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  • Simple POSIX threads question

    - by Andy
    Hi, I have this POSIX thread: void subthread(void) { while(!quit_thread) { // do something ... // don't waste cpu cycles if(!quit_thread) usleep(500); } // free resources ... // tell main thread we're done quit_thread = FALSE; } Now I want to terminate subthread() from my main thread. I've tried the following: quit_thread = TRUE; // wait until subthread() has cleaned its resources while(quit_thread); But it does not work! The while() clause does never exit although my subthread clearly sets quit_thread to FALSE after having freed its resources! If I modify my shutdown code like this: quit_thread = TRUE; // wait until subthread() has cleaned its resources while(quit_thread) usleep(10); Then everything is working fine! Could someone explain to me why the first solution does not work and why the version with usleep(10) suddenly works? I know that this is not a pretty solution. I could use semaphores/signals for this but I'd like to learn something about multithreading, so I'd like to know why my first solution doesn't work. Thanks!

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  • Clearing Session in Global Application_Error

    - by Zarigani
    Whenever an unhandled exception occurs on our site, I want to: Send a notification email Clear the user's session Send the user to a error page ("Sorry, a problem occurred...") The first and last I've had working for a long time but the second is causing me some issues. My Global.asax.vb includes: Sub Application_Error(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) ' Send exception report Dim ex As System.Exception = Nothing If HttpContext.Current IsNot Nothing AndAlso HttpContext.Current.Server IsNot Nothing Then ex = HttpContext.Current.Server.GetLastError End If Dim eh As New ErrorHandling(ex) eh.SendError() ' Clear session If HttpContext.Current IsNot Nothing AndAlso HttpContext.Current.Session IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Session.Clear() End If ' User will now be sent to the 500 error page (by the CustomError setting in web.config) End Sub When I run a debug, I can see the session being cleared, but then on the next page the session is back again! I eventually found a reference that suggests that changes to session will not be saved unless Server.ClearError is called. Unfortunately, if I add this (just below the line that sets "ex") then the CustomErrors redirect doesn't seem to kick in and I'm left with a blank page? Is there a way around this?

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  • negative values in integer programming model

    - by Lucia
    I'm new at using the glpk tool, and after writing a model for certain integer problem and running the solver (glpsol) i get negative values in some constraint that shouldn't be negative at all: No.Row name Activity Lower bound Upper bound 8 act[1] 0 -0 9 act[2] -3 -0 10 act[2] -2 -0 That constraint is defined like this: act{j in J}: sum{i in I} d[i,j] <= y[j]*m; where the sets and variables used are like this: param m, integer, 0; param n, integer, 0; set I := 1..m; set J := 1..n; var y{j in J}, binary; As the upper bound is negative, i think the problem may be in the y[j]*m parte, of the right side of the inequality.. perhaps something with the multiplication of binarys? or that the j in that side of the constrait is undefined? i dont know... i would be greatly grateful if someone can help me with this! :) and excuse for my bad english thanks in advance!

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  • Arduino variable going blank after first pass.

    - by user541597
    I have an arduino sketch that takes a timet and when that timet is equal to the current time it sets the new timet to timet + 2. For example: char* convert(char* x, String y){ int hour; int minute; sscanf(x, "%d:%d", &hour, &minute); char buf[6]; if (y == "6"){ if (hour > 17){ hour = (hour+6)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); }else if (hour < 18){ //hour = hour + 6; minute = (minute + 2); snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "12"){ if (hour > 11){ hour = (hour+12)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } else if (hour < 12){ hour = hour + 12; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "24"){ hour = (hour+24)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } return buf; } sketch starts for example at 1:00am timet is set to 1:02, at system time 1:02 timet == system time my loops looks like this: if (timet == currenttime){ timet = convert(timet) } From this now when ever I check the value of timet it should equal 1:04, however I am getting the correct value at the first run after the execution of convert however everytime after that my timet value is blank. I tried changing the code instead of using the if loop I only run the convert function when I send for example t through the serial monitor, this works fine and outputs the correct timet after the execution of the convert function, So I figured the problem is in the if loop... Any ideas?

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  • Is it possible to achieve MAX(As,Ad) openGL blending?

    - by Jeff B
    I am working on a game where I want to create shadows under a series of sprites on a grid. The shadows are larger than the sprites themselves and the sprites are animated (i.e. move and rotate). I cannot simply render them into the sprite png, or the shadows will overlap adjacent sprites. I also cannot simply put shadows on a lower layer by themselves, because when they overlap, they will create dark bands at their intersection. These sprites are animated, so it is not feasible to render these en masse. Basically, I want the sprites' shadows to blend together such that they max out at a set opacity. Example: I believe this is equivalent to an openGL blending of (Rs,Gs,Bs,Max(As,Ds)), where I don't really care about R,G, and B, as it will always be the same color in src and dst. However, this is not a valid openGL blending mode. Is there an easy way to accomplish this, especially in cocos2d-iphone? I would be able to approximate this by making the shadow sprites opaque, then applying them both to a parent sprite, and making the parent sprite 40% opacity. However, the way cocos2d works, this only sets the opacity of each child to 40%, rather than the combined sprite image, which results in the same stripe.

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  • Basic user authentication with records in AngularFire

    - by ajkochanowicz
    Having spent literally days trying the different, various recommended ways to do this, I've landed on what I think is the most simple and promising. Also thanks to the kind gents from this SO question: Get the index ID of an item in Firebase AngularFire Curent setup Users can log in with email and social networks, so when they create a record, it saves the userId as a sort of foreign key. Good so far. But I want to create a rule so twitter2934392 cannot read facebook63203497's records. Off to the security panel Match the IDs on the backend Unfortunately, the docs are inconsistent with the method from is firebase user id unique per provider (facebook, twitter, password) which suggest appending the social network to the ID. The docs expect you to create a different rule for each of the login method's ids. Why anyone using 1 login method would want to do that is beyond me. (From: https://www.firebase.com/docs/security/rule-expressions/auth.html) So I'll try to match the concatenated auth.provider with auth.id to the record in userId for the respective registry item. According to the API, this should be as easy as In my case using $registry instead of $user of course. { "rules": { ".read": true, ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "$registry == auth.id" } } } } But that won't work, because (see the first image above), AngularFire sets each record under an index value. In the image above, it's 0. Here's where things get complicated. Also, I can't test anything in the simulator, as I cannot edit {some: 'json'} To even authenticate. The input box rejects any input. My best guess is the following. { "rules": { ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "data.child('userId').val() == (auth.provider + auth.id)" } } } } Which both throws authentication errors and simultaneously grants full read access to all users. I'm losing my mind. What am I supposed to do here?

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  • Test the sequentiality of a column with a single SQL query

    - by LauriE
    Hey, I have a table that contains sets of sequential datasets, like that: ID set_ID some_column n 1 'set-1' 'aaaaaaaaaa' 1 2 'set-1' 'bbbbbbbbbb' 2 3 'set-1' 'cccccccccc' 3 4 'set-2' 'dddddddddd' 1 5 'set-2' 'eeeeeeeeee' 2 6 'set-3' 'ffffffffff' 2 7 'set-3' 'gggggggggg' 1 At the end of a transaction that makes several types of modifications to those rows, I would like to ensure that within a single set, all the values of "n" are still sequential (rollback otherwise). They do not need to be in the same order according to the PK, just sequential, like 1-2-3 or 3-1-2, but not like 1-3-4. Due to the fact that there might be thousands of rows within a single set I would prefer to do it in the db to avoid the overhead of fetching the data just for verification after making some small changes. Also there is the issue of concurrency. The way locking in InnoDB (repeatable read) works (as I understand) is that if I have an index on "n" then InnoDB also locks the "gaps" between values. If I combine set_ID and n to a single index, would that eliminate the problem of phantom rows appearing? Looks to me like a common problem. Any brilliant ideas? Thanks! Note: using MySQL + InnoDB

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  • How can I determine the "correct" number of steps in a questionnaire where branching is used?

    - by Mike Kingscott
    I have a potential maths / formula / algorithm question which I would like help on. I've written a questionnaire application in ASP.Net that takes people through a series of pages. I've introduced conditional processing, or branching, so that some pages can be skipped dependent on an answer, e.g. if you're over a certain age, you will skip the page that has Teen Music Choice and go straight to the Golden Oldies page. I wish to display how far along the questionnaire someone is (as a percentage). Let's say I have 10 pages to go through and my first answer takes me straight to page 9. Technically, I'm now 90% of the way through the questionnaire, but the user can think of themselves as being on page 2 of 3: the start page (with the branching question), page 9, then the end page (page 10). How can I show that I'm on 66% and not 90% when I'm on page 9 of 10? For further information, each Page can have a number of questions on that can have one or more conditions on them that will send the user to another page. By default, the next page will be the next one in the collection, but that can be over-ridden (e.g. entire sets of pages can be skipped). Any thoughts? :-s

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  • Seeking C Union clarity

    - by mustISignUp
    typedef union { float flts[4]; struct { GLfloat r; GLfloat theta; GLfloat phi; GLfloat w; }; struct { GLfloat x; GLfloat y; GLfloat z; GLfloat w; }; } FltVector; Ok, so i think i get how to use this, (or, this is how i have seen it used) ie. FltVector fltVec1 = {{1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f, 1.0f}}; float aaa = fltVec1.x; etc. But i'm not really groking how much storage has been declared by the union (4 floats? 8 floats? 12 floats?), how? and why? Also why two sets of curly braces when using FltVector {{}}? Any pointers much appreciated (sorry for the pun)

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  • MVVM: Do I need Inheritance with ViewModels A + B ?

    - by Lisa
    Hello guys my first post on SO because EE sucks in the meantime ;P I am using wpf and mvvm in my desktop application. Scenario: I have a calendar with week A and week B which are rotating by every X week depending on the user settings. But the UserControl "week B" is only visible when the user sets the option "rotating weeks"... The UserControl with week A has a DataGrid and for week B I want to use the same UserControl of course. What I want to achieve is that all data entered/choosen by the user in the Week A is saved/backed by a ViewModel A and Model C. When the user wants a rotating weekly calendar plan I need also a ViewModel B and again Model C. The reason why I need to know what data entered by the user belongs to week A or week B is because I have to write the entered data in a certain order into the database = db.Write(weekA),db.Write(weekB),db.Write(weekA),etc... I am unsure how a solution could look like... What would you do to identify a ViewModel A or B so you know the order of how to write the data in the proper order into database? Any other suggestions are also welcome of course, maybe I think in the wrong direction its late here :) I am new to mvvm so please be patient.

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  • Is it possible to persist two profiles with the Profile Provider Model?

    - by NickGPS
    I have a website that needs to store two sets of user data into separate data stores. The first set of data is used by the SiteCore CMS and holds information about the user. The second set of data is used by a personalisation application that stores its own user data. The reason they aren't stored together in the same profile object is because the personalisation application is used across multiple websites that do not all use SiteCore. I am able to create multiple Profile Providers - I currently have one from SiteCore and a custom provider that I have written and these both work in isolation. The problem exists when you try to configure both in the same web.config file. It seems you can only specify a single Profile object in the web.config file, rather than one for each provider. This means that regardless of which provider is being used the .Net framework sends through the profile object that is specified in the "inherits" parameter in the profile section of the web.config file. My questions are - Is it possible to specify a different Profile object for each Profile Provider? If so, how and where is this specified? Thanks, Nick

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  • Asp.Net Cookie sharing

    - by SH
    This is C#.Net code: How to share Cookie between 2 HttpWebRequest calls? Details: I am posting a form in first request, this form contains some setting variables which are used by the system. lets say there is a input field in the form which sets the size of grid pages to be displayed in other pages. Once i have updated the setings in previous request, i go to send a request to another page which shows off asp.net gridview/grid. The grid might contaian several pages and the page size should be the one which i set in previous request. But when i do this via HttpWebReeust it does not happen. When i do it via browser, loading the setting page in the browser and then going to the grid view page... i see the page size is updated. I want to achieve this via code. Sicne i am scraping this grid. i have to set page size or visit the gird pages one by one via code. Or is it possible to set a cookie on 2nd request which is used to set in first request? It will be great if i go this way. any solution?

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  • Using Lucene to index private data, should I have a separate index for each user or a single index

    - by Nathan Bayles
    I am developing an Azure based website and I want to provide search capabilities using Lucene. (structured json objects would be indexed and stored in Lucene and other content such as Word documents, etc. would be indexed in lucene but stored in blob storage) I want the search to be secure, such that one user would never see a document belonging to another user. I want to allow ad-hoc searches as typed by the user. Lastly, I want to query programmatically to return predefined sets of data, such as "all notes for user X". I think I understand how to add properties to each document to achieve these 3 objectives. (I am listing them here so if anyone is kind enough to answer, they will have better idea of what I am trying to do) My questions revolve around performance and security. Can I improve document security by having a separate index for each user, or is including the user's ID as a parameter in each search sufficient? Can I improve indexing speed and total throughput of the system by having a separate index for each user? My thinking is that having separate indexes would allow me to scale the system by having multiple index writers (perhaps even on different server instances) working at the same time, each on their own index. Any insight would be greatly appreciated. Regards, Nate

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  • python matrices - list index out of range

    - by user1888493
    I am writing a function, that takes a matrix as input, such as the one below. Then the it returns the matrix' inverse, where all the 1s are changed to 0s and all the 0s changed to 1s, while keeping the diagonal from top left to bottom right 0s. An example input: g1 = [[0, 1, 1, 0], [1, 0, 0, 1], [1, 0, 0, 1], [0, 1, 1, 0]] the function should output this: g1 = [[0, 0, 0, 1], [0, 0, 1, 0], [0, 1, 0, 0], [1, 0, 0, 0]] When I run the program, it raises a list index out of range error. I'm sure this happens, because the loops I have set up are trying to access values that do not exist. But how do I allow an input of unknown row and column size? I only know how to do this with a single list, but a list of lists? Following you see the transforming function, but not the test function that calls it: def inverse_graph(graph): # take in graph # change all zeros to ones and ones to zeros r, c = 0, 0 # row, column equal zero while (graph[r][c] == 0 or graph[r][c] == 1): # while the current row has a value. while (graph[r][c] == 0 or graph[r][c] == 1): # while the current column has a value if (graph[r][c] == 0): graph[r][c] = 1 elif (graph[r][c] == 1): graph[r][c] = 0 c+=1 c=0 r+=1 c=0 r=0 # sets diagonal to zeros while (g1[r][c] == 0 or g1[r][c] == 1): g1[r][c]=0 c+=1 r+=1 return graph

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  • Prevent duplicate entries in arraylist

    - by timyh
    Say I create some object class like so public class thing { private String name; private Integer num; public oDetails (String a, Integer b) { name = a; num = b; } ...gets/ sets/ etc Now I want to create an arraylist to hold a number of this object class like so. ArrayList<thing> myList = new ArrayList<thing>; thing first = new thing("Star Wars", 3); thing second = new thing("Star Wars", 1); myList.add(first); myList.add(second); I would like to include some sort of logic so that in this case...when we try and add object "second" rather than add a new object to the arrayList, we add second.getNum() to first.getNum(). So if you were to iterate through the ArrayList it would be "Star Wars", 4 I am having trouble coming up with an elegant way of handling this. And as the arraylist grows, searching through it to determine if there are duplicate name items becomes cumbersome. Can anyone provide some guidance on this?

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  • Mercurial Subrepos, how to control which changeset I want to use for a subrepo?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I am reading up on subrepos, and have been running some tests locally, seems to work OK so far, but I have one question. How do I specify/control which changeset I want to use for a particular subrepo? For instance, let's say I have the following two projects: class library application o fourth commit o second commit, added a feature | | o third commit o initial commit | | o second commit |/ o initial commit Now, I want the class library as a subrepo of my application, but due to the immaturity of the longest branch (the one ending up as fourth commit), I want to temporarily use the "second commit" tip. How do I go about configuring that, assuming it is even possible? Here's a batch file that sets up the above two repos + adds the library as a subrepo. If you run the batch file, it will output: [C:\Temp] :test ... v4 As you can see from that last line there, it verifies the contents of the file in the class library, which is "v4" from the fourth commit. I'd like it to be "v2", and persist as "v2" until I'm ready to pull down a newer version from the class library repository. Can anyone tell me if it is possible to do what I want, and if so, what I need to do in order to lock my subrepo to the right changeset? Batch-file: @echo off if exist app rd /s /q app if exist lib rd /s /q lib if exist app-clone rd /s /q app-clone rem == app == hg init app cd app echo program>main.txt hg add main.txt hg commit -m "initial commit" echo program+feature1>main.txt hg commit -m "second commit, added a feature" cd .. rem == lib == hg init lib cd lib echo v1>lib.txt hg add lib.txt hg commit -m "initial commit" echo v2>lib.txt hg commit -m "second commit" hg update 0 echo v3>lib.txt hg commit -m "third commit" echo v4>lib.txt hg commit -m "fourth commit" cd .. rem == subrepos == cd app hg clone ..\lib lib echo lib = ..\lib >.hgsub hg add .hgsub hg commit -m "added subrepo" cd .. rem == clone == hg clone app app-clone type app-clone\lib\lib.txt

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  • Wordpress paths issue

    - by Martin
    I have set a crawler up in wordpress which grabs stocks data and writes to file which when a user enters a symbol/ticker the variable is read and if it matches the data of a previous crawl for that particular companies data will echo the text file on page, if no data is found the crawler then sets off grabs it and writes to file to save for the next time that symbol is used. The problem im having is that everything works groovey apart from one thing, when the content is written to file it saves it in the WP root and not inside a subfolder of the theme, basicaly this means that root becomes untidy very quickly and also should the theme be used on another site then its not practical as some important info is missing. I have tried bloginfo and absolute both return the same failure. This is the code i am using to write to file, like i say it works apart from writing the file into root. <?php $CompDetails = "http://www.devserverurl.com/mattv1/wp-content/themes/stocks/tools/modules/Stock_Quote/company_details/$Symbol.txt"; if (file_exists($CompDetails)) {} else { include ('crawler_file.php'); $html = file_get_html("http://targeturl.com/research/stocks/snapshot/snapshot.asp?ticker=$Symbol:US"); $es = $html->find('div[class="detailsDataContainerLt"]'); $tickerdetails = ("$es[0]"); $FileHandle2 = fopen($CompDetails, 'w') or die("can't open file"); fwrite($FileHandle2, $tickerdetails); fclose($FileHandle2); } ?> edit below, have also tried this and the same happens as above <?php if (file_exists($_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . "/wp-content/themes/stocks/tools/modules/Stock_Quote/company_details/$Symbol.txt")) {} else { include ('crawler_file.php'); $html = file_get_html("http://targeturl.com/research/stocks/snapshot/snapshot.asp?ticker=$Symbol:US"); $es = $html->find('div[class="detailsDataContainerLt"]'); $tickerdetails = ("$es[0]"); $FileHandle2 = fopen($_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . "/wp-content/themes/stocks/tools/modules/Stock_Quote/company_details/$Symbol.txt", 'w') or die("can't open file"); fwrite($FileHandle2, $tickerdetails); fclose($FileHandle2); } ?>

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  • objective C underscore property vs self

    - by user1216838
    I'm was playing around with the standard sample split view that gets created when you select a split view application in Xcode, and after adding a few fields i needed to add a few fields to display them in the detail view. and something interesting happend in the original sample, the master view sets a "detailItem" property in the detail view and the detail view displays it. - (void)setDetailItem:(id) newDetailItem { if (_detailItem != newDetailItem) { _detailItem = newDetailItem; // Update the view. [self configureView]; } i understand what that does and all, so while i was playing around with it. i thought it would be the same if instead of _detailItem i used self.detailItem, since it's a property of the class. however, when i used self.detailItem != newDetailItem i actually got stuck in a loop where this method is constantly called and i cant do anything else in the simulator. my question is, whats the actual difference between the underscore variables(ivar?) and the properties? i read some posts here it seems to be just some objective C convention, but it actually made some difference.

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  • joomla! migration

    - by tim
    I have a Joomla! installation on a remote site and I want to run it locally. I'm running Joomla! locally on a Mac through a standard MAMP installation: Joomla 1.5.12 PHP 5.2.6 MySQL 5.0.41 Apache 2.0.59 OS X 10.5.8 I've added a configuration file to the local Joomla! directory with all the correct local settings, database name, database user-name, database password etc. etc. I've tried a lot of different settings. I've also recreated the remote database locally, ensuring everything copied correctly. I followed a few different sets of instructions with roughly the same steps on how to do the migration. All of the above has not worked for me; at best I get bits of text from the site rendered in the browser. Other times I get SQL errors. What I want is for an already set up remote Joomla! installation to run on my own local machine. Does anyone have any advice as to how to get this working, it'd be very much appreciated? Thanks.

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  • How to map oracle timestamp to appropriate java type in hibernate?

    - by jschoen
    I am new to hibernate and I am stumped. In my database I have tables that have a columns of TIMESTAMP(6). I am using Netbeans 6.5.1 and when I generate the hibernate.reveng.xml, hbm.xml files, and pojo files it sets the columns to be of type Serializable. This is not what I expected, nor what I want them to be. I found this post on the hibernate forums saying to place: in the hibernate.reveng.xml file. In Netbeans you are not able to generate the mappings from this file (it creates a new one every time) and it does not seem to have the ability to re-generate them from the file either (at least according to this it is slated to be available in version 7). So I am trying to figure out what to do. I am more inclined to believe I am doing something wrong since I am new to this, and it seems like it would be a common problem for others. So what am I doing wrong? If I am not doing anything wrong, how do I work around this? I am using Netbeans 6.5, Oracle 10G, and I believe Hibernate 3 (it came with my netbeans). Edit: Meant to say I found this stackoverflow question, but it is really a different problem.

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  • Does Interlocked guarantee visibility to other threads in C# or do I still have to use volatile?

    - by Lirik
    I've been reading the answer to a similar question, but I'm still a little confused... Abel had a great answer, but this is the part that I'm unsure about: ...declaring a variable volatile makes it volatile for every single access. It is impossible to force this behavior any other way, hence volatile cannot be replaced with Interlocked. This is needed in scenarios where other libraries, interfaces or hardware can access your variable and update it anytime, or need the most recent version. Does Interlocked guarantee visibility of the atomic operation to all threads, or do I still have to use the volatile keyword on the value in order to guarantee visibility of the change? Here is my example: public class CountDownLatch { private volatile int m_remain; // <--- do I need the volatile keyword there since I'm using Interlocked? private EventWaitHandle m_event; public CountDownLatch (int count) { Reset(count); } public void Reset(int count) { if (count < 0) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); m_remain = count; m_event = new ManualResetEvent(false); if (m_remain == 0) { m_event.Set(); } } public void Signal() { // The last thread to signal also sets the event. if (Interlocked.Decrement(ref m_remain) == 0) m_event.Set(); } public void Wait() { m_event.WaitOne(); } }

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  • Calling a WPF Appliaction and modify exposed properties?

    - by Justin
    I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the appliaction (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the appliaction. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is thier a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Appliaction Dim e_key as new WpfAppliaction("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style appliaction. ''work with events and resposne 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my key_board and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

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  • Setting "submit"

    - by user361626
    Driving me a bit nuts this one, have tried alsorts of combination's... At the top of my file I have PHP Code: if (!ISSET ($_POST['submit'])) which tests if the submit has been hit, if not displays the form.... What I'd like to be able to to is generate a link that would be processed directly by the php code that the form would normally be submitted to... (does that make sense ?) so a generated link in the code looks like .. PHP Code: echo '<a href="index.php?submit&s_type=' . $s_type . '&d_height=' . $d_height . '&j_ref=' . $j_ref . '&j_name=' . j_name . '">' . $j_ref . '</a>'; The link generated looks like .. HTML Code: index.php?s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name I have tried setting "submit" with links like HTML Code: index.php?submit=submit&s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name index.php?submit&s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name How do I create a link that sets "submit so it gets processed rather than going through the form ???

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  • iPhone SDK Programming - Working with a variable across 2 views

    - by SD
    I have what I hope is a fairly simple question about using the value from a variable across 2 views. I’m new to the iPhone SDK platform and the Model/View/Controller methodology. I’ve got background in VB.Net, some Php, but mostly SQL, so this is new ground for me. I’m building an app that has 3 views. For simplicity’s sake, I’ll call them View1, View2, View3. On View1 I have an NSString variable that I’ve declared in View1.h, and synthesized in View1.m. I’ll call it String1. View1.m uses a UITextField to ask the user for their name and then sets the value of String1 to that name (i.e. "Bill"). I would now like to use the value of String1 in View2. I'm not doing anything other than displaying the value ("Bill"), in a UILabel object in View2. Can someone tell me what the easiest way to accomplish that is? Many thanks in advance….

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  • What C# container is most resource-efficient for existence for only one operation?

    - by ccornet
    I find myself often with a situation where I need to perform an operation on a set of properties. The operation can be anything from checking if a particular property matches anything in the set to a single iteration of actions. Sometimes the set is dynamically generated when the function is called, some built with a simple LINQ statement, other times it is a hard-coded set that will always remain the same. But one constant always exists: the set only exists for one single operation and has no use before or after it. My problem is, I have so many points in my application where this is necessary, but I appear to be very, very inconsistent in how I store these sets. Some of them are arrays, some are lists, and just now I've found a couple linked lists. Now, none of the operations I'm specifically concerned about have to care about indices, container size, order, or any other functionality that is bestowed by any of the individual container types. I picked resource efficiency because it's a better idea than flipping coins. I figured, since array size is configured and it's a very elementary container, that might be my best choice, but I figure it is a better idea to ask around. Alternatively, if there's a better choice not out of resource-efficiency but strictly as being a better choice for this kind of situation, that would be nice as well.

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