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  • Changing UIViews during UIInterfaceOrientation on iPad

    - by FreeAppl3
    I am trying to change views on rotation because my views have to be significantly different from portrait to landscape. Now the code I am using works once then the app freezes when trying to rotate back. Either direction does not make a difference. For example: If I am in Landscape and rotate to portrait everything works great until I rotate back to landscape then it freezes and does absolutely nothing. Here is the code I am using to achieve this In my "viewDidLoad" method [[UIDevice currentDevice] beginGeneratingDeviceOrientationNotifications]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(didRotate:) name:UIDeviceOrientationDidChangeNotification object:nil]; Then I call this for the rotation: - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { // Return YES for supported orientations return YES; } - (void)didRotate:(NSNotification *)notification { UIDeviceOrientation orientation = [[UIDevice currentDevice] orientation]; if ((orientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft) || (orientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft)) { // present the other viewController, it's only viewable in landscape [self.view addSubview:landScapeView]; } if ((orientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight) || (orientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight)) { // present the other viewController, it's only viewable in landscape [self.view addSubview:landScapeView]; } else if ((orientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortrait || (orientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortrait)) { // get rid of the landscape controller [self.view addSubview:portrait]; } else if ((orientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown || (orientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown)) { // get rid of the landscape controller [self.view addSubview:portrait]; } }

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  • How to use git to manage one codebase but have different environments

    - by emostar
    I'm using git for a personal project at the moment and have run into a problem of having one codebase for two different environments and was wondering what the cleanest way to use git would be. Main Desktop I Use this machine for most of my development. I have a git repository here that I cloned off of an empty repository that I use on my internal server. I do most of my work here and push back to the internal server so I can use that as a master of truth and to ease making backups. Laptop I sometimes want to code on the road, so I did a clone from the internal server and created a new branch called "laptop-branch". Unfortunately some directories MSVC++ version are different than from the Main Desktop environment. I just modified the files in the "laptop-branch" and committed them there. Now I did a lot of changes while on vacation with my laptop, and want to push them to origin, but don't want the changes I made that were related to directories and compiler versions to be pushed back to origin. What would be the best way to get this done?

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  • Which DVCS would work best on Windows for my scenario?

    - by PoorLuzer
    At work I use ClearCase and SourceSafe, but have found some time to do some time to code for myself enroute thanks to a disposable laptop. However, I wish I had a lightweight VCS on my system using which I would be able to make changes to my code during the commute and then push/grab them from my Linux systems. I use git on my home system, but I can't really get it working on Windows. I don't want all that cygwin hack. If it does not run natively on Windows, it just won't do. What have you guys tried on your Windows system? Something that YOU use. The big player at the moment seems to be Mercurial? What would be best for a one (or maybe two) man team? I just need to maintain : Versioned copies of source code. Checking in and out should be as less obtrusive as possible. I am looking forward to a multiple Undo kind of feature (like that in an EMacs buffer) but persistent. I really like the way git keeps track of lines moving between files in a source code set I should be able to move part(s)/sub tree(s) of the source tree (each sub tree implies a module/plugin to my the main software I am building) to an archival system either completly or partially and restore them back from the archive as and when required and the system should track any changes to this tree as well. I actually want to experiment with my code as much as possible without me manually keeping track of what I modified and what I need to undo once I try out some idea, so that I am back to where I want to continue from. Notes : A similar topic came up a year ago : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4670/dvcs-choices-whats-good-for-windows I hope things have changed, and I really want people to share their own, real life experiences. Not something they recommend without using it or they think will work.

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  • MVC design pattern in complex iPad app: is one fat controller acceptable?

    - by nutsmuggler
    I am building a complex iPad application; think of it as a scrapbook. For the purpose of this question, let's consider a page with two images over it. My main view displays my doc data rendered as a single UIImage; this because I need to do some global manipulation over them. This is my DisplayView. When editing I need to instantiate an EditorView with my two images as subviews; this way I can interact with a single image, (rotate it, scale it, move it). When editing is triggered, I hide my DisplayView and show my EditorView. In a iPhone app, I'd associate each main view (that is, a view filling the screen) to a view controller. The problem is here there is just one view controller; I've considered passing the EditorView via a modal view controller, but it's not an option (there a complex layout with a mask covering everything and palettes over it; rebuilding it in the EditorView would create duplicate code). Presently the EditorView incorporates some logic (loads data from the model, invokes some subviews for fine editing, saves data back to the model); EditorView subviews also incorporate some logic (I manipulate images and pass them back to the main EditorView). I feel this logic belongs more to a controller. On the other hand, I am not sure making my only view controller so fat a good idea. What is the best, cocoa-ish implementation of such a class structure? Feel free to ask for clarifications. Cheers.

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  • Finding 'free' times in MySQL

    - by James Inman
    Hi, I've got a table as follows: mysql> DESCRIBE student_lectures; +------------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | course_module_id | int(11) | YES | MUL | NULL | | | day | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | start | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | end | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | cancelled_at | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | lecture_type_id | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | lecture_id | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | student_id | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | created_at | datetime | YES | | NULL | | | updated_at | datetime | YES | | NULL | | +------------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ I'm essentially wanting to find times when a lecture doesn't happen - so to do this I'm thinking a query to group overlapping lectures together (so, for example, 9am-10am and 10am-11am lectures will be shown as a single 9am-11am lecture). There may be more than two lectures back-to-back. I've currently got this: SELECT l.start, l2.end FROM student_lectures l LEFT JOIN student_lectures l2 ON ( l2.start = l.end ) WHERE l.student_id = 1 AND l.start >= '2010-04-26 09:00:00' AND l.end <= '2010-04-30 19:00:00' AND l2.end IS NOT NULL AND l2.end != l.start GROUP BY l.start, l2.end ORDER BY l.start, l2.start Which returns: +---------------------+---------------------+ | start | end | +---------------------+---------------------+ | 2010-04-26 09:00:00 | 2010-04-26 11:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 10:00:00 | 2010-04-26 12:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 10:00:00 | 2010-04-26 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 13:15:00 | 2010-04-26 16:15:00 | | 2010-04-26 14:15:00 | 2010-04-26 16:15:00 | | 2010-04-26 15:15:00 | 2010-04-26 17:15:00 | | 2010-04-26 16:15:00 | 2010-04-26 18:15:00 | ...etc... The output I'm looking for from this would be: +---------------------+---------------------+ | start | end | +---------------------+---------------------+ | 2010-04-26 09:00:00 | 2010-04-26 13:00:00 | | 2010-04-26 13:15:00 | 2010-04-26 18:15:00 | Any help appreciated, thanks!

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  • Why would JSP tags appear in HTML source code?

    - by Michael
    I'm a front-end web developer at a company using Java on their server. As a front-end developer, I'm concerned with the HTML structure that the server produces, but I don't have control over anything our back-end team produces. Rather than ask someone on that team, I would like to gather knowledge from the Stackoverflow community so I can communicate intelligently with the back-end team. So, I am curious as to what would cause certain JSP tags to appear in the rendered HTML that is sent to the browser. We have tags in our HTML source such as: <flow:fileRef id="vfileColor" fileId="vfile.color"/> <flow:fileRef id="StyleDir" fileId="StyleDir"/> <flow:fileRef id="vfileStylesheet" fileId="vfile.stylesheet"/> I am more interested in knowing why these appear, not as much about what they do. Is there a server setting for Tomcat/Apache/etc. that would hide these tags from the browser? Any information would be helpful. Thanks in advance.

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  • Binding Javascript Event Handlers to a an Ajax HTML Response?

    - by John
    Let's say I have the following HTML code <div id="outer"> <div id="inner">Hello World</div> </div> At the end of my HTML page, I use javascript to attach event handlers like so, document.getElementById('inner').onclick = function() {alert(this.innerHTML);} document.getElementById('outer').onclick = function() { /* An Ajax Call where the response, which will be a string of HTML content, then goes into document.getElementById('outer').innerHTML */ document.getElementById('inner').onclick = function() {alert(this.innerHTML);} } In the above code, I am expecting <div id="inner">Hello World 2</div> to come back which requires me to re-attach the onclick event handler. This makes sense because the new response coming back is just a string, and I have to tell the browser that after converting to DOM, i also need some event handlers So my question is, is there a better way to manage event handlers on AJAX response that contains HTML content? I could use inline javascript within the html response, but then it prevents me from achieving non-intrusive javascript. So is there a way to achieve non-intrusive javascript and an efficient way to "maintain" event handlers of ajax html responses?

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  • How do I display core data on second view controller?

    - by jon
    I am working on my first core data iPhone application. I am using a navigation controller, and the root view controller displays 4 rows. Clicking the first row takes me to a second table view controller. However, when I click the back button, repeat the row tap, click the back button again, and tap the row a third time, I get an error. I have been researching this for a week with no success. I can reproduce the error easily: Create a new Navigation-based Application, use Core Data for storage, call it MyTest which creates MyTestAppDelegate and RootViewController. Add new UIViewController subclass, with UITableViewController and xib, call it ListViewController. Copy code from RootViewController.h and .m to ListViewController.h and .m., changing the file names appropriately. To simplify the code, I removed the trailing “_” from all variables. In RootViewController, I added #import ListViewController.h, set up an array to display 4 rows and navigate to ListViewController when clicking the first row. In ListViewController.m, I added #import MyTestAppDelegate.h” and the following code: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; if (managedObjectContext == nil) { managedObjectContext = [(MyTestAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate] managedObjectContext]; } .. } The sequence that causes the error is tap row, return, tap row, return, tap row - error. managedObjectContext is synthesized for the third time. I appreciate your patience and your help, as this makes no sense to me. ADDENDUM: I may have a partial solution. http://www.iphonedevsdk.com/forum/iphone-sdk-development/41688-accessing-app-delegates-managed-object-context.html If I do not release the managedObjectContext in the .m file, the error goes away. Is that ok or will that cause me issues? - (void)dealloc { [fetchedResultsController release]; // [managedObjectContext release]; [super dealloc]; } ADDENDUM 2: See solution below. Sorry for the formatting issues - this was my first post.

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  • why does vector.size() read in one line too little?

    - by ace
    when running the following code, the amount of lines will read on less then there actually is (if the input file is main itself, or otherwise) why is this and how can i change that fact (besides for just adding 1)? #include <fstream> #include <iostream> #include <string> #include <vector> using namespace std; int main() { // open text file for input string file_name; cout << "please enter file name: "; cin >> file_name; // associate the input file stream with a text file ifstream infile(file_name.c_str()); // error checking for a valid filename if ( !infile ) { cerr << "Unable to open file " << file_name << " -- quitting!\n"; return( -1 ); } else cout << "\n"; // some data structures to perform the function vector<string> lines_of_text; string textline; // read in text file, line by line while (getline( infile, textline, '\n' )) { // add the new element to the vector lines_of_text.push_back( textline ); // print the 'back' vector element - see the STL documentation cout << "line read: " << lines_of_text.back() << "\n"; } cout<<lines_of_text.size(); return 0; }

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  • How to use the values from session variables in jsp pages that got saved using @Scope("session") in the mvc controllers

    - by droidsites
    Doing a web site using spring mvc. I added a SignupController to handle all the sign up related requests. Once user signup I am adding that to a session using @Scope("session"). Below is the SignupController code, SignupController.java @Controller @Scope("session") public class SignupController { @Autowired SignupServiceInter signUpService; private static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(SignupController.class); private String sessionUser; @RequestMapping("/SignupService") public ModelAndView signUp(@RequestParam("userid") String userId, @RequestParam("password") String password,@RequestParam("mailid") String emailId){ logger.debug(" userId:"+userId+"::Password::"+password+"::"); String signupResult; try { signUpService.registerUser(userId, password,emailId); sessionUser = userId; //adding the sign up user to the session return new ModelAndView("userHomePage","loginResult","Success"); //Navigate to user Home page if everything goes right } catch (UserExistsException e) { signupResult = e.toString(); return new ModelAndView("signUp","loginResult", signupResult); //Navigate to signUp page back if user does not exist } } } I am using "sessionUser" variable to store the signed up User Id. My understanding is that when I use @Scope("session") for the controller all the instance variables will added to HttpSession. So by that understanding I tried to access this "SessionUser" in userHomePage.jsp as, userHomepage.jsp Welcome to <%=session.getAttribute("sessionUser")%> But it throws null. So my question is how to use the values from session variables in jsp pages that got saved using @Scope("session") in the mvc controllers. Note: My work around is that pass that signed User Id to jsp page through ModelAndView, but it seems passing the value like these among the pages takes me back to managing state among pages using QueryStrings days.

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  • what are good ways to implement search and search results using ajax?

    - by Amr ElGarhy
    i have some text box in a page and in the same page there will be a table 'grid' like for holding the search result. When the user start editing and of the textbox above, the search must start by sending all textboxs values to the server 'ajax', and get back with the results to fill the below grid. Notes: This grid should support paging, sorting by clicking on headers and it will contains some controls beside the results such as checkboxs for boolean values and links for opening details in another page. I know many ways to do this some of them are: 1- updatepanel around all of these controls and thats it "fast dirty solution" 2- send the search criteria using ajax request using JQuery post function for example and get back the JSON result, and using a template will draw the grid "clean but will take time to finish and will be harder to edit later". 3- .... My question is: What do you think will be the best choice to implement this scenario? because i face this scenario too much, and want to know which implementation will be better regarding performance, optimization, and time to finish. I just want to know your thoughts about this issue.

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  • syntax for MySQL INSERT with an array of columns

    - by Mike_Laird
    I'm new to PHP and MySQL query construction. I have a processor for a large form. A few fields are required, most fields are user optional. In my case, the HTML ids and the MySQL column names are identical. I've found tutorials about using arrays to convert $_POST into the fields and values for INSERT INTO, but I can't get them working - after many hours. I've stepped back to make a very simple INSERT using arrays and variables, but I'm still stumped. The following line works and INSERTs 5 items into a database with over 100 columns. The first 4 items are strings, the 5th item, monthlyRental is an integer. $query = "INSERT INTO `$table` (country, stateProvince, city3, city3Geocode, monthlyRental) VALUES ( '$country', '$stateProvince', '$city3', '$city3Geocode', '$monthlyRental')"; When I make an array for the fields and use it, as follows: $colsx = array('country,', 'stateProvince,', 'city3,', 'city3Geocode,', 'monthlyRental'); $query = "INSERT INTO `$table` ('$colsx') VALUES ( '$country', '$stateProvince', '$city3', '$city3Geocode', '$monthlyRental')"; I get a MySQL error - check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near ''Array') VALUES ( 'US', 'New York', 'Fairport, Monroe County, New York', '(43.09)' at line 1. I get this error whether the array items have commas inside the single quotes or not. I've done a lot of reading and tried many combinations and I can't get it. I want to see the proper syntax on a small scale before I go back to foreach expressions to process $_POST and both the fields and values are arrays. And yes, I know I should use mysql_real_escape_string, but that is an easy later step in the foreach. Lastly, some clues about the syntax for an array of values would be helpful, particularly if it is different from the fields array. I know I need to add a null as the first array item to trigger the MySQL autoincrement id. What else? I'm pretty new, so please be specific.

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  • The best way to return related data in a SQL statement

    - by Darvis Lombardo
    I have a question on the best method to get back to a piece of data that is in a related table on the other side of a many-to-many relationship table. My first method uses joins to get back to the data, but because there are multiple matching rows in the relationship table, I had to use a TOP 1 to get a single row result. My second method uses a subquery to get the data but this just doesn't feel right. So, my question is, which is the preferred method, or is there a better method? The script needed to create the test tables, insert data, and run the two queries is below. Thanks for your advice! Darvis -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- Create Tables -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- DECLARE @TableA TABLE ( [A_ID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Description] [varchar](50) NULL) DECLARE @TableB TABLE ( [B_ID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [A_ID] [int] NOT NULL, [Description] [varchar](50) NOT NULL) DECLARE @TableC TABLE ( [C_ID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Description] [varchar](50) NOT NULL) DECLARE @TableB_C TABLE ( [B_ID] [int] NOT NULL, [C_ID] [int] NOT NULL) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- Insert Test Data -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- INSERT INTO @TableA VALUES('A-One') INSERT INTO @TableA VALUES('A-Two') INSERT INTO @TableA VALUES('A-Three') INSERT INTO @TableB (A_ID, Description) VALUES(1,'B-One') INSERT INTO @TableB (A_ID, Description) VALUES(1,'B-Two') INSERT INTO @TableB (A_ID, Description) VALUES(1,'B-Three') INSERT INTO @TableB (A_ID, Description) VALUES(2,'B-Four') INSERT INTO @TableB (A_ID, Description) VALUES(2,'B-Five') INSERT INTO @TableB (A_ID, Description) VALUES(3,'B-Six') INSERT INTO @TableC VALUES('C-One') INSERT INTO @TableC VALUES('C-Two') INSERT INTO @TableC VALUES('C-Three') INSERT INTO @TableB_C (B_ID, C_ID) VALUES(1, 1) INSERT INTO @TableB_C (B_ID, C_ID) VALUES(2, 1) INSERT INTO @TableB_C (B_ID, C_ID) VALUES(3, 1) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- Get result - method 1 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- SELECT TOP 1 C.*, A.Description FROM @TableC C JOIN @TableB_C BC ON BC.C_ID = C.C_ID JOIN @TableB B ON B.B_ID = BC.B_ID JOIN @TableA A ON B.A_ID = A.A_ID WHERE C.C_ID = 1 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- Get result - method 2 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- SELECT C.*, (SELECT A.Description FROM @TableA A WHERE EXISTS (SELECT * FROM @TableB_C BC JOIN @TableB B ON B.B_ID = BC.B_ID WHERE BC.C_ID = C.C_ID AND B.A_ID = A.A_ID)) FROM @TableC C WHERE C.C_ID = 1

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  • Abstract away a compound identity value for use in business logic?

    - by John K
    While separating business logic and data access logic into two different assemblies, I want to abstract away the concept of identity so that the business logic deals with one consistent identity without having to understand its actual representation in the data source. I've been calling this a compound identity abstraction. Data sources in this project are swappable and various and the business logic shouldn't care which data source is currently in use. The identity is the toughest part because its implementation can change per kind of data source, whereas other fields like name, address, etc are consistently scalar values. What I'm searching for is a good way to abstract the concept of identity, whether it be an existing library, a software pattern or just a solid good idea of some kind is provided. The proposed compound identity value would have to be comparable and usable in the business logic and passed back to the data source to specify records, entities and/or documents to affect, so the data source must be able to parse back out the details of its own compound ids. Data Source Examples: This serves to provide an idea of what I mean by various data sources having different identity implementations. A relational data source might express a piece of content with an integer identifier plus a language specific code. For example. content_id language Other Columns expressing details of content 1 en_us 1 fr_ca The identity of the first record in the above example is: 1 + en_us However when a NoSQL data source is substituted, it might somehow represent each piece of content with a GUID string 936DA01F-9ABD-4d9d-80C7-02AF85C822A8 plus language code of a different standardization, And a third kind of data source might use just a simple scalar value. So on and so forth, you get the idea.

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  • Sort Dictionary<> on value, lookup index from key

    - by paulio
    Hi, I have a Dictionary< which I want to sort based on value so I've done this by putting the dictionary into a List< then using the .Sort method. I've then added this back into a Dictionary<. Is it possible to lookup the new index/order by using the Dictionary key?? Dictionary<int, MyObject> toCompare = new Dictionary<int, MyObject>(); toCompare.Add(0, new MyObject()); toCompare.Add(1, new MyObject()); toCompare.Add(2, new MyObject()); Dictionary<int, MyObject> items = new Dictionary<int, MyObject>(); List<KeyValuePair<int, MyObject>> values = new List<KeyValuePair<int, MyObject>> (toCompare); // Sort. values.Sort(new MyComparer()); // Convert back into a dictionary. foreach(KeyValuePair<int, PropertyAppraisal> item in values) { // Add to collection. items.Add(item.Key, item.Value); } // THIS IS THE PART I CAN'T DO... int sortedIndex = items.GetItemIndexByKey(0);

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  • System.Threading.Timer won't trigger

    - by mijatovic
    Hello guys, I am new here... I have one question, if somebody can help me. It is about timers (System.Threading.Timer). I want to break inevitable recursion: I have two columns in datarow and they are mutually dependant (price_without_VAT and price_with_VAT). Setting one of them will definitely cause StackOverflowException. So here's the idea: bool flag = true; void Reset(object state) { flag = true; } Now, wrap the method for changing value of one of the columns: { if(flag) { flag = false; System.Threading.Timer tmr = new System.Threading.Timer(new System.Threading.TimerCallback(Reset), null, 10, System.Threading.Timeout.Infinite); datarow.other_column = value; } } datarow.other_column.value line will immediately trigger the above method, but there will be no recursion because flag is false. In 10 ms flag should be back to true, and everything is back to normal. Now, when i follow the code in DEBUGGER, everything works fine, but when I start app NORMALLY Reset function simply will not trigger, flag is stuck to false forever and everything false apart. I play around with due_time parameter but nothing seems to help. Any ideas?

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  • "javascript: void(0)" links sometimes break event handlers in internet explorer

    - by internet man
    A while back I ran in to a problem where after clicking an anchor with "javascript: void(0)" events just stopped firing. I read that following a link puts the page in a different state and in that different state events don't fire. Even though the link is not real, it sometimes confuses IE. Anyway, I removed the "javascript: void(0)"'s and the problem has not been seen again. Now, in a different application I am seeing the same thing... kinda. Clicking the "javascript: void(0)" sometimes has no ill effect. But then for some reason or another after clicking the bad link the page will stop working. Once this happens it will continue to happen consistently until the client machine is rebooted. After reboot, you are back to it sometimes happening. Crazy right? Reboot fixing a web page!?!?! So, my question is has anyone seen this before? Can anyone give an explanation for this issue? Any documentation on this issue? I can't seem to find anything on it again. Does this even make sense? I already know "javascript: void(0)" is bad practice... I am just looking to understand the issue. Specifically, this is IE7. Thanks for reading!

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  • DataGrid : Binding with two different classes with lists ? WPF C#

    - by MyRestlessDream
    It is my first question on StackOverflow so I hope I am doing nothing wrong ! Sorry if it is the case ! I need some help because I can not find the solution of my problem. Of course I have searched everywhere on the web but I can not find it (can not post the links that I am using because of my low reputation :( ). Moreover, I am new in C# and WPF (and self-learning). I used to work in C++/Qt so I do not know how everything works in WPF. And sorry for my English, I am French. My problem My basic classes are that an Employee can use a computer. The id of the computer and the date of use are stored into the class Connection. I would like to display the list information in a DataGrid and in RowDetailsTemplate like here : http://i.stack.imgur.com/Bvn1z.png So it will do a binding to the Employee class but also to the Connection class with only the last value of the property (here the last value of the list "Computer ID" and the last value of the list "Connection Date" on this last computer). So it is a loop in the different lists. How can I do it ? Is it too much to do ? :( I succeed to get the Employee informations but I do not know how to bind the list of computer. When I am trying, it shows me "(Collection)" so it does not go inside the list :( Summary of Questions How to display/bind a value from a list AND from a different class in a DataGrid ? How to display all the values of a list into the RowDetailsTemplate ? Under Windows 7 and Visual Studio 2010 Pro version. ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ EDIT ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Solution I have used the solution of Stefan Denchev. Here the modification of my class : http://i.stack.imgur.com/Ijx5i.png And the code used: <DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding}" Name="table"> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header="First Name" Binding="{Binding FirstName}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Last Name" Binding="{Binding LastName}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Gender" Binding="{Binding Gender}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Last computer used" Binding="{Binding LastComputerID}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Last connection date" Binding="{Binding LastDate}"/> </DataGrid.Columns> <DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> <DataTemplate> <DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding ListOfConnection}"> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Computer ID" Binding="{Binding ComputerID}"/> <DataGridTemplateColumn> <DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ListView ItemsSource="{Binding ListOfDate}"/> </DataTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </DataTemplate> </DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> </DataGrid> With in code behind : List<Employee> allEmployees = WorkflowMgr.Instance.AllEmployees; table.DataContext = allEmployees; And it works ! I have tryed to improve my fake example :) Hope it will help to another developer !

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  • How to efficiently get highest & lowest values from a List<double?>, and then modify them?

    - by DaveDev
    I have to get the sum of a list of doubles. If the sum is 100, I have to decrement from the highest number until it's = 100. If the sum is < 100, I have to increment the lowest number until it's = 100. I can do this by looping though the list, assigning the values to placeholder variables and testing which is higher or lower but I'm wondering if any gurus out there could suggest a super cool & efficient way to do this? The code below basically outlines what I'm trying to achieve: var splitValues = new List<double?>(); splitValues.Add(Math.Round(assetSplit.EquityTypeSplit() ?? 0)); splitValues.Add(Math.Round(assetSplit.PropertyTypeSplit() ?? 0)); splitValues.Add(Math.Round(assetSplit.FixedInterestTypeSplit() ?? 0)); splitValues.Add(Math.Round(assetSplit.CashTypeSplit() ?? 0)); var listSum = splitValues.Sum(split => split.Value); if (listSum != 100) { if (listSum > 100) { // how to get highest value and decrement by 1 until listSum == 100 // then reassign back into the splitValues list? var highest = // ?? } else { // how to get lowest where value is > 0, and increment by 1 until listSum == 100 // then reassign back into the splitValues list? var lowest = // ?? } } update: the list has to remain in the same order as the items are added.

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  • strange doctrine update problem

    - by larryzhao
    Hi, guys, I have a simple table like following: class SnookerCurrentInfo extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('current_frame_id', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_player_id', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_score1', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_score2', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); } public function setUp(){ $this->setTableName('snooker_current_info'); } } and I would like to keep only one entry in this table. So every time the value is changed I read the entry with id = 1 out and change the object and execute save. like the following: $info = Doctrine::getTable('SnookerCurrentInfo')->find(1); $info->current_frame_id = $jsonInfo['current_frame_id']; $info->current_player_id = $jsonInfo['current_player_id']; $info->current_score1 = $jsonInfo['current_score1']; $info->current_score2 = $jsonInfo['current_score2']; $info->save(); but the strange thing is, I try to make it clear. Let's say at first, the entry is (30, 1, 1, 0) and I switch player, so update the entry to (30, 2, 1, 0). and I switch the player back again, so the entry should be updated to (30, 1, 1, 0), but this is not affected to the database!! In the database, the entry still remains as (30, 2, 1, 0)!!!! But if after (30, 2, 1, 0), I update the score to (30, 2, 1, 1) and then switch the player back (30, 1, 1, 1) then this is ok. What's that? How should I deal with it? Thanks for a lot helping, really urgent!!

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  • Smarty/PHP loop not being passed to IE(Pc) or Chrome/FF(Mac)

    - by Kyle Sevenoaks
    Hi, I've been working on a site that has a lot of PHP/Smarty involved, I've been asked to re-skin a webstore checkout process, but during this we've discovered this issue. This particular quirk is one part of a tax calculation that doesn't get sent to the browser in IE for PC and Chrome/FF for the Mac. It's NOT in the output source in the browsers, but is in FF, Chrome and Opera on the PC. Here is the code that doesn't "work:" {foreach $cart.taxes.$currency as $tax} <div id="subTotalCaption2"><p style="width:100px;">{$tax.name_lang}:</p></div> <div id="taxAmount2"><p>{$tax.formattedAmount}</p></div> {/foreach} It's not a CSS issue as if you go all the way through the checkout process and then back to the order page (Not using the back button, using the on-site links) it works. There is another calculation on the last page of the process that does the same thing: {foreach from=$order.taxes.$currency item="tax"} <tr> <td colspan="{$colspan}" class="tax">{$tax.name_lang}:</td> <td>{$tax.formattedAmount}</td> </tr> {/foreach} I guess my question is what could cause this to not be read (Parsed?) in IE and the mac but other browsers do it fine on the PC. Thanks.

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  • How can I secure my $_GETs in PHP?

    - by ggfan
    My profile.php displays all the user's postings,comments,pictures. If the user wants to delete, it sends the posting's id to the remove.php so it's like remove.php?action=removeposting&posting_id=2. If they want to remove a picture, it's remove.php?action=removepicture&picture_id=1. Using the get data, I do a query to the database to display the info they want to delete and if they want to delete it, they click "yes". So the data is deleted via $POST NOT $GET to prevent cross-site request forgery. My question is how do I make sure the GETs are not some javascript code, sql injection that will mess me up. here is my remove.php //how do I make $action safe? //should I use mysqli_real_escape_string? //use strip_tags()? $action=trim($_GET['action']); if (($action != 'removeposting') && ($action != 'removefriend') && ($action != 'removecomment')) { echo "please don't change the action. go back and refresh"; header("Location: index.php"); exit(); } if ($action == 'removeposting') { //get the info and display it in a form. if user clicks "yes", deletes } if ($action =='removepicture') { //remove pic } I know I can't be 100% safe, but what are some common defenses I can use. EDIT Do this to prevent xss $action=trim($_GET['action']); htmlspecialchars(strip_tags($action)); Then when I am 'recalling' the data back via POST, I would use $posting_id = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['posting_id']));

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  • PHP: cannot matching string "<br />

    - by Patrick
    hi, I'm having problems with string matching in PHP. I've 2 html elements in my page, I've copy pasted here the content with Firebug <div class="field-item odd"> <div class="field-label-inline-first"> Year:</div> 2009 </div> <div class="field-item odd"> <div class="field-label-inline-first"> Synopsis:</div> &lt;br /&gt; </div> This php line works perfectly (the element with 2009 is detected) <?php if ($items[0]['view'] == '2009') : echo "ok"; ?> However I'm not able to match the string containing element: <?php if ($items[0]['view'] == '<br />') : echo "ok"; ?> //doesn't work <?php if ($items[0]['view'] == '&lt;br /&gt;') : echo "ok"; ?> //again doesn't work any tip ? To give you some context: The strings are produced by CKEditor, an editor I'm using in my Drupal back-end. When I leave empty this editor, the tag is displayed on the string as plain text (because I set "plain text" as formatting option in the back-end) Thanks

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  • Writing all the html of a document with jquery instead of in the page body?

    - by Robert
    I'm a UI person currently working on a web application, where most of the people I work with are back end developers. I'm currently at a disagreement with them about whether or not the above is a prudent thing to do. This application doe use quite a bit of JavaScript, and wouldn't even work without it unfortunately. This being the case, One of the back end developers that I'm working with is claiming that pages could and even SHOULD be build completely with JavaScript or jquery. This caught me completely off guard. We're talking about div tags, lists, background images and text here. I'm trying to explain to him that this isn't the right way to do things at all, and from a best practices perspective: content(html) should be separate from presentation(css), and behavior(script etc.). I know that it's possible to write html in jquery, although I haven't done it, but am I wrong in my thinking that this isn't the way things should be done. Is it even possible to write ALL the code with jquery? would love to hear any thoughts either way, as I will be discussing this with him again tomorrow.

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  • iPhone SDK File Handler with iOS 4 Background Processes

    - by David Higgins
    The "application:applicationDidFinishLaunchingWithOptions:" message does not get called when an application is sitting in the background in iOS 4, and I'm trying to figure out how to be notified when the application is brought back into the foreground by another application. My application registers itself as a handler for certain file types, and Safari and other supported applications allow passing the files over to my app. This works great if the app is closed before I try to use it, but fails otherwise. In my application:applicationDidFinishLaunchingWithOptions: I have: NSURL *url = (NSURL *)[launchOptions valueForKey:UIApplicationLaunchOptionsURLKey]; if([url isFileURL]) { } [self.window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; As stated already, this works great so far for starting the app when it's not sitting in the background - but when I switch back over to Safari or Mail and try to open a new file that is supported, my application wakes up from the background and becomes active again but I can't see any "withOptions" overrides for application:applicationWillEnterForeground: or any way to identify what was passed in when it enters the foreground. What would be the appropriate way to receive these "open file notifications" when the application is in the background?

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