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  • Simplifying data search using .NET

    - by Peter
    An example on the asp.net site has an example of using Linq to create a search feature on a Music album site using MVC. The code looks like this - public ActionResult Index(string movieGenre, string searchString) { var GenreLst = new List<string>(); var GenreQry = from d in db.Movies orderby d.Genre select d.Genre; GenreLst.AddRange(GenreQry.Distinct()); ViewBag.movieGenre = new SelectList(GenreLst); var movies = from m in db.Movies select m; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(searchString)) { movies = movies.Where(s => s.Title.Contains(searchString)); } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(movieGenre)) { movies = movies.Where(x => x.Genre == movieGenre); } return View(movies); } I have seen similar examples in other tutorials and I have tried them in a real-world business app that I develop/maintain. In practice this pattern doesn't seem to scale well because as the search criteria expands I keep adding more and more conditions which looks and feels unpleasant/repetitive. How can I refactor this pattern? One idea I have is to create a column in every table that is "searchable" which could be a computed column that concatenates all the data from the different columns (SQL Server 2008). So instead of having movie genre and title it would be something like. if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(searchString)) { movies = movies.Where(s => s.SearchColumn.Contains(searchString)); } What are the performance/design/architecture implications of doing this? I have also tried using procedures that use dynamic queries but then I have just moved the ugliness to the database. E.g. CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[search_music] @title as varchar(50), @genre as varchar(50) AS -- set the variables to null if they are empty IF @title = '' SET @title = null IF @genre = '' SET @genre = null SELECT m.* FROM view_Music as m WHERE (title = @title OR @title IS NULL) AND (genre LIKE '%' + @genre + '%' OR @genre IS NULL) ORDER BY Id desc OPTION (RECOMPILE) Any suggestions? Tips?

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  • cannot get mssql working with sql server 2005

    - by Ryan
    I'm a MySQL/Apache user, trying my hand with IIS and SQL server, so please, if this is a stupid question have patience. I'm using IIS version 7.5. PHP version 5.3.13 and SQL server 2005 IIS is running on port 90, not sure if that will make a difference or not. I know my sql server is running because I can explore/connect to it in Server management studio. I know php is configured properly, because //localhost:90/phpinfo.php works fine. I updated the php_msql.dll extension in phpinfo to: extension=ext/php_msql.dll EDIT- However, when I run phpinfo() under the "configure command" row, this is present: --without-mssql I found/downloaded the ntwdblib.dll and placed it in both sys32 and php root. All these things were supposed to fix the issue, and they haven't. This is the code I'm using, straight from php.net: <?php // Server in the this format: <computer>\<instance name> or // <server>,<port> when using a non default port number $server = 'localhost'; // Connect to MSSQL $link = mssql_connect($server, 'uname', 'pwd'); if (!$link) { die('Something went wrong while connecting to MSSQL'); } ?> obviously I'm using a real username and password, but when I load the file in my browser, I receive a 500 error. Upon checking the log, this is what is displayed: 2012-06-25 12:41:29 ::1 GET /test.php - 90 - ::1 Mozilla/5.0+(Windows+NT+6.1;+WOW64)+AppleWebKit/536.5+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Chrome/19.0.1084.56+Safari/536.5 500 0 0 5 That (to me) doesn't help me much. What am I doing wrong? Thank you

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  • Broadcom device 4365 wireless driver for 12.04

    - by NilPointer
    My laptop (Dell Inspiron 17R 5720) came with preinstalled Ubuntu 11.10. I removed it and installed 12.04. Now I can't find driver for wireless. Apparently, in 11.10 there was Broadcom-STA driver. But in 12.04 there is no additional drivers to install. I tried using: sudo m-a a-i broadcom-sta But building fails on 26%. How can I install driver According to lspci i got: Broadcom Corporation Device 4365 (rev 01)

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  • SQL RDBMS : one query or multiple calls

    - by None None
    After looking around the internet, I decided to create DAOs that returned objects (POJOs) to the calling business logic function/method. For example: a Customer object with a Address reference would be split in the RDBMS into two tables; Customer and ADDRESS. The CustomerDAO would be in charge of joining the data from the two tables and create both an Address POJO and Customer POJO adding the address to the customer object. Finally return the fulll Customer POJO. Simple, however, now i am at a point where i need to join three or four tables and each representing an attribute or list of attributes for the resulting POJO. The sql will include a group by but i will still result with multiple rows for the same pojo, because some of the tables are joining a one to many relationship. My app code will now have to loop through all the rows trying to figure out if the rows are the same with different attributes or if the record should be a new POJO. Should I continue to create my daos using this technique or break up my Pojo creation into multiple db calls to make the code easier to understand and maintain?

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  • Raphael js text positioning: centering text in a circle

    - by j-man86
    Hey everyone, I am using Raphael js to draw circled numbers. The problem is that each number has a different width/height so using one set of coordinates to center the text isn't working. The text displays differently between IE, FF, and safari. Is there a dynamic way to find the height/width of the number and center it accordingly? Here is my test page: http://jesserosenfield.com/fluid/test.html and my code: function drawcircle(div, text) { var paper = Raphael(div, 26, 26); //<< var circle = paper.circle(13, 13, 10.5); circle.attr("stroke", "#f1f1f1"); circle.attr("stroke-width", 2); var text = paper.text(12, 13, text); //<< text.attr({'font-size': 15, 'font-family': 'FranklinGothicFSCondensed-1, FranklinGothicFSCondensed-2'}); text.attr("fill", "#f1f1f1"); } window.onload = function () { drawcircle("c1", "1"); drawcircle("c2", "2"); drawcircle("c3", "3"); }; Thanks very much!

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  • Metamorphs Messing Up CSS in Ember.js Views

    - by Austin Fatheree
    I'm using Ember.js / handlebars to loop through a collection and spit out some items that I'd like bootstrap to handle nice and responsive like. Here is the issue: The bootstrap-responsive css has some declrations in it like: .row-fluid > [class*="span"]:first-child { margin-left: 0; } and .row-fluid:before, .row-fluid:after { display: table; content: ""; } These rules seem to target the first children. When I loop through my collection in handlebars I end up with a bunch of metamorph code around my items: <div class="row-fluid"> {{#each restaurantList}} {{view GS.vHomePageRestList content=this class="span6"}} {{/each}} </div> Here is what is produced: <div class="row-fluid"> <script id="metamorph-9-start" type="text/x-placeholder"></script> <script id="metamorph-104-start" type="text/x-placeholder"></script> <div id="ember2527" class="ember-view span6"> My View </div> <script id="metamorph-104-end" type="text/x-placeholder"></script> <script id="metamorph-105-start" type="text/x-placeholder"></script> <div id="ember2574" class="ember-view span6"> My View 2 </div> <script id="metamorph-105-end" type="text/x-placeholder"></script> <script id="metamorph-9-end" type="text/x-placeholder"></script> </div> So my question is this: 1. How can I tell css to ignore script tags? or 2. How can I edit the css bindings so that they skip over script tags when selecting the first or first child? or 3. How can I structure this so that Ember uses fewer/no metamorph tags? Here is a fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/skilesare/SgwsJ/

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  • Returning a Value From the Bit.ly JS API Callback

    - by mtorbin
    Hey all, I am attempting to turn this "one shot" script into something more extensible. The problem is that I cannot figure out how to get the callback function to set a value outside of itself (please note that references to the Bit.ly API and the prototype.js frame work which are required have been left out due to login and apiKey information): CURRENTLY WORKING CODE var setShortUrl = function(data) { var resultOBJ, myURL; for(x in data.results){resultOBJ = data.results[x];} for(key in resultOBJ){if(key == "shortUrl"){myURL = resultOBJ[key];}} alert(myURL); } BitlyClient.shorten('http://www.thinkgeek.com', 'setShortUrl'); PROPOSED CHANGES var setShortUrl = function(data) { var resultOBJ, myURL; for(x in data.results){resultOBJ = data.results[x];} for(key in resultOBJ){if(key == "shortUrl"){myURL = resultOBJ[key];}} alert(myURL); return myURL; } var myTEST = BitlyClient.shorten('http://www.thinkgeek.com', 'setShortUrl'); alert(myTEST); As you can see this doesn't work the way I'm am expecting. If I could get a pointer in the right direction it would be most appreciated. Thanks, MT

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  • Same route nested in multiple resources ember.js

    - by Daniel Upton
    I'm building an ember.js app which has a model called "Programme". A user can drill down to a programme by going: Genre > Subgenre > Programme or Folder > List > Programme Here's my router: this.resource('mylists', { path: '/' }, function() { this.resource('folder', { path: '/folder/:folder_id' }, function() { this.resource('list', { path: '/list/:list_id' }, function() { this.resource('programme', { path: '/programme/:programme_id' }); }); }); }); this.resource('catalogue', function() { this.resource('genre', { path: '/genre/:genre_id' }, function() { this.resource('subgenre', { path: '/subgenre/:subgenre_id' }, function() { this.resource('programme', { path: '/programme/:programme_id' }); }); }); }); The UI needs to be deeply nested (the genre view renders in the outlet of the catalogue template, the subgenre in the outlet of the genre template... and so forth). The problem I have is as both generated routes are called ProgrammeRoute when I linkTo the programme route inside the list template, it actually goes to the programme route nested in the subgenre route. What should I be doing here? To work around it I've named one route ListProgrammeRoute and SubgenreProgrammeRoute but that leads to some duplication.

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  • Simple Prototype.js code to select multiple elements with the same classname

    - by stephemurdoch
    I have one link with an id of "link", and I use the javascript below to open that link up in a modalbox: #In my template I have: <a href="some/path" id="link">link</a> #Then in my application.js file I have: document.observe('dom:loaded', function() { $('login-link').observe('click', function(event) { event.stop(); Modalbox.show(this.href,{title: 'some title', width: 500}); }); }) Since id's must be unique, this javascript only works for one element per page so I use it to observe my login-link and it has served me well. Until now. I want to use the same javascript to observe multiple links which have classnames instead of id's as below: <a href="link/to/some/stuff" class="link">link 1</a> <a href="link/to/some/other/stuff" class="link">link 2</a> When I do this, I can't get any of the links to open in a modalbox. If I change the class to an id for each link, then I can get the first link in the list to open in a modalbox. I've tried to use the '$$' notation to build an array of links in my javascript (shown below) but if I do that, then none of the links open correctly #document.observe method removed for display purposes $$('link').observe('click', function(event) { event.stop(); Modalbox.show(this.href,{title: 'some title', width: 500} ); }); My javascript skills obviously suck. Does anyone know how to fix the problem?

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  • Changing the color of dot depending from value on Morris js graph

    - by Michal Lipa
    Im rendering graph by morris js. Im using data from mysql database by JSON. Everything works fine, but I would like to add one more feature to the graph. (change dot color if there is something in buy action). My JSON: [{"longdate":"2014-08-20 18:20:01","price":"1620","action":"buy"},{"longdate":"2014-08-20 18:40:01","price":"1640","action":""},{"longdate":"2014-08-20 19:00:01","price":"1620","action":""}] So I would like to change dot color for values with buy action. My code for graph: $.getJSON('results.json', function(day_data) { Morris.Line({ element: 'graph', data: day_data, xkey: 'longdate', ykeys: ['price'], labels: ['Cena'], lineColors: lineColor, pointSize: 0, hoverCallback: function(index, options, content) { var date = "<b><font color='black'>Data: "+day_data[index]['longdate']+"</font></b><br>"; var param1 = "<font color='"+lineColor[0]+"'>Cena - "+day_data[index]['price']+"</font><br>"; return date+param1; }, xLabelFormat : function (x) { return changeDateFormat(x); } /*My TRIAL if(action == 'buy'){ pointSize: 4, lineColors: green, } */ }); }); So my code doesnt work, how can I make this working?

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  • rest and client rights integration, and backbone.js

    - by Francois
    I started to be more and more interested in the REST architecture style and client side development and I was thinking of using backbone.js on the client and a REST API (using ASP.NET Web API) for a little meeting management application. One of my requirements is that users with admin rights can edit meetings and other user can only see them. I was then wondering how to integrate the current user rights in the response for a given resource? My problem is beyond knowing if a user is authenticated or not, I want to know if I need to render the little 'edit' button next to the meeting (let's say I'm listing the current meetings in a grid) or not. Let's say I'm GETing /api/meetings and this is returning a list of meetings with their respective individual URI. How can I add if the user is able to edit this resource or not? This is an interesting passage from one of Roy's blog posts: A REST API should be entered with no prior knowledge beyond the initial URI (bookmark) and set of standardized media types that are appropriate for the intended audience (i.e., expected to be understood by any client that might use the API). From that point on, all application state transitions must be driven by client selection of server-provided choices that are present in the received representations or implied by the user’s manipulation of those representations It states that all transitions must be driven by the choices that are present in the representation. Does that mean that I can add an 'editURI' and a 'deleteURI' to each of the meeting i'm returning? if this information is there I can render the 'edit' button and if it's not there I just don't? What's the best practices on how to integrate the user's rights in the entity's representation? Or is this a super bad idea and another round trip is needed to fetch that information?

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  • Facebook new js api and cross-domain file

    - by vondip
    Hi all, I am building a simple facebook iframe application. I've decided since the code is separate from facebook none the less, I will also create a connect website as well. In my connect website I'm trying to figure out the following: I am using facebook's new api and I am calling the init function. I can't seem to figure out where I combine my cross-domain file. There's no mention of it in their documentation either. http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/javascript/FB.init I am referring to these lines of code: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({appId: 'your app id', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script>

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  • Return if remote stored procedure fails

    - by njk
    I am in the process of creating a stored procedure. This stored procedure runs local as well as external stored procedures. For simplicity, I'll call the local server [LOCAL] and the remote server [REMOTE]. USE [LOCAL] GO SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[monthlyRollUp] AS SET NOCOUNT, XACT_ABORT ON BEGIN TRY EXEC [REOMTE].[DB].[table].[sp] --This transaction should only begin if the remote procedure does not fail BEGIN TRAN EXEC [LOCAL].[DB].[table].[sp1] COMMIT BEGIN TRAN EXEC [LOCAL].[DB].[table].[sp2] COMMIT BEGIN TRAN EXEC [LOCAL].[DB].[table].[sp3] COMMIT BEGIN TRAN EXEC [LOCAL].[DB].[table].[sp4] COMMIT END TRY BEGIN CATCH -- Insert error into log table INSERT INTO [dbo].[log_table] (stamp, errorNumber, errorSeverity, errorState, errorProcedure, errorLine, errorMessage) SELECT GETDATE(), ERROR_NUMBER(), ERROR_SEVERITY(), ERROR_STATE(), ERROR_PROCEDURE(), ERROR_LINE(), ERROR_MESSAGE() END CATCH GO When using a transaction on the remote procedure, it throws this error: OLE DB provider ... returned message "The partner transaction manager has disabled its support for remote/network transactions.". I get that I'm unable to run a transaction locally for a remote procedure. How can I ensure that the this procedure will exit and rollback if any part of the procedure fails?

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  • SQL Server performance issue.

    - by Jit
    Hi Friends, I have been trying to analyze performance issue with SQL Server 2005. We have 30 jobs, one for each databases (30 databases, one per each client). The jobs run at early morning at an interval of 5 minutes. When I run the job individually for testing, for most of the databases it finishes in 7 to 9 minutes. But when these jobs run at early morning, I see few jobs taking 2 to 3 hours to finish and the same takes few minutes as mentioned above if ran independently. We dont have any other job scheduled during that time, other than these 30 jobs. If we restart the server then for 2 or so days all the jobs finishes in few minutes, but over the period of time (from 3rd day suddenly), few jobs start taking hours to finish. What could be the possible reason of performance degradation over the period of time? I verified all the SPs and we uses temp tables and I made sure none of the temp table is left without dropping at the end of SP. Let me know what are the possible reasons for such behavior. Appreciate your time and help. Thanks

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  • How does Backbone.js connect View to Model

    - by William Sham
    I am trying to learn backbone.js through the following example. Then I got stuck at the point ItemView = Backbone.View.extend why you can use this.model.get? I thought this is referring to the instance of ItemView that would be created. Then why would ItemView has a model property at all?!! (function($){ var Item = Backbone.Model.extend({ defaults: { part1: 'hello', part2: 'world' } }); var List = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: Item }); var ItemView = Backbone.View.extend({ tagName: 'li', initialize: function(){ _.bindAll(this, 'render'); }, render: function(){ $(this.el).html('<span>'+this.model.get('part1')+' '+this.model.get('part2')+'</span>'); return this; } }); var ListView = Backbone.View.extend({ el: $('body'), events: { 'click button#add': 'addItem' }, initialize: function(){ _.bindAll(this, 'render', 'addItem', 'appendItem'); this.collection = new List(); this.collection.bind('add', this.appendItem); this.counter = 0; this.render(); }, render: function(){ $(this.el).append("<button id='add'>Add list item</button>"); $(this.el).append("<ul></ul>"); _(this.collection.models).each(function(item){ appendItem(item); }, this); }, addItem: function(){ this.counter++; var item = new Item(); item.set({ part2: item.get('part2') + this.counter }); this.collection.add(item); }, appendItem: function(item){ var itemView = new ItemView({ model: item }); $('ul', this.el).append(itemView.render().el); } }); var listView = new ListView(); })(jQuery);

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  • how to call a js function from loaded jquery

    - by Y.G.J
    the function is in the page loading the ajax but i'm trying to call the function codes: [ajax] $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "loginpersonal.asp", data: "id=<%=request("id")%>", beforeSend: function() { $("#personaltab").hide(); }, success: function(msg){ $("#personaltab").empty().append(msg); }, complete: function() { $("#personaltab").slideDown(); }, error: function() { $("#personaltab").append("error").slideDown(); } }); [the js function] function GetCount(t){ if(t>0) { total = t } else { total -=1; } amount=total; if(amount < 0){ startpersonalbid(); } else{ days=0;hours=0;mins=0;secs=0;out=""; days=Math.floor(amount/86400);//days amount=amount%86400; hours=Math.floor(amount/3600);//hours amount=amount%3600; mins=Math.floor(amount/60);//minutes amount=amount%60; secs=Math.floor(amount);//seconds if(days != 0){out += days +":";} if(days != 0 || hours != 0){out += hours +":";} if(days != 0 || hours != 0 || mins != 0){out += ((mins>=10)?mins:"0"+mins) +":";} out += ((secs>=10)?secs:"0"+secs) ; document.getElementById('countbox').innerHTML=out; setTimeout("GetCount()", 1000); } } window.onload=function(){ GetCount(<%= DateDiff("s", Now,privatesellstartdate&" "&privatesellstarttime ) %>); so at the end of the loginpersonal.asp from the ajax... if it does what it suppose to do... i'm trying to call the function GetCount() again.

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  • Login failed for user 'DOMAIN\MACHINENAME$'

    - by sah302
    I know this is almost duplicate of : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1269706/the-error-login-failed-for-user-nt-authority-iusr-in-asp-net-and-sql-server-2 and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/97594/login-failed-for-user-username-system-data-sqlclient-sqlexception-with-linq-i but some things don't add up compared to other appliations on my server and I am not sure why. Boxes being used: Web Box SQL Box SQL Test Box My Application: I've got aASP.NET Web Application, which references a class library that uses LINQ-to-SQL. Connection string set up properly in the class library. As per http://stackoverflow.com/questions/97594/login-failed-for-user-username-system-data-sqlclient-sqlexception-with-linq-i I also added this connection string to the Web Application. The connection string uses SQL credentials as so (in both web app and class library): <add name="Namespace.My.MySettings.ConnectionStringProduction" connectionString="Data Source=(SQL Test Box);Initial Catalog=(db name);Persist Security Info=True;User ID=ID;Password=Password" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> This connection confirmed as working via adding it to server explorer. This is the connection string my .dbml file is using. The problem: I get the following error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Login failed for user 'DOMAIN\MACHINENAME$'. Now referencing this http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1269706/the-error-login-failed-for-user-nt-authority-iusr-in-asp-net-and-sql-server-2 it says that's really the local network service and using any other non-domain name will not work. But I am confused because I've checked both SQL Box and SQL Test Box SQL Management Studio and both have NT AUTHORITY/NETWORK SERVICE under Security - Logins, at the database level, that isn't listed under Security - Users, but at the database level Security - Users I have the user displayed in the connection string. At NTFS level on web server, the permissions have NETWORK SERVICE has full control. The reason why I am confused is because I have many other web applications on my Web Server, that reference databases on both SQL Box and SQL Test Box, and they all work. But I cannot find a difference between them and my current application, other than I am using a class library. Will that matter? Checking NTFS permissions, setup of Security Logins at the server and databases levels, connection string and method of connecting (SQL Server credentials), and IIS application pool and other folder options, are all the same. Why do these applications work without adding the machinename$ to the permissions of either of my SQL boxes? But that is what the one link is telling me to do to fix this problem.

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  • Getting results in a result set from dynamic SQL in Oracle

    - by msorens
    This question is similar to a couple others I have found on StackOverflow, but the differences are signficant enough to me to warrant a new question, so here it is: I want to obtain a result set from dynamic SQL in Oracle and then display it as a result set in a SqlDeveloper-like tool, just as if I had executed the dynamic SQL statement directly. This is straightforward in SQL Server, so to be concrete, here is an example from SQL Server that returns a result set in SQL Server Management Studio or Query Explorer: EXEC sp_executesql N'select * from countries' Or more properly: DECLARE @stmt nvarchar(100) SET @stmt = N'select * from countries' EXEC sp_executesql @stmt The question "How to return a resultset / cursor from a Oracle PL/SQL anonymous block that executes Dynamic SQL?" addresses the first half of the problem--executing dynamic SQL into a cursor. The question "How to make Oracle procedure return result sets" provides a similar answer. Web search has revealed many variations of the same theme, all addressing just the first half of my question. I found this post explaining how to do it in SqlDeveloper, but that uses a bit of functionality of SqlDeveloper. I am actually using a custom query tool so I need the solution to be self-contained in the SQL code. This custom query tool similarly does not have the capability to show output of print (dbms_output.put_line) statements; it only displays result sets. Here is yet one more possible avenue using 'execute immediate...bulk collect', but this example again renders the results with a loop of dbms_output.put_line statements. This link attempts to address the topic but the question never quite got answered there either. Assuming this is possible, I will add one more condition: I would like to do this without having to define a function or procedure (due to limited DB permissions). That is, I would like to execute a self-contained PL/SQL block containing dynamic SQL and return a result set in SqlDeveloper or a similar tool. So to summarize: I want to execute an arbitrary SQL statement (hence dynamic SQL). The platform is Oracle. The solution must be a PL/SQL block with no procedures or functions. The output must be generated as a canonical result set; no print statements. The output must render as a result set in SqlDeveloper without using any SqlDeveloper special functionality. Any suggestions?

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  • Linux Device Driver: Symbol "memcpy" not found

    - by Hinton
    Hello, I'm trying to write a Linux device driver. I've got it to work really well, until I tried to use "memcpy". I don't even get a compiler error, when I "make" it just warns me: WARNING: "memcpy" [/root/homedir/sv/main.ko] undefined! OK and when I try to load via insmod, I get on the console: insmod: error inserting './main.ko': -1 Unknown symbol in module and on dmesg: main: Unknown symbol memcpy (err 0) I include the following: #include <linux/module.h> #include <linux/moduleparam.h> #include <linux/init.h> #include <linux/kernel.h> /* printk() */ #include <linux/slab.h> /* kmalloc() */ #include <linux/fs.h> /* everything... */ #include <linux/errno.h> /* error codes */ #include <linux/types.h> /* size_t */ #include <linux/fcntl.h> /* O_ACCMODE */ #include <linux/cdev.h> #include <asm/system.h> /* cli(), *_flags */ #include <asm/uaccess.h> /* copy_*_user */ The function using memcpy: static int dc_copy_to_user(char __user *buf, size_t count, loff_t *f_pos, struct sv_data_dev *dev) { char data[MAX_KEYLEN]; size_t i = 0; /* Copy the bulk as long as there are 10 more bytes to copy */ while (i < (count + MAX_KEYLEN)) { memcpy(data, &dev->data[*f_pos + i], MAX_KEYLEN); ec_block(dev->key, data, MAX_KEYLEN); if (copy_to_user(&buf[i], data, MAX_KEYLEN)) { return -EFAULT; } i += MAX_KEYLEN; } return 0; } Could someone help me? I thought the thing was in linux/string.h, but I get the error just the same. I'm using kernel 2.6.37-rc1 (I'm doing in in user-mode-linux, which works only since 2.6.37-rc1). Any help is greatly appreciated. # Context dependent makefile that can be called directly and will invoke itself # through the kernel module building system. KERNELDIR=/usr/src/linux ifneq ($(KERNELRELEASE),) EXTRA_CFLAGS+=-I $(PWD) -ARCH=um obj-m := main.o else KERNELDIR ?= /lib/modules/$(shell uname -r)/build PWD = $(shell pwd) all: $(MAKE) V=1 ARCH=um -C $(KERNELDIR) M=$(PWD) modules clean: rm -rf Module.symvers .*.cmd *.ko .*.o *.o *.mod.c .tmp_versions *.order endif

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  • psqlODBC won't load after installing MS SQL ODBC driver on RHEL 6

    - by Kapil Vyas
    I had the PostgreSQL drivers working on my RHEL 6. But after I installed Microsoft® SQL Server® ODBC Driver 1.0 for Linux I can no longer connect to PosgreSQL data sources. I can connect to SQL Server data sources fine. When I had this same issue a week ago I uninstalled MS SQL Server ODBC driver from Linux and it fixed the issue. I had to copy the psqlodbcw.so files from another machine to replenish the files. I don't want to do the same this time. I want both drivers to work on Linux. This time around the setup files got deleted: /usr/lib64/libodbcpsqlS.so. Replenishing it did not fix the issue. I kept getting the following error in spite of the file being present with rwx permisions: [root@localhost lib64]# isql -v STUDENT dsname pwd12345 [01000][unixODBC][Driver Manager]Can't open lib '/usr/lib64/psqlodbc.so' : file not found [ISQL]ERROR: Could not SQLConnect [root@localhost lib64]# Here is a printout of the file permissions: [root@localhost lib64]# ls -al p*.so lrwxrwxrwx. 1 root root 12 Dec 7 09:15 psqlodbc.so -> psqlodbcw.so -rwxr-xr-x. 1 root root 519496 Dec 7 09:35 psqlodbcw.so and my odbcinst.ini file looks as follows: [PostgreSQL] Description=ODBC for PostgreSQL Driver=/usr/lib/psqlodbc.so Driver64=/usr/lib64/psqlodbc.so Setup=/usr/lib/libodbcpsqlS.so Setup64=/usr/lib64/libodbcpsqlS.so FileUsage=1 UsageCount=4 I also referred to this link: http://mailman.unixodbc.org/pipermail/unixodbc-support/2010-September.txt

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  • Atheros wireless not working

    - by Chandru1
    I have been struggling hard since i have installed Ubuntu 10.10 but it has been difficult for me to get my wifi working. So here is what i tried. First i checked whether i have the driver using the ifconfig command and it shows the wireless lan driver as wlan0. Next, i tried the command iwlist wlan0 scanning by becoming the root which gave me the output as no scan results. Next, i visited this link https://help.ubuntu.com/community/WifiDocs/Driver/Atheros to see as to what problem my laptop may have. I do own have an ath5k chipset. And as i followed the instructions in the above link in one of the blacklist-ath_pci.conf file had this written in it. For some Atheros 5K RF MACs, the madwifi driver loads buts fails to correctly initialize the hardware, leaving it in a state from which ath5k cannot recover. To prevent this condition, stop madwifi from loading by default. Use Jockey to select one driver or the other. (Ubuntu: #315056, #323830 I am not that good at Linux but i have given it a try. I am desperate to have my wifi working and i would be glad if this community could help. ADDED: If anyone would like to know as to what drivers i am using this is the output. network description: Wireless interface product: AR2413 802.11bg NIC vendor: Atheros Communications Inc. physical id: 3 bus info: pci@0000:0a:03.0 logical name: wlan0 version: 01 serial: 00:19:7d:d3:0c:fd width: 32 bits clock: 33MHz capabilities: pm bus_master cap_list ethernet physical wireless configuration: broadcast=yes driver=ath5k driverversion=2.6.35-24-generic firmware=N/A latency=168 link=no maxlatency=28 mingnt=10 multicast=yes wireless=IEEE 802.11bg resources: irq:18 memory:d0000000-d000ffff Some more information and output as to what i have done. lsmod | grep ath ath5k 130083 0 mac80211 231541 1 ath5k ath 8153 1 ath5k cfg80211 144470 3 ath5k,mac80211,ath led_class 2633 1 ath5k

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  • Can't install NPM after installing Node on EC2 Linux instance?

    - by frequent
    I'm trying my first attempt on getting a node server set up on an amazon ec2 linux instance. I think I made it quite far. First problem I ran into was when trying to make Node the connection timed out after a while, so I need three attempts until I got this: LINK(target) /home/ec2-user/node/out/Release/node: Finished touch /home/ec2-user/node/out/Release/obj.target/node_dtrace_header.stamp touch /home/ec2-user/node/out/Release/obj.target/node_dtrace_provider.stamp touch /home/ec2-user/node/out/Release/obj.target/node_dtrace_ustack.stamp touch /home/ec2-user/node/out/Release/obj.target/node_etw.stamp make[1]: Leaving directory `/home/ec2-user/node/out' ln -fs out/Release/node node Which tells me, "Node is done", although I'm not sure it is also working as it should. Following this,this and this tutorial, I'm now stuck at installing npm. I think I first cloned into the wrong folder, which always gave me error 127, but even if I'm doing this: cd ~ git clone git://github.com/isaacs/npm.git cd npm sudo -s PATH=/usr/local/bin:$PATH make install I'm still getting this: #after cloning# make[1]: Entering directory `/root/npm' node cli.js install bash: node: command not found make[1]: *** [node_modules/.bin/ronn] Error 127 make[1]: Leaving directory `/root/npm' make: *** [man/man3/start.3] Error 2 Question:: Since I'm pretty much a newby at everything I'm trying here, can someone please tell me what I'm doing wrong and how to get npm to install? Also, in case I cloned into the wrong folder, is there a way to remove the "false clone" or is this not written to disk until I call make install and I don't need to worry? Thanks for helping out!

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  • Retrieving varbinary output from a query in sql server into classic ASP

    - by user303526
    Hi, I'm trying to retrieve a varbinary output value from a query running on SQL Server 2005 into Classic ASP. The ASP execution just fails when it comes to part of code that is simply taking a varbinary output into a string. So I guess we gotta handle it some other way. Actually, I'm trying to set (sp_setapprole) and unset (sp_unsetapprole) application roles for a database connection. First I'd set the approle, then I'd run my required queries and finally unset the approle. During unsetting is when I need the cookie (varbinary) value in my ASP code so that I can create a query like 'exec sp_unsetapprole @cookie'. Well at this stage, I don't have the cookie (varbinary) value. The reason I'm doing this is I used to get 'sp_setapprole was not invoked correctly' error when trying to set app roles. I've disabled pooling by appending 'OLE DB Services = -2;Pooling=False' into my connection string. I know pooling helps performance wise but here I'm facing big problems. Please help me out to retrieve a varbinary value into an classic ASP file or suggest a way to set & unset app roles. Either way solutions are appreciated. Thanks, Nandagopal

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  • Troubleshooting source of heavy resource-usage on a server 2008 running multiple sites

    - by batman_man
    Hi, I am running about 10 asp.net websites on a hosted virtual server. The server runs Server 2008 - each website is backed by its own database running on SQL server 2008 on the same box. Lately the box has seemed really slow. The only kind of discovery i could think of doing was looking in the task manager, where i can see w3wp and sqlserver.exe jumping to 40% cpu usage every 5-10 seconds. What are the steps i can take to determine which of my websites is taking these resources and or what database is getting hit the most? I have of course ssms installed on the machine as well. As you can tell, my sysadmin skills are very very limited - any help would be much appreciated.

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