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  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by Dann
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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  • Mysql random rows

    - by n00b
    please read the whole question... 90% of you dont seem to do that and some of you only read the title obviously... and if you dont know the solution, dont answer - i wont have to downvote you -.-'' im entertaining the idea of getting random rows directly from mysql. what i found was SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE somefield='something' ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 5 but even i see how slow that would be.. is the only way to do this doing something like SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE somefield='something' LIMIT RAND(aincrementvalue-5), 1 5 times? or is there a way that i with my little knowlege of databases cant come up with ? (no i dont want random indexes. i hate the idea of them...) @commenters - please first look, then think, then look again, think again and then post. i wont point fingers but i dislike stupid comments and why i think random indexes are a nasty hack ? it doesnt give you random results. it gives you x results from a random index in a predefined order its like a gapless id only in the wrong order if you fetch by 1 row and get true randomness you fall back to my method but with an additional junk field finally the reason the field exists is only to serve as a helper to something that can be done without it with almost same performance (but the quality (randomness) is better), so it is a nasty hack ;) i solved it, look @ my answer... if you think its incorrect please tell me :)

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  • add a number in while loop

    - by Luke
    if ($num_rows > 0) { while($row=mysql_fetch_assoc($res)) { $fromuser=$row['username']; $comment=$row['comment']; $commentdate=$row['date']; $date=strtotime($commentdate); $final_date=date("g:i a", $date); $final_date2=date("F j Y", $date); ?> <table align="center" width="100%"style='border-top: 1px dotted;'bgcolor="#eeeeee" > <tr><td><?echo "<a href=\"userprofile.php?user=$fromuser\"><b>$fromuser</b></a> commented:\n";?></td></tr> <tr><td><?echo "at $final_date on $final_date2\n";?></td></tr> <tr bgcolor="#ffffff"><td><?echo "$comment\n";?></td></tr> </table><br> <? } } else { echo"There are currently no comments on this user"; } ?> I am looking for a way to add a number to each comment. So 1, 2, 3, 4, etc in DESC order. I can't think how I can do this?

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  • How to create Automation Add In Formula/Function and Excel Add In buttons (vsto) for them together?

    - by ticky
    Ok, let me explain it little bit better. Here is one example how to create formula/functions http://blogs.msdn.com/b/eric_carter/archive/2004/12/01/273127.aspx?PageIndex=1#comments I implemented something like that, I even added values in registry, so that this Automation AddIn doesn't have to be added manually in Excel, but automatically.. I created SETUP project for this project and it works GREAT. Then.. After some time, I wanted to create buttons in Excel for functions that I use. Those are custom functions, using some web services. I created Excel AddIn and added Ribbon with buttons - one button = one custom function. I can publish this project and I am creating VSTO, so this way, I can install excel ribbon buttons in custom group of mine. Now, I have 2 installations, first for Automation AddIn and second for Excel AddIn. How can I connect them? I tried to include VSTO to Setup - something like this: [I WILL ADD IT LATER] When I install it, it works great, it installs both parts. But when I install on my friends computer, it doesn't shows Ribbon buttons. What could be the problem? If there is some other way to integrate those two, I would be very grateful!!!!! Thanks! Tijana

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  • Interchange xsd and xsi in the output of XmlSerializer

    - by Sri Kumar
    XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(IxComment)); System.IO.StringWriter aStream = new System.IO.StringWriter(); serializer.Serialize(aStream,Comments); commentsString = aStream.ToString(); Here the commentsString has the the following element in it <IxComment xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> Is there any possibility to interchange the xsi and xsd attribute and get the element as shown below <IxComment xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" > Will this cause any other issue? EDIT: Why do i need to do this? We are migrating an existing application from 1.1 to 3.0 and in the code there is a if loop int iStartTagIndex = strXMLString.IndexOf("<IxComment xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\">"); that check for the index of the IxComment. Here the o/p of the serializer and the condition differ in the position of xsd and xsi. So i am trying to know whether we can instruct the serializer to provided the o/p as required. I have another question here as this was an existing application does the serializer O/P differs with versions?

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  • Reorganizing development environment for single developer/small shop

    - by Matthew
    I have been developing for my company for approximately three years. We serve up a web portal using Microsoft .NET and MS SQL Server on DotNetNuke. I am going to leave my job full time at the end of April. I am leaving on good terms, and I really care about this company and the state of the web project. Because I haven't worked in a team environment in a long time, I have probably lost touch with what 'real' setups look like. When I leave, I predict the company will either find another developer to take over, or at least have developers work on a contractual basis. Because I have not worked with other developers, I am very concerned with leaving the company (and the developer they hire) with a jumbled mess. I'd like to believe I am a good developer and everything makes sense, but I have no way to tell. My question, is how do I set up the development environment, so the company and the next developer will have little trouble getting started? What would you as a developer like in place before working on a project you've never worked on? Here's some relevant information: There is a development server onsite and a production server offsite in a data center . There is a server where backups and source code (Sourcegear Vault) are stored. There is no formal documentation but there are comments in the code. The company budget is tight so free suggestions will help the best. I will be around after the end of April on a consulting basis so I can ask simple questions but I will not be available full time to train someone

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  • How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

    - by BenA
    I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

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  • Have you had DLL's fail after upgrading to 64 bit server?

    - by quakkels
    Hey All, I'm wondering if anyone else has experienced failed DLL's after upgrading their servers. My company is in the process of upgrading our code and server's after ten years of using classic ASP. We've set up our new server running Windows 2008 and IIS 7. Our classic ASP code and our new asp.net mvc code work pretty well. Our problems started happening when we began moving our old websites to the new server. When trying to load the page on the actual server machine's browser, we initially got a 500 error. If we refreshed the page then some of the page would load but then display an error: Server object error 'ASP 0177 : 800401f3' Server.CreateObject Failed /folder/scriptname.asp, line 24 800401f3 btw: On remote machines we would just get 500 errors. Line 24 is the first executable code in the script: '23 lines of comments set A0SQL_DATA = server.createobject("olddllname.Data") 'the rest of the script That specific line is trying to use a ten year old DLL to create a server object. I don't think the server configuration is a problem because I'm able to create "adodb.recordset" server objects without any problems. Is there an issue when running correctly registered old DLL's on 64 bit systems? Is there a way to get old DLL's working on 64 bit systems?

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  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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  • Simple XML parser in bison/flex

    - by user360872
    I would like to create simple xml parser using bison/flex. I don't need validation, comments, arguments, only <tag>value</tag>, where value can be number, string or other <tag>value</tag>. So for example: <div> <mul> <num>20</num> <add> <num>1</num> <num>5</num> </add> </mul> <id>test</id> </div> If it helps, I know the names of all tags that may occur. I know how many sub-tag can be hold by given tag. Is it possible to create bison parser that would do something like that: - new Tag("num", 1) // tag1 - new Tag("num", 5) // tag2 - new Tag("add", tag1, tag2) // tag3 - new Tag("num", 20) // tag4 - new Tag("mul", tag4, tag3) ... - root = top_tag Tag & number of sub-tags: num: 1 (only value) str: 1 (only value) add | sub | mul | div: 2 (num | str | tag, num | str | tag) Could you help me with grammar to be able to create AST like given above?

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  • Why can't I handle a KeyboardInterrupt in python?

    - by Josh
    I'm writing python 2.6.6 code on windows that looks like this: try: dostuff() except KeyboardInterrupt: print "Interrupted!" except: print "Some other exception?" finally: print "cleaning up...." print "done." dostuff() is a function that loops forever, reading a line at a time from an input stream and acting on it. I want to be able to stop it and clean up when I hit ctrl-c. What's happening instead is that the code under except KeyboardInterrupt: isn't running at all. The only thing that gets printed is "cleaning up...", and then a traceback is printed that looks like this: Traceback (most recent call last): File "filename.py", line 119, in <module> print 'cleaning up...' KeyboardInterrupt So, exception handling code is NOT running, and the traceback claims that a KeyboardInterrupt occurred during the finally clause, which doesn't make sense because hitting ctrl-c is what caused that part to run in the first place! Even the generic except: clause isn't running. EDIT: Based on the comments, I replaced the contents of the try: block with sys.stdin.read(). The problem still occurs exactly as described, with the first line of the finally: block running and then printing the same traceback.

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  • jquery .on() toggle div

    - by lollo
    i'm developing a blog with dynamic content loaded via ajax request and i'm trying to hide/show the "post comment" form, of the article, with a button : <div id="post"> ... <ol id="update" class="timeline"> <!-- comments here --> </ol> <button class="mybutton Bhome">Commenta</button><!-- hide/show button --> <div class="mycomment"><!-- div to hide/show --> <form action="#" method="post"> Nome: <input type="text" size="12" id="name" /><br /> Email: <input type="text" size="12" id="email" /><br /> <textarea rows="10" cols="50" class="mytext" id="commentArea"></textarea><br /> <input type="submit" class="Bhome" value=" Post " /> </form> </div><!-- mycomment --> </div><!-- post --> This jquery code works well but has effect on All the posts... $("div").on("click", ".mybutton", function(e){ $(".mycomment").slideToggle("slow"); e.stopPropagation(); }); I want that only the clicked hide/show button has effect on the related article but f i have more than one article on my page the button with .mybutton class hides or shows all the comment form of all the articles.

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  • Best way to migrate export/import from SQL Server to oracle

    - by matao
    Hi guys! I'm faced with needing access for reporting to some data that lives in Oracle and other data that lives in a SQL Server 2000 database. For various reasons these live on different sides of a firewall. Now we're looking at doing an export/import from sql server to oracle and I'd like some advice on the best way to go about it... The procedure will need to be fully automated and run nightly, so that excludes using the SQL developer tools. I also can't make a live link between databases from our (oracle) side as the firewall is in the way. The data needs to be transformed in the process from a star schema to a de-normalised table ready for reporting. What I'm thinking about is writing a monster query for SQL Server (which I mostly have already) that will denormalise and read out the data from SQL Server into a flat file using the sql server equivalent of sqlplus as a scheduled task, dump into a Well Known Location, then on the oracle side have a cron job that copies down the file and loads it with sql loader and rebuilds indexes etc. This is all doable, but very manual. Is there one or a combination of FOSS or standard oracle/SQL Server tools that could automate this for me? the Irreducible complexity is the query on one side and building indexes on the other, but I would love to not have to write the CSV dumping detail or the SQL loader script, just say dump this view out to CSV on one side, and on the other truncate and insert into this table from CSV and not worry about mapping column names and all other arcane sqlldr voodoo... best practices? thoughts? comments? edit: I have about 50+ columns all of varying types and lengths in my dataset, which is why I'd prefer to not have to write out how to generate and map each single column...

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  • Strict pointer aliasing: is access through a 'volatile' pointer/reference a solution?

    - by doublep
    On the heels of a specific problem, a self-answer and comments to it, I'd like to understand if it is a proper solution, workaround/hack or just plain wrong. Specifically, I rewrote code: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <int*> (&x) == 0) ... As: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <volatile int*> (&x) == 0) ... with a volatile qualifier to the pointer. Let's just assume that treating T as int in my situation makes sense. Does this accessing through a volatile reference solve pointer aliasing problem? For a reference, from specification: [ Note: volatile is a hint to the implementation to avoid aggressive optimization involving the object because the value of the object might be changed by means undetectable by an implementation. See 1.9 for detailed semantics. In general, the semantics of volatile are intended to be the same in C++ as they are in C. — end note ] EDIT: The above code did solve my problem at least on GCC 4.5.

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  • Why does Ruby have Rails while Python has no central framework?

    - by yar
    This is a(n) historical question, not a comparison-between-languages question: This article from 2005 talks about the lack of a single, central framework for Python. For Ruby, this framework is clearly Rails. Why, historically speaking, did this happen for Ruby but not for Python? (or did it happen, and that framework is Django?) Also, the hypothetical questions: would Python be more popular if it had one, good framework? Would Ruby be less popular if it had no central framework? [Please avoid discussions of whether Ruby or Python is better, which is just too open-ended to answer.] Edit: Though I thought this is obvious, I'm not saying that other frameworks do not exist for Ruby, but rather that the big one in terms of popularity is Rails. Also, I should mention that I'm not saying that frameworks for Python are not as good (or better than) Rails. Every framework has its pros and cons, but Rails seems to, as Ben Blank says in the one of the comments below, have surpassed Ruby in terms of popularity. There are no examples of that on the Python side. WHY? That's the question.

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  • Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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  • reading newlines with FORMAT statement

    - by peter.murray.rust
    I'm writing a preprocessor and postprocessor for Fortran input and output using FORMAT-like statements (there are reasons not to use a FORTRAN library). I want to treat the new line ("/") character correctly. I don't have a Fortran compiler immediately to hand. Is there a simple algorithm for working out how many newlines are written or consumed (This post just gives reading examples) [Please assume a FORTRAN77-like mentality in the FORTRAN code and correct any FORTRAN syntax on my part] UPDATE: no comments yet so I am reduced to finding a compiler and running it myself. I'll post the answers if I'm not beaten to it. No-one commented I had the format syntax wrong. I've changed it but there may still be errors Assume datafile 1 a b c d etc... (a) does the READ command always consume a newline? does READ(1, '(A)') A READ(1, '(A)') B give A='a' and B='b' (b) what does READ(1,'(A,/)') A READ(1,'(A)') B give for B? (I would assume 'c') (c) what does READ(1, '(/)') READ(1, '(A)') A give for A (is it 'b' or 'c') (d) what does READ(1,'(A,/,A)') A, B READ(1,'(A)') C give for A and B and C(can I assume 'a' and 'b' and 'c') (e) what does READ(1,'(A,/,/,A)') A, B READ(1,'(A)') C give for A and B and C(can I assume 'a' and 'c' and 'd')? Are there any cases in which the '/' is redundant?

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  • Using a join with three tables when a field might be null

    - by John
    Hello, The code below works great. It combines data from two MySQL tables. I would like to modify it by pulling in some data from a third MySQL table called "comment." In the HTML table below, "title" is a field in the MySQL table "submission." Every "title" has a corresponding "submissionid" field. The field "submissionid" is also found in the "comment" MySQL table. In the HTML table below, I would like "countComments" to equal the number of times a field called "commentid" appears in the MySQL table "comment" for any given "submissionid," where the "submissionid" is the same in both the "submission" and "comment" tables, and where the "submissionid" corresponds to the "title" being used. Here's the catch: if there is no row in the MySQL table "comment" that corresponds with the "submissionid" being used for "table", I would like "countComments" to equal to zero. How can I do this? Thanks in advance, John $sqlStr = "SELECT s.loginid, s.title, s.url, s.displayurl, l.username FROM submission AS s, login AS l WHERE s.loginid = l.loginid ORDER BY s.datesubmitted DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1"><a href="http://www.'.$row["url"].'">'.$row["title"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'">'.$row["countComments"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

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  • why does this knockout method receive a form element instead of the object its nested in?

    - by ladookie
    I have this HTML: <ul class="chat_list" data-bind="foreach: chats"> <li> <div class="chat_response" data-bind="visible: CommentList().length == 0"> <form data-bind="submit: $root.addComment"> <input class="comment_field" placeholder="Comment…" data-bind="value: NewCommentText" /> </form> </div> </li> </ul> and this JavaScript: function ChatListViewModel(chats) { // var self = this; self.chats = ko.observableArray(ko.utils.arrayMap(chats, function (chat) { return { CourseItemDescription: chat.CourseItemDescription, CommentList: ko.observableArray(chat.CommentList), CourseItemID: chat.CourseItemID, UserName: chat.UserName, ChatGroupNumber: chat.ChatGroupNumber, ChatCount: chat.ChatCount, NewCommentText: ko.observable("") }; })); self.newChatText = ko.observable(); self.addComment = function (chat) { var newComment = { CourseItemDescription: chat.NewCommentText(), ParentCourseItemID: chat.CourseItemID, CourseID: $.CourseLogic.dataitem.CourseID, AccountID: $.CourseLogic.dataitem.AccountID, SystemObjectID: $.CourseLogic.dataitem.CommentSystemObjectID, SystemObjectName: "Comments", UserName: chat.UserName }; chat.CommentList.push(newComment); chat.NewCommentText(""); }; } ko.applyBindings(new ChatListViewModel(initialData)); When I go into the debugger it shows that the chat parameter of the addComment() function is a form element instead of a chat object. Why is this happening?

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  • How to check if a node's value in one XML is present in another XML with a specific attribute?

    - by Manish
    The question seems to be little confusing. So let me describe my situation through an example: Suppose I have an XML: A.xml <Cakes> <Cake>Egg</Cake> <Cake>Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Another XML: B.xml <Cakes> <Cake show="true">Egg</Cake> <Cake show="true">Strawberry</Cake> <Cake show="false">Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Now I want to show some text say "TRUE" if all the Cake in A.xml have show="true" in B.xml else "FALSE". In the above case, it will print FALSE. I need to develop an XSL for that. I can loop through all the Cake in A.xml and check if that cake has show="true" in B.xml but I don't know how to break in between (and set a variable) if a show="false" is found. Is it possible? Any help/comments appreciated.

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  • Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. I've searched previous SO questions, and have yet to find a good answer. Options so far In an attempt to avoid turning the comments section into a discussion... RenderAction This allows the view to call another controller, which will be responsible for interacting with the BLL and whatever data is necessary to its corresponding view. The calling view needs to be aware of the sub controller. This seems to provide a nice way to encapsulate partial views and controls, without having to modify the calling controller. RenderPartial The calling controller is still responsible for executing whatever code is associated with the partial view, and making sure that the model passed to the partial view contains the data it expects. Effectively, modifying the partial view potentially means modifying the calling controller. Annoying especially if this is used in multiple places. Portable Areas Place each control in its own project/area?

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  • Change a finder method w/ parameters to an association

    - by Sai Emrys
    How do I turn this into a has_one association? (Possibly has_one + a named scope for size.) class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id' def avatar_asset size = :thumb # The LIKE is because it might be a .jpg, .png, or .gif. # More efficient methods that can handle that are OK. ;) self.assets.find :first, :conditions => ["thumbnail = '#{size}' and filename LIKE ?", self.login + "_#{size}.%"] end end EDIT: Cuing from AnalogHole on Freenode #rubyonrails, we can do this: has_many :assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id' do def avatar size = :thumb find :first, :conditions => ["thumbnail = ? and filename LIKE ?", size.to_s, proxy_owner.login + "_#{size}.%"] end end ... which is fairly cool, and makes syntax a bit better at least. However, this still doesn't behave as well as I would like. Particularly, it doesn't allow for further nice find chaining (such that it doesn't execute this find until it's gotten all its conditions). More importantly, it doesn't allow for use in an :include. Ideally I want to do something like this: PostsController def show post = Post.get_cache(params[:id]) { Post.find(params[:id], :include => {:comments => {:users => {:avatar_asset => :thumb}} } ... end ... so that I can cache the assets together with the post. Or cache them at all, really - e.g. get_cache(user_id){User.find(user_id, :include => :avatar_assets)} would be a good first pass. This doesn't actually work (self == User), but is correct in spirit: has_many :avatar_assets, :foreign_key => 'creator_id', :class_name => 'Asset', :conditions => ["filename LIKE ?", self.login + "_%"] (Also posted on Refactor My Code.)

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  • How to design authentication in a thick client, to be fail safe?

    - by Jay
    Here's a use case: I have a desktop application (built using Eclipse RCP) which on start, pops open a dialog box with 'UserName' and 'Password' fields in it. Once the end user, inputs his UserName and Password, a server is contacted (a spring remote-servlet, with the client side being a spring httpclient: similar to the approaches here.), and authentication is performed on the server side. A few questions related to the above mentioned scenario: If said this authentication service were to go down, what would be the best way to handle further proceedings? Authentication is something that I cannot do away with. Would running the desktop client in a "limited" mode be a good idea? For instance, important features/menus/views will be disabled, rest of the application will be accessible? Should I have a back up authentication service running on a different machine, working as a backup? What are the general best-practices in this scenario? I remember reading about google gears and how it would let you edit and do stuff offline - should something like this be designed? Please let me know your design/architectural comments/suggestions. Appreciate your help.

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  • Firing through HTTP a Perl script for sending signals to daemons

    - by Eric Fortis
    Hello guys, I'm using apache2 on Ubuntu. I have a Perl script which basically read the files names of a directory, then rewrites a text file, then sends a signal to a daemon. How can this be done, as secure as possible through a web-page? Actually I can run the code below, but not if I remove the comments. I'm looking for advise considering: Using HTTP Requests? How about Apache file permissions on the directory shown in code? Is htaccess enough to enable user/pass access to the cgi? Should I use a database instead of writing to a file and run a cron querying the db with permission granted to write and send the signal? Granting as less permissions as possible to the webserver. Should I set a VPN? #!/usr/bin/perl -wT use strict; use CGI; #@fileList = </home/user/*>; #read a directory listing my $query = CGI->new(); print $query->header( "text/html" ), $query->p( "FirstFileNameInArray" ), #$query->p( $fileList[0] ), #output the first file in directory $query->end_html;

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  • re.sub emptying list

    - by jmau5
    def process_dialect_translation_rules(): # Read in lines from the text file specified in sys.argv[1], stripping away # excess whitespace and discarding comments (lines that start with '##'). f_lines = [line.strip() for line in open(sys.argv[1], 'r').readlines()] f_lines = filter(lambda line: not re.match(r'##', line), f_lines) # Remove any occurances of the pattern '\s*<=>\s*'. This leaves us with a # list of lists. Each 2nd level list has two elements: the value to be # translated from and the value to be translated to. Use the sub function # from the re module to get rid of those pesky asterisks. f_lines = [re.split(r'\s*<=>\s*', line) for line in f_lines] f_lines = [re.sub(r'"', '', elem) for elem in line for line in f_lines] This function should take the lines from a file and perform some operations on the lines, such as removing any lines that begin with ##. Another operation that I wish to perform is to remove the quotation marks around the words in the line. However, when the final line of this script runs, f_lines becomes an empty lines. What happened? Requested lines of original file: ## English-Geek Reversible Translation File #1 ## (Moderate Geek) ## Created by Todd WAreham, October 2009 "TV show" <=> "STAR TREK" "food" <=> "pizza" "drink" <=> "Red Bull" "computer" <=> "TRS 80" "girlfriend" <=> "significant other"

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