, 200); } } , using my web browser, accessing the URL http://localhost:8888/restApi/index.php/sample/example/format/json really works fine and gives this output: {"users":[{"id":"1","name":"Porcopio","age":"99"},{"id":"2","name":"Name1","age":"24"},{"id":"3","name":"Porcopio","age":"99"},{"id":"4","name":"Porcopio","age":"99"},{"id":"5","name":"Luna","age":"99"}]} , this gives me a great output using RKRequest by RestKit in my app. The problem goes with the put method. This URL : http://localhost:8888/restApi/index.php/sample/user always give me an error like this: This XML file does not appear to have any style information associated with it. The document tree is shown below. <xml> <status/> <error>Unknown method.</error> This is my Users model <?php class Users extends CI_Model { function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } function get_all_users() { $this->load->database(); $query = $this->db->get('users'); return $query->result(); } function insertAUser(){ $this->load->database(); $data = array('name'=> "Sample Name", 'age'=>"99"); $this->db->insert('users', $data); } } ?> What is the work around for my _put method why am I not inserting anything? Thanks all!

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• Adding NavigationControl to a TabBar Application containing UITableViews

  - by kungfuslippers

  Hi, I'm new to iPhone dev and wanted to get advice on the general design pattern / guide for putting a certain kind of app together. I'm trying to build a TabBar type application. One of the tabs needs to display a TableView and selecting a cell from within the table view will do something else - maybe show another table view or a web page. I need a Navigation Bar to be able to take me back from the table view/web page. The approach I've taken so far is to: Create an app based around UITabBarController as the rootcontroller i.e. @interface MyAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { IBOutlet UIWindow *window; IBOutlet UITabBarController *rootController; } Create a load of UIViewController derived classes and associated NIBs and wire everything up in IB so when I run the app I get the basic tabs working. I then take the UIViewController derived class and modify it to the following: @interface MyViewController : UIViewController<UITableViewDataSource, UITableViewDelegate> { } and I add the delegate methods to the implementation of MyViewController - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 2; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } if (indexPath.row == 0) { cell.textLabel.text = @"Mummy"; } else { cell.textLabel.text = @"Daddy"; } return cell; } Go back to IB , open MyViewController.xib and drop a UITableView onto it. Set the Files Owner to be MyViewController and then set the delegate and datasource of the UITableView to be MyViewController. If I run the app now, I get the table view appearing with mummy and daddy working nicely. So far so good. The question is how do I go about incorporating a Navigation Bar into my current code for when I implement: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath() { // get row selected NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; if (row == 0) { // Show another table } else if (row == 1) { // Show a web view } } Do I drop a NavigationBar UI control onto MyControllerView.xib ? Should I create it programmatically? Should I be using a UINavigationController somewhere ? I've tried dropping a NavigationBar onto my MyControllerView.xib in IB but its not shown when I run the app, only the TableView is displayed.

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• Animation using AniMate with Unity3D doesn't interact with physical objects

  - by Albz

  I'm designing a maze with Unity3D. The maze has a number of bifurcations and the player will stop before each bifurcation and simply choose left or right. Then an automatic animation will move the player through the next bifurcation till the end of the maze (or till a dead end). To animate the player I'm using AniMate and C# in my Unity project. Using AniMate I'm simply creating a point-to-point animation for each bifurcation (e.g. mage below: from the start/red arrow to point 5) My problem is that my animation script (associated to the "First Person Controller") is not working properly since physics is not respected (the player passes through walls). If in the same project I enable the standard character controls in Unity, then I can navigate in the maze with the physical contrains of walls etc... (i.e. I have colliders). This is an example of the code I'm using when I press left to pass from starting point, trough point 1 to point 2: void FixedUpdate () { if (Input.GetKey(KeyCode.LeftArrow)) { //To point 1 Hashtable props = new Hashtable(); props.Add("position", new Vector3(756f,112f,1124f)); props.Add("physics", true); Ani.Mate.To(transform, 2, props); //To point 2 Hashtable props2 = new Hashtable(); props2.Add("position", new Vector3(731f,112f,1124f)); props2.Add("physics", true); Ani.Mate.To(transform, 2, props2); } } What happens practically when I press the left arrow button is that the player moves directly to point 2 using a straight line passing through the wall. I tried to pass to AniMate "Physics = true" but it doesn't seem to help. Any idea on how to solve this issue? Alternatively... any hint on how to have a more optimized code and just use a series of vector3 coordinates (one for each point) to obtain the simple animation I want without having to declare new Hashtable(); etc... every time? I chose AniMate simply because 1. I'm a beginner with Unity 2. I don't need complex animations (e.g. I don't need to use iTween), just fixed animations along straight lines and I need something really simple and quick to implement in a script. However, if someone has an equally simple solution it will be welcome. thank you in advance for your help

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