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• Is there a way to create subdatabases as a kind of subfolders in sql server?

  - by user193655

  I am creating an application where there is main DB and where other data is stored in secondary databases. The secondary databases follow a "plugin" approach. I use SQL Server. A simple installation of the application will just have the mainDB, while as an option one can activate more "plug-ins" and for every plug-in there will be a new database. Now why I made this choice is because I have to work with an exisiting legacy system and this is the smartest thing I could figure to implement the plugin system. MainDB and Plugins DB have exactly the same schema (basically Plugins DB have some "special content", some important data that one can use as a kind of template - think to a letter template for example - in the application). Plugin DBs are so used in readonly mode, they are "repository of content". The "smart" thing is that the main application can also be used by "plugin writers", they just write a DB inserting content, and by making a backup of the database they creaetd a potential plugin (this is why all DBs has the same schema). Those plugins DB are downloaded from internet as there is a content upgrade available, every time the full PlugIn DB is destroyed and a new one with the same name is creaetd. This is for simplicity and even because the size of this DBs is generally small. Now this works, anyway I would prefer to organize the DBs in a kind of Tree structure, so that I can force the PlugIn DBs to be "sub-DBs" of the main application DB. As a workaround I am thinking of using naming rules, like: ApplicationDB (for the main application DB) ApplicationDB_PlugIn_N (for the N-th plugin DB) When I search for plugin 1 I try to connect to ApplicationDB_PlugIn_1, if I don't find the DB i raise an error. This situation can happen for example if som DBA renamed ApplicationDB_Plugin_1. So since those Plugin DBs are really dependant on ApplicationDB only I was trying to "do the subfolder trick". Can anyone suggest a way to do this? Can you comment on this self-made plugin approach I decribed above?

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• Custom bean instantiation logic in Spring MVC

  - by Michal Bachman

  I have a Spring MVC application trying to use a rich domain model, with the following mapping in the Controller class: @RequestMapping(value = "/entity", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Entity entity, BindingResult result, ModelMap modelMap) { if (entity== null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("An entity is required"); if (result.hasErrors()) { modelMap.addAttribute("entity", entity); return "entity/create"; } entity.persist(); return "redirect:/entity/" + entity.getId(); } Before this method gets executed, Spring uses BeanUtils to instantiate a new Entity and populate its fields. It uses this: ... ReflectionUtils.makeAccessible(ctor); return ctor.newInstance(args); Here's the problem: My entities are Spring managed beans. The reason for this is to inject DAOs on them. Instead of calling new, I use EntityFactory.createEntity(). When they're retrieved from the database, I have an interceptor that overrides the public Object instantiate(String entityName, EntityMode entityMode, Serializable id) method and hooks the factories into that. So the last piece of the puzzle missing here is how to force Spring to use the factory rather than its own BeanUtils reflective approach? Any suggestions for a clean solution? Thanks very much in advance.

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• Problem with configure script

  - by cube

  I am running into a problem with the ./configure script for ffmpeg. My linux environment uses busybox, which only allows for limited set of linux commands. One command which is used in the ffmpeg ./configure script is mktemp -u, the problem here is the busybox for linux does not recognize the -u switch as valid, so it complains about it and breaks the configure process. This is the relevant code in ./configure which uses the mktemp -u command: if ! check_cmd type mktemp; then # simple replacement for missing mktemp # NOT SAFE FOR GENERAL USE mktemp(){ echo "${2%XXX*}.${HOSTNAME}.${UID}.$$" } fi tmpfile(){ tmp=$(mktemp -u "${TMPDIR}/ffconf.XXXXXXXX")$2 && (set -C; exec > $tmp) 2>/dev/null || die "Unable to create temporary file in $TMPDIR." append TMPFILES $tmp eval $1=$tmp } I am not good with bash scripting at all, so I was wondering if anyone one had an idea on how I can force this configure script to not use mktemp -u and use the 'replacement' alternative option that is available in as per the snippet above. Thanks. btw... simply removing the -u switch does not work. Nor does replacing it with -t, or -p. I believe the mktemp has to be bypassed completely.

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• Updating table row by given id with jQuery

  - by fabrik

  Hello all! I need to update a specific table row (via tr id="unique_key") after a successful AJAX call. HTML fragment: <a name=\"p{$product_id}\" class=\"tr{$product_id}\"></a> <tr id="p{product_id}" class="item-row"> <td><h3>{product_id}</h3><a rel="facebox" href="ajax_url">{product_name}</a></td> <td>{image_information}</td> <td>{image_sortiment}</td> <td>{product_status}</td> </tr> Javascript: // AJAX Call success: function(msg){ $('#p' + prod_id).remove(); $('.tr' + prod_id).after(msg); $('#p' + prod_id + ' a[rel*=facebox]').facebox(); } ... What happens: The table row removed Anchors grouped into one single row (not before their <tr>'s) so my 'hook' disappears AJAX result inserted over the whole table (after my 'hook' but still a wrong place) What's wrong with my idea? How can i force jQuery to 'overwrite' the required table row?

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• java.lang.IllegalStateException: The content of the adapter has changed but ListView.... inspite of calling notifydatasetchanged()

  - by Mistaken

  What are the best practices to be followed to update the contents of a listactivty by a background thread (Async Task) ? 1) Am calling the notifyDataSetChanged() to update the adapter as soon as i manipulate the contents of the adapter but still my app force closes while the user scrolls or click on the list. Any pointers to prevent this would be very helpfull. Logcat: java.lang.IllegalStateException: The content of the adapter has changed but ListView did not receive a notification. 2) Where exaclty should i update contents of the listactivity ? inside the doInBackground() or onProgressUpdate()? 3) Am experiencing regular crashes when the user clicks the list item. So will disabling click events on the listactivty during the background operation solve the problem ? If so am not sure how to remove or set item click listeners dynamically to the listactivity. Please instruct me on the too. 4) I dont think blocking all ui interactions during the background async task execution is the only way to solve the problem. I know there is a simple way of doing this but need some help. Thanks in advance. This is my onCreate... protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.fa); tvStatus=(TextView) findViewById(R.id.tvStatus); adapter = new SimpleAdapter( this, mostPopularList, R.layout.list_item, new String[] {"title","author","views","date"}, new int[] {R.id.textView1,R.id.textView2,R.id.textView4,R.id.textView3}); //populateList(); setListAdapter(adapter); } My async task... private class LongOperation extends AsyncTask<String, Void, String> { @Override protected String doInBackground(String... params) { // code for adding new listactivty items } @Override protected void onPostExecute(String networkStatus) { adapter.notifyDataSetChanged(); } @Override protected void onPreExecute() { } @Override protected void onProgressUpdate(Void... values) { } }

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• jQuery UI Dialog Issue With IE

  - by Dan Appleyard

  I am using the new jQuery 1.3.2 and jQuery-ui-1.7 libraries along with the UI Dialog. I have a div tag with several form elements (textbox, checkbox, etc.) in it. Upon page load, jQuery shows the div as a dialog. This works absolutely fine in FF, but in IE, the height of the div is wrong. It is just showing the title bar a bit of the content. I explicitly set the height when creating the div. If I set the height option after opening the dialog, the height is corrected, but the content is blank (shows the top third of a textbox). If I allow the dialog to be resizable, if you resize it in IE it works fine, but I don't want to force IE users to resize just to see the contents. Any ideas? Here is the code I use to create the dialog: $('#dialogDiv').dialog({ bgiframe: true, height: 400, width: 620, modal: true, draggable: true, resizable: false, close: function(event, ui) { if($('#agree').val() != '1') location.href = 'somepage.html'; } });

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• Oracle Insert via Select from multiple tables where one table may not have a row

  - by Mikezx6r

  I have a number of code value tables that contain a code and a description with a Long id. I now want to create an entry for an Account Type that references a number of codes, so I have something like this: insert into account_type_standard (account_type_Standard_id, tax_status_id, recipient_id) ( select account_type_standard_seq.nextval, ts.tax_status_id, r.recipient_id from tax_status ts, recipient r where ts.tax_status_code = ? and r.recipient_code = ?) This retrieves the appropriate values from the tax_status and recipient tables if a match is found for their respective codes. Unfortunately, recipient_code is nullable, and therefore the ? substitution value could be null. Of course, the implicit join doesn't return a row, so a row doesn't get inserted into my table. I've tried using NVL on the ? and on the r.recipient_id. I've tried to force an outer join on the r.recipient_code = ? by adding (+), but it's not an explicit join, so Oracle still didn't add another row. Anyone know of a way of doing this? I can obviously modify the statement so that I do the lookup of the recipient_id externally, and have a ? instead of r.recipient_id, and don't select from the recipient table at all, but I'd prefer to do all this in 1 SQL statement.

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• Implementing a Version check between an Abstract class and it's implementation

  - by Michael Stum

  I have this abstract class and concrete implementation (they are in different assemblies): public abstract class MyAbstractClass { private static readonly int MyAbstractClassVersion = 1; public abstract int ImplementedVersion { get; } protected MyAbstractClass() { CheckVersion(); } private void CheckVersion() { var message = string.Format( "MyAbstractClass implements Version {0}, concrete is Version {1}", RepositoryVersion, ImplementedVersion); if (!MyAbstractClassVersion.Equals(ImplementedVersion)) throw new InvalidOperationException(message); } } public class ConcreteClass : MyAbstractClass { public ConcreteClass() : base() { // ConcreteClass is guaranteed to have // a constructor that calls the base constructor // I just simplified the example } public override int ImplementedVersion { get { return 2; } } } As you see, I call CheckVersion() from the abstract constructor, to get rid of the "virtual member call in base constructor" message, but I am not sure if that's really the way to do it. Sure, it works, but that doesn't mean it will always work, will it? Also, I wonder if I can get the name of the Concrete Type from the CheckVersion() function? I know that adding new abstract members will force an error anyway (System.TypeLoadException) and I'm not sure if I want this type of strict Versioning, but I'm just curious how it would be done properly given only the abstract class and an implementation (I know I could do it by using interfaces and/or a Factory pattern).

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• Does Monitor.Wait ensure that fields are re-read?

  - by Marc Gravell

  It is generally accepted (I believe!) that a lock will force any values from fields to be reloaded (essentially acting as a memory-barrier or fence - my terminology in this area gets a bit loose, I'm afraid), with the consequence that fields that are only ever accessed inside a lock do not themselves need to be volatile. (If I'm wrong already, just say!) A good comment was raised here, questioning whether the same is true if code does a Wait() - i.e. once it has been Pulse()d, will it reload fields from memory, or could they be in a register (etc). Or more simply: does the field need to be volatile to ensure that the current value is obtained when resuming after a Wait()? Looking at reflector, Wait calls down into ObjWait, which is managed internalcall (the same as Enter). The scenario in question was: bool closing; public bool TryDequeue(out T value) { lock (queue) { // arbitrary lock-object (a private readonly ref-type) while (queue.Count == 0) { if (closing) { // <==== (2) access field here value = default(T); return false; } Monitor.Wait(queue); // <==== (1) waits here } ...blah do something with the head of the queue } } Obviously I could just make it volatile, or I could move this out so that I exit and re-enter the Monitor every time it gets pulsed, but I'm intrigued to know if either is necessary.

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• autoreload webpage on new release

  - by user3726562

  I have a website in PHP which is completely ajax-based. There is an index.php, but a part from it, all the other page are never rendered directly into the browser. Instead, all the post and get request are done tfrom javascript through ajax. So basically, if you go to /contact.php you will not see anything. All the pages are rendered inside index.php. So, there are a lot of people that use this page that are not very good in using the web. Asking them to "refresh" the page makes them to wonder what we are talking about. Unfortunately. The biggest issue happens when we do a new release. Especially the javascript code (but not only) can be the old one in a client's webpage as they maybe havent refreshed the page for some week (lol). S I do an svn-update and the new code is on the server. I just refresh my page and see the new features. However, the poor guys that dont really know how to make a refresh, will not see anything. I have added a big button on the page with the text "refresh". Which makes a location.reload. Hopefully this can help a few of them. But my question is: how to "force" the browser to reload itself when a new svn-version has been released? Hopefully in a simple way, without needing some node.js, javascript timer or stuff like that. It is also quite important to not refresh the page when the user is doing something with the page (maybe writing a mail in the UI, and then suddenly the page get refreshed: not so good).

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• PHP Array to CSV

  - by JohnnyFaldo

  I'm trying to convert an array of products into a CSV file, but it doesn't seem to be going to plan. The CSV file is one long line, here is my code: for($i=0;$i<count($prods);$i++) { $sql = "SELECT * FROM products WHERE id = '".$prods[$i]."'"; $result = $mysqli->query($sql); $info = $result->fetch_array(); } $header = ''; for($i=0;$i<count($info);$i++) { $row = $info[$i]; $line = ''; for($b=0;$b<count($row);$b++) { $value = $row[$b]; if ( ( !isset( $value ) ) || ( $value == "" ) ) { $value = "\t"; } else { $value = str_replace( '"' , '""' , $value ); $value = '"' . $value . '"' . "\t"; } $line .= $value; } $data .= trim( $line ) . "\n"; } $data = str_replace( "\r" , "" , $data ); if ( $data == "" ) { $data = "\n(0) Records Found!\n"; } header("Content-type: application/octet-stream"); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=your_desired_name.xls"); header("Pragma: no-cache"); header("Expires: 0"); print "$data"; Also, the header doesn't force a download. I've been copy and pasting the output and saving as .csv

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• Why use shorter VARCHAR(n) fields?

  - by chryss

  It is frequently advised to choose database field sizes to be as narrow as possible. I am wondering to what degree this applies to SQL Server 2005 VARCHAR columns: Storing 10-letter English words in a VARCHAR(255) field will not take up more storage than in a VARCHAR(10) field. Are there other reasons to restrict the size of VARCHAR fields to stick as closely as possible to the size of the data? I'm thinking of Performance: Is there an advantage to using a smaller n when selecting, filtering and sorting on the data? Memory, including on the application side (C++)? Style/validation: How important do you consider restricting colunm size to force non-sensical data imports to fail (such as 200-character surnames)? Anything else? Background: I help data integrators with the design of data flows into a database-backed system. They have to use an API that restricts their choice of data types. For character data, only VARCHAR(n) with n <= 255 is available; CHAR, NCHAR, NVARCHAR and TEXT are not. We're trying to lay down some "good practices" rules, and the question has come up if there is a real detriment to using VARCHAR(255) even for data where real maximum sizes will never exceed 30 bytes or so. Typical data volumes for one table are 1-10 Mio records with up to 150 attributes. Query performance (SELECT, with frequently extensive WHERE clauses) and application-side retrieval performance are paramount.

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• Ways to access a 32bit DLL from a 64bit exe

  - by bufferz

  I have a project that must be compiled and run in 64 bit mode. Unfortunately, I am required to call upon a DLL that is only available in 32 bit mode, so there's no way I can house everything in a 1 Visual Studio project. I am working to find the best way to wrap the 32 bit DLL in its own exe/service and issue remote (although on the same machine) calls to that exe/service from my 64 bit app. My OS is Win7 Pro 64 bit. The required calls to this 32 bit process are several dozen per second, but low data volume. This is a realtime image analysis application so response time is critical despite low volume. Lots of sending/receiving single primitives. Ideally, I would host a WCF service to house this DLL, but in a 64 bit OS one cannot force the service to run as x86! Source. That is really unfortunate since I timed function calls to the WCF service to be only 4ms on my machine. I have experimented with named pipes is .net. I found them to be 40-50 times slower than WCF (unusable for me). Any other options or suggestions for the best way to approach my puzzle?

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• mod_rewrite failing on uppercase dir

  - by user1855277

  I have a very basic mod_rewrite in a .htaccess file which I'm sure worked last time I looked at it, but now it is doing strange things with the case of the REQUEST_URI. It's intended purpose is to rewrite sub-domains to a given file, passing the subdomain as a php var of bnurl. Here is my code: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI}= "RSDEV/location/" [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} . RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\. [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.co\.uk(:80)? [NC] RewriteRule ^RSDEV/location/$ RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=%1&accesstype=new [NC,L] Now, typing joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/RSDEV/location/ into my web browser comes back with the response "The requested URL /RSDEV/location/ was not found on this server" which is a correct statement because /RSDEV/location/ is not a real directory, but why did it not rewrite to RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=joebloggs&accesstype=new as expected? Now, the really strange thing here is that if I enter joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/rsdev/location/ into my browser (note rsdev is now lowercase), it correctly rewrites as expected. The script newmain.php is in dir RSDEV (uppercase) so if it was going to fail, I would have expected it to fail the other way round with the lowercase rsdev. As you can see, I have [NC] on each line. Is this my mod_rewrite code failing or some other mystical server force keeping me up all night?

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• Detect if Download is Complete

  - by user604138

  I have a very simple and standard PHP force download script. How do I check if/when the download has completed in order to notify the user on the clientside? I don't even need to show the progress in real time, I am only interested in the very specific event: "when the download completes". Based on my research, it seems like it would have to be determined from the serverside as there is noondownloadready event and I don't think it is possible to intercept browser events. So it seems that my best bet would be to compare bytes sent to total bytes with some sort of clientside/severside interaction. How would I go about checking the bytes sent from the server for a PHP forced download? is there some sort of global PHP variable that store these data that I can ping with AJAX? <?php header("Content-Type: video/x-msvideo"); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=\"".basename($realpath)."\";"); ... $chunksize = 1 * (1024 * 1024); // how many bytes per chunk if ($size > $chunksize) { $handle = fopen($realpath, 'rb'); $buffer = ''; while (!feof($handle)) { $buffer = fread($handle, $chunksize); echo $buffer; ob_flush(); flush(); } fclose($handle); } else { readfile($realpath); } exit(); ?> The reason I need this: For the project I am working on, it is required that after the download starts, the page redirects to (or displays) a "please wait while the download completes" page. Then, once it is complete, it should redirect to (or display) a "Your download is complete, thank you" page. I am open to other ideas that would achieve the same result.

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• Inconsistent canvas drawing in Android browser

  - by user2943466

  In putting together a small canvas app I've stumbled across a weird behavior that only seems to occur in the default browser in Android. When drawing to a canvas that has the globalCompositeOperation set to 'destination-out' to act as the 'eraser' tool, Android browser sometimes acts as expected, sometimes does not update the pixels in the canvas at all. the setup: context.clearRect(0,0, canvas.width, canvas.height); context.drawImage(img, 0, 0, canvas.width, canvas.height); context.globalCompositeOperation = 'destination-out'; draw a circle to erase pixels from the canvas: context.fillStyle = '#FFFFFF'; context.beginPath(); context.arc(x,y,25,0,TWO_PI,true); context.fill(); context.closePath(); a small demo to illustrate the issue can be seen here: http://gumbojuice.com/files/source-out/ and the javascript is here: http://gumbojuice.com/files/source-out/js/main.js this has been tested in multiple desktop and mobile browsers and behaves as expected. On Android native browser after refreshing the page sometimes it works, sometimes nothing happens. I've seen other hacks that move the canvas by a pixel in order to force a redraw but this is not an ideal solution.. Thanks all.

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• Why Is Java Missing Access Specifiers?

  - by Tom Tresansky

  Does anyone understand why Java is missing: An access specifier which allows access by the class and all subclasses, but NOT by other classes in the same package? (Protected-minus) An access specifier which allows access by the class, all classes in the same package, AND all classes in any sub-package? (Default-plus) An access specifier which adds classes in sub-packages to the entities currently allowed access by protected? (Protected-plus) I wish I had more choices than protected and default. In particular, I'm interested in the Protected-plus option. Say I want to use a Builder/Factory patterned class to produce an object with many links to other objects. The constructors on the objects are all default, because I want to force you to use the factory class to produce instances, in order to make sure the linking is done correctly. I want to group the factories in a sub-package to keep them all together and distinct from the objects they are instantiating---this just seems like a cleaner package structure to me. No can do, currently. I have to put the builders in the same package as the objects they are constructing, in order to gain the access to defaults. But separating project.area.objects from project.area.objects.builders would be so nice. So why is Java lacking these options? And, is there anyway to fake it?

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• How do I show the selected item in an HTML <select> at the top

  - by Michael Meadows

  I have an HTML select that looks something like this (values are fake) <select size="40"> <option value="1">What would you do if I sang out of tune,</option> <option value="2">Would you stand up and walk out on me?</option> ... more <option value="156">Lend me your ears, and I'll sing you a song,</option> <option selected="selected" value="157">I will try not to sing out of key.</option> <option value="158">Oh, I get by with a little help from my friends.</option> ... more <option value="507">I get high with a little help from my friends.</option> <option value="509">Gonna' try with a little from my friends.</option> </select> The problem that I have is that when displaying the list after loading the page and the selected option is in the middle of the very long list, IE scrolls the selected option to the top of the list (which is what I want). Firefox, Chrome, Opera, and Safari show it at the bottom (which I don't want). I have to assume that IE is doing it wrong since everyone else shows it at the bottom. How can I force the browsers to display the selected item at the top of the list. I do not want to put it at the top of the list, I just want it to scroll such that the selected option is at the top. bonus, it would be even better if I can put it fourth from the top, but I can live without that if it's too difficult.

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• Why doesn't Firefox redownload images already on a page?

  - by vvo

  Hello, i just read this article : https://developer.mozilla.org/en/HTTP_Caching_FAQ There's a firefox behavior (and some other browsers i guess) i'd like to understand : if i take any webpage and try to insert the same image multiple times in javascript, the image is only downloaded ONCE even if i specifiy all needed headers to say "do no ever use cache". (see article) I know there are workarounds (like addind query strings to end of urls etc) but why do firefox act like that, if i say that an image do not have to be cached, why is the image still taken from cache when i try to re-insert it ? Plus, what cache is used for this ? (I guess it's the memory cache) Is this behavior the same for dynamic inclusion for example ? ANSWSER IS NO :) I just tested it and the same headers for a js script will make firefox redownload it each time you append the script to the DOM. PS: I know you're wondering WHY i need to do that (appending same image multiple times and force to redownload but this is the way our app works) thank you The good answer is : firefox will store images for the current page load in the memory cache even if you specify he doesnt have to cache them. You can't change this behavior but this is odd because it's not the same for javascript files for example Could someone explain or link to a document describing how firefox cache WORKS?

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• Memcached getDelayed alternative implementation

  - by iBobo

  I would like to use getDelayed on the PHP Memcached extension but I think it's not implemented in the right way. Right now you ask for some keys and then retrieve all of them with fetch() and fetchAll(). But imagine a scenario where I need to retrieve 15 keys used in different parts of the page which I don't know in advance, but I can ask the various objects to give me the list. What I want is give the Memcached instance this list (each component would give its part) then later when I need them retrieve from the instance, but not all of them at once: each component would take the one it needs. Basically if I were to implement this I would prohibit using getDelayed alone and implement a bookGet($keys) method where you would add the keys to book (which actually calls getDelayed), and redefine get to handle these three cases: key is booked and retrieved - return the value; key is booked but not retrieved - go and force the fetch of the booked keys and return the correct value; key not booked - do a normal lookup. I want to know if this makes sense, your thoughts on the subject and if someone already implemented this or maybe PECL Memcached already works this way and actually the documentation doesn't explain it correctly.

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• Android Java error handling XML file

  - by Paul

  I'm using SAX and XML reader to read XML weather info from the web and it works fine if the page exists. But if for instance the user inputs an invalid city, zip etc the XML page that gets read from is empty and the app force closes with nullpointerexception. The area that generates the error is here right at open inputstream. Any suggestions?: SAXParserFactory spf = SAXParserFactory.newInstance(); SAXParser sp = null; try { sp = spf.newSAXParser(); } catch (ParserConfigurationException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (SAXException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } /* Get the XMLReader of the SAXParser we created. */ XMLReader xr = null; try { xr = sp.getXMLReader(); } catch (SAXException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } /* Create a new ContentHandler and apply it to the XML-Reader*/ WeatherHandler myExampleHandler = new WeatherHandler(); xr.setContentHandler(myExampleHandler); /* Parse the xml-data from our URL. */ try { xr.parse(new InputSource(url.openStream())); parsedWeatherDataSet = myExampleHandler.getParsedData(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (SAXException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } return parsedWeatherDataSet.toString();

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• Powershell wait for file to delete, then copy a folder

  - by user3317623

  Morning guys, I have a couple of scripts that have to sync a folder from the network server, to the local terminal server, and lastly into the %LOCALAPPDATA%. I need to first check if a folder is being synced (this is done by creating a temporary COPYING.TXT on the server), and wait until that is removed, THEN copy to %LOCALAPPDATA%. Something like this: Server-side script executes, which syncs my folder to all of my terminal servers. It creates a COPYING.TXT temporary file, which indicates the sync is in progress. Once the sync is finished, the script removes the COPYING.TXT If someone logs on during the sync, I need a script to wait until the COPYING.TXT is deleted I.E the sync is finished, then resume the local sync into their %LOCALAPPDATA%. do{cp c:\folder\program $env:LOCALAPPDATA} while(!(test-path c:\folder\COPYING.txt)) (So that copies the folder while the file DOESN'T exist, but I don't think that exits cleanly) I cannot format the above as code for some reason I'm sorry? Or: while(!(test-path c:\folder\COPYING.txt)){ cp c:\folder\program $env:LOCALAPPDATA\ -recurse -force if (!(test-path c:\folder\program)){return} } But that script quits if the COPYING.TXT exists. I think I need to create a function and insert that function within itself, or a nested while loop, but that is starting to make my head hurt. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks guys.

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• loading remote page into DOM with javascript

  - by scoobydoo

  I am trying to write a web widget which will allow users to display customized information (from my website) in their own web page. The mechanism I want to use (for creating the web widget) is javascript. So basically, I want to be able to write some javascript code like this (this is what the end user copies into their HTML page, to get my widget displayed in their page) <script type="text/javascript"> /* javascript here to fetch page from remote url and insert into DOM */ </script> I have two questions: how do I write a javascript code to fetch the page from the remote url? Ideally this will be PLAIN javascript (i.e. not using jQuery etc - since I dont want to force the user to get third party scripts jQuery which may conflict with other scripts on their page etc) The page I am fetching contains inline javascript, which gets executed in an body.onLoad event, as well as other functions which are used in response to user actions - my questions are: i). will the body.onLoad event be triggered for the retrieved document?. ii). If the retrieved page is dumped directly into the DOM, then the document will contain two <body> sections, which is no longer valid (X)HTML - however, I need the body.onLoad event to be triggered for the page to be setup correctly, and I also need the other functions in the retrieved page, for the retrieved page to be able to respond to the user interaction. Any suggestions/tips on how I can solve these problems?

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• Complicated API issue with calling assemblies dynamically?

  - by Stefanos Tses

  I have an interesting challenge that I'm wondering if anyone here can give me some direction. I'm writing a .Net windows forms application that runs on a network and uses an SQL Server to save and pull data. I want to offer a mini "plugin" API, where developers can build their own assemblies and implement a specific interface (IDataManipulate). These assemblies then can be used by my application to call the interface functions and do something. I can create assemblies using my API, copy the file to a folder in my local hard drive and configure my application to use Reflection to call a specific function from the implemented interface (IDataManipulate.Execute). The problem: Since the application will be installed in multiple workstations in the network, is impossible to copy the plugin dlls the users will create to each machine. Solutions I tried: Solution 1 Copy the API dll to a network share. Problem: Requires AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute, which requires .Net singing, which I can't force from my users. Solution 2 (preferred) Serialize the dll object, save it to the database, deserialize it and call IDataManipulate.Execute. Problem: After deserialization, I try cast it to a IDataManipulate object but returns an error looking for the actual dll file. Solution 3 Save the dll bytes as byte[] to the database and recreate the dll at the local PC every time the user starts my application. Problem: Dll may have dependencies, which I don't know if I can detect. Any suggestions will be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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• Code producing System.NullReferenceException error for Membership.GetUser(). This is VB.Net (ASP.Net 4)

  - by Derrek

  I have a Default.aspx page that is not static. I have added functionality with datalist and sqldatasources. When a user logins he/she will see items like saved workouts, saved equipment, total replys, etc... This is based on getting the currently logged in user UserID. Quite simply this works great when the user is logged in. However, I do not want to force a user to login to view the Default page because it does have functionality on it that does not require login. When a user is not logged in of course I receive the [System.NullReferenceException] error. I understand the error well but I do not know how to code to fix it. That is where I need help. I will admit I am more designer than developer. However, I do know the exception error I am receivving is caused by me not setting a value in my code when a user is not logged in. I do not know how to do that and have for a week made unsuccessful attempts at writing the code. Both sets of code below compile for VB.Net/ASP.Net 4/Visual Studio 2010 without errors. However, I still get the System.NullReferenceException error if not logged in. I know it can be done but I do not know the right syntax. If you can help please insert you code in mine or write it out. JUST TELLING ME WHERE TO GO TO FIND AN ANSWER WON'T HELP. I HAVE DONE THAT FOR 7 STRAIGHT DAYS. I APPRECIATE OUR HELP. Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() If Not MemUser Is DBNull.Value Then UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End If End Sub -------------------------------------ORIGINAL CODE------------------------------- Partial Class _Default Inherits System.Web.UI.Page Protected Sub SqlDataSource4_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As SqlDataSourceCommandEventArgs) Handles SqlDataSource4.Selecting Dim MemUser As MembershipUser MemUser = Membership.GetUser() UserID.Text = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() e.Command.Parameters("@UserId").Value = MemUser.ProviderUserKey.ToString() End Sub

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