Search Results

Search found 5932 results on 238 pages for 'conditional comments'.

Page 198/238 | < Previous Page | 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205  | Next Page >

  • How to create Automation Add In Formula/Function and Excel Add In buttons (vsto) for them together?

    - by ticky
    Ok, let me explain it little bit better. Here is one example how to create formula/functions http://blogs.msdn.com/b/eric_carter/archive/2004/12/01/273127.aspx?PageIndex=1#comments I implemented something like that, I even added values in registry, so that this Automation AddIn doesn't have to be added manually in Excel, but automatically.. I created SETUP project for this project and it works GREAT. Then.. After some time, I wanted to create buttons in Excel for functions that I use. Those are custom functions, using some web services. I created Excel AddIn and added Ribbon with buttons - one button = one custom function. I can publish this project and I am creating VSTO, so this way, I can install excel ribbon buttons in custom group of mine. Now, I have 2 installations, first for Automation AddIn and second for Excel AddIn. How can I connect them? I tried to include VSTO to Setup - something like this: [I WILL ADD IT LATER] When I install it, it works great, it installs both parts. But when I install on my friends computer, it doesn't shows Ribbon buttons. What could be the problem? If there is some other way to integrate those two, I would be very grateful!!!!! Thanks! Tijana

    Read the article

  • Problems breaking out of nested loops

    - by user1040281
    I have problems breaking out off these nested loops correctly. What the code is trying to do is to indicate that a customer has rented a certain movie. Both the movie and customer are compared to properties of arraylist objects and then if all checks out the name property and ID property of a movie object are added as a string to another arraylist. All this works correctly as long as I use the first movie (from movies) and the first customer (from customers) but if I try renting other movies further down my arraylist with other customers then it adds the rented movie to the customerRentedMovies arraylist but prints out the "else message". I figure I need to break out of the foreach(blabla) loops aswell? or could goto be used? Comments was removed (looked kinda messy, can explain further if needed) public void RentMovie(string titel, int movieID, string name, int customerID) { foreach (Customer customer in customers) { if (name == customer.Name && customerID == customer.CustomerID) { foreach (MovieInfo movie in movies) { if (titel == movie.Titel && movieID == movie.MovieID) { movie.rented = true; string rentedMovie = string.Format("{0} ID: {1}", movie.Titel, movie.MovieID); customer.customerRentedMovies.Add(rentedMovie); break; } else { Console.WriteLine("No movie with that titel and ID!"); } } break; } else { Console.WriteLine("No customer with that ID and name"); } } }

    Read the article

  • how would I call/use Subsonic from within a WinForms app being deployed over clickonce (with Sqlite

    - by Greg
    Hi, Background - I need a framework/approach to managed database updates for a .NET Winforms app being deployed on users PC's via clickonce deploy. The app uses a sqlite database. Q1. What mechanism does Subsonic use to run such migrations on the local PC? e.g. would it be MSBuild Q2. If it does need a tool like how can my application robustly kick off MsBuild? i.e. how can it be sure what path it is installed, what if it is not installed, should I be including the MSBuild.exe in the clickonce package so that I know it is there for sure myself? Q3. Any other suggestions on how to use Subsonic in this specific use case? Q4. Any comments on whether MigratorDotNet would be a better fit? (if someone has had experience with both) Q5. Could I use subsonic's bare migration framework and just have a set of SQL files to do the upgrade/downgrade? i.e. just use the framework to check database version and which scripts to run etc?

    Read the article

  • Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

    - by Dann
    This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

    Read the article

  • jquery .on() toggle div

    - by lollo
    i'm developing a blog with dynamic content loaded via ajax request and i'm trying to hide/show the "post comment" form, of the article, with a button : <div id="post"> ... <ol id="update" class="timeline"> <!-- comments here --> </ol> <button class="mybutton Bhome">Commenta</button><!-- hide/show button --> <div class="mycomment"><!-- div to hide/show --> <form action="#" method="post"> Nome: <input type="text" size="12" id="name" /><br /> Email: <input type="text" size="12" id="email" /><br /> <textarea rows="10" cols="50" class="mytext" id="commentArea"></textarea><br /> <input type="submit" class="Bhome" value=" Post " /> </form> </div><!-- mycomment --> </div><!-- post --> This jquery code works well but has effect on All the posts... $("div").on("click", ".mybutton", function(e){ $(".mycomment").slideToggle("slow"); e.stopPropagation(); }); I want that only the clicked hide/show button has effect on the related article but f i have more than one article on my page the button with .mybutton class hides or shows all the comment form of all the articles.

    Read the article

  • Strict pointer aliasing: is access through a 'volatile' pointer/reference a solution?

    - by doublep
    On the heels of a specific problem, a self-answer and comments to it, I'd like to understand if it is a proper solution, workaround/hack or just plain wrong. Specifically, I rewrote code: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <int*> (&x) == 0) ... As: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <volatile int*> (&x) == 0) ... with a volatile qualifier to the pointer. Let's just assume that treating T as int in my situation makes sense. Does this accessing through a volatile reference solve pointer aliasing problem? For a reference, from specification: [ Note: volatile is a hint to the implementation to avoid aggressive optimization involving the object because the value of the object might be changed by means undetectable by an implementation. See 1.9 for detailed semantics. In general, the semantics of volatile are intended to be the same in C++ as they are in C. — end note ] EDIT: The above code did solve my problem at least on GCC 4.5.

    Read the article

  • Java plugin framework choice

    - by Marcus
    We're trying to determine how to implement a simple plugin framework for a service we are implementing that allows different types of calculators to be "plugged-in". After reading a number of posts about Java plugin frameworks, it seems like the most common options are: OSGI "Rolling your own" plugin framework The Java Plugin Framework (JPF) The Java Simple Plugin Framework (JSPF) OSGI seems to be more than we need. "Rolling your own" is ok but it would be nice to reuse a common library. So we're down to the JPF and JSPF. JPF seems to not be in active development right now. JSPF seems very simple and really all we need. However I haven't heard much about it. I've only seen one post on StackOverflow about it. Does anyone else have any experience with JSPF? Or any other comments on this design choice? Update: There isn't necessarily a correct answer to this.. however we're going to go with Pavol's idea as we need just a really, really simple solution. Thanks EoH for the nice guide.

    Read the article

  • Is there a JavaScript event that fires when a tab index switch is triggered? (TABINDEX does not work for inputs in IFRAME)

    - by treeface
    My specific use case is that I have a WYSIWYG editor which is basically an editable iframe. To the user, however, it looks like a standard-issue textarea. My problem is that I have inputs that sit before and after this editor in the (perceived) tab index and I'd like the user to be able to press tab (or the equivalent on his platform of choice) to get to the WYSIWYG editor when he's in the previous element and shift-tab to get to it when he's in the latter element. I know this can be faked using the key events and checking whether or not the tab key was pressed, but I'm curious if there's a better way. UPDATE. treeface clarified the actual problem in the comments. PROBLEM: In normal case, you can use "TABINDEX" attribute of the <input> element to control that, when tabbing out of "Subject" input field (in an email form), the focus lands on "Body" input field in the e-mail. This is done simply by assigning correctly ordered values to "TABINDEX" attribute of both input fields. The problem is that TABINDEX attribute only orders elements within the same frame. So, if "Body" input field is actually in an internal IFRAME, you can't tab out of "Subject" in the parent frame straight into "Body" in the IFRAME using TABINDEX order.

    Read the article

  • Simple XML parser in bison/flex

    - by user360872
    I would like to create simple xml parser using bison/flex. I don't need validation, comments, arguments, only <tag>value</tag>, where value can be number, string or other <tag>value</tag>. So for example: <div> <mul> <num>20</num> <add> <num>1</num> <num>5</num> </add> </mul> <id>test</id> </div> If it helps, I know the names of all tags that may occur. I know how many sub-tag can be hold by given tag. Is it possible to create bison parser that would do something like that: - new Tag("num", 1) // tag1 - new Tag("num", 5) // tag2 - new Tag("add", tag1, tag2) // tag3 - new Tag("num", 20) // tag4 - new Tag("mul", tag4, tag3) ... - root = top_tag Tag & number of sub-tags: num: 1 (only value) str: 1 (only value) add | sub | mul | div: 2 (num | str | tag, num | str | tag) Could you help me with grammar to be able to create AST like given above?

    Read the article

  • Why can't I handle a KeyboardInterrupt in python?

    - by Josh
    I'm writing python 2.6.6 code on windows that looks like this: try: dostuff() except KeyboardInterrupt: print "Interrupted!" except: print "Some other exception?" finally: print "cleaning up...." print "done." dostuff() is a function that loops forever, reading a line at a time from an input stream and acting on it. I want to be able to stop it and clean up when I hit ctrl-c. What's happening instead is that the code under except KeyboardInterrupt: isn't running at all. The only thing that gets printed is "cleaning up...", and then a traceback is printed that looks like this: Traceback (most recent call last): File "filename.py", line 119, in <module> print 'cleaning up...' KeyboardInterrupt So, exception handling code is NOT running, and the traceback claims that a KeyboardInterrupt occurred during the finally clause, which doesn't make sense because hitting ctrl-c is what caused that part to run in the first place! Even the generic except: clause isn't running. EDIT: Based on the comments, I replaced the contents of the try: block with sys.stdin.read(). The problem still occurs exactly as described, with the first line of the finally: block running and then printing the same traceback.

    Read the article

  • Change an Image while using JCrop

    - by Bathan
    Hi guys! Im working on a new feature in my site and I got stucked really bad. Im using JCrop obviously to crop an Image on my website. The new feature that I've been asked to Implement is to allow the user to change the colors of the Image being cropped. I have now 3 images , Color, GrayScale and Sepia. I can change the source of the image tag using javascript so the image gets changed without reload but I cannot do this once the JCrop has been enabled because it replaces the original Image for a new one. I thought I could disable JCrop, Replace the Image and then Re-Enable, but i couldnt do such thing. The example I found where the JCrop gets destroyed (example5 in Demo zip) uses an object : jcrop_api = $.Jcrop('#cropbox'); But Im enabling JCrop in a different manner,more like Example 3 : jQuery('#cropbox').Jcrop({ onChange: showPreview, onSelect: showPreview, aspectRatio: 1 }); How can I destroy JCrop so I can replace te Image? Is there another way to do this? Please help! I Could easily reload the page each time the user changes de color of the image but we all know that's not cool. Any comments will be apreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Reorganizing development environment for single developer/small shop

    - by Matthew
    I have been developing for my company for approximately three years. We serve up a web portal using Microsoft .NET and MS SQL Server on DotNetNuke. I am going to leave my job full time at the end of April. I am leaving on good terms, and I really care about this company and the state of the web project. Because I haven't worked in a team environment in a long time, I have probably lost touch with what 'real' setups look like. When I leave, I predict the company will either find another developer to take over, or at least have developers work on a contractual basis. Because I have not worked with other developers, I am very concerned with leaving the company (and the developer they hire) with a jumbled mess. I'd like to believe I am a good developer and everything makes sense, but I have no way to tell. My question, is how do I set up the development environment, so the company and the next developer will have little trouble getting started? What would you as a developer like in place before working on a project you've never worked on? Here's some relevant information: There is a development server onsite and a production server offsite in a data center . There is a server where backups and source code (Sourcegear Vault) are stored. There is no formal documentation but there are comments in the code. The company budget is tight so free suggestions will help the best. I will be around after the end of April on a consulting basis so I can ask simple questions but I will not be available full time to train someone

    Read the article

  • adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

    - by duncanUK
    I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

    Read the article

  • How to design authentication in a thick client, to be fail safe?

    - by Jay
    Here's a use case: I have a desktop application (built using Eclipse RCP) which on start, pops open a dialog box with 'UserName' and 'Password' fields in it. Once the end user, inputs his UserName and Password, a server is contacted (a spring remote-servlet, with the client side being a spring httpclient: similar to the approaches here.), and authentication is performed on the server side. A few questions related to the above mentioned scenario: If said this authentication service were to go down, what would be the best way to handle further proceedings? Authentication is something that I cannot do away with. Would running the desktop client in a "limited" mode be a good idea? For instance, important features/menus/views will be disabled, rest of the application will be accessible? Should I have a back up authentication service running on a different machine, working as a backup? What are the general best-practices in this scenario? I remember reading about google gears and how it would let you edit and do stuff offline - should something like this be designed? Please let me know your design/architectural comments/suggestions. Appreciate your help.

    Read the article

  • add a number in while loop

    - by Luke
    if ($num_rows > 0) { while($row=mysql_fetch_assoc($res)) { $fromuser=$row['username']; $comment=$row['comment']; $commentdate=$row['date']; $date=strtotime($commentdate); $final_date=date("g:i a", $date); $final_date2=date("F j Y", $date); ?> <table align="center" width="100%"style='border-top: 1px dotted;'bgcolor="#eeeeee" > <tr><td><?echo "<a href=\"userprofile.php?user=$fromuser\"><b>$fromuser</b></a> commented:\n";?></td></tr> <tr><td><?echo "at $final_date on $final_date2\n";?></td></tr> <tr bgcolor="#ffffff"><td><?echo "$comment\n";?></td></tr> </table><br> <? } } else { echo"There are currently no comments on this user"; } ?> I am looking for a way to add a number to each comment. So 1, 2, 3, 4, etc in DESC order. I can't think how I can do this?

    Read the article

  • Firing through HTTP a Perl script for sending signals to daemons

    - by Eric Fortis
    Hello guys, I'm using apache2 on Ubuntu. I have a Perl script which basically read the files names of a directory, then rewrites a text file, then sends a signal to a daemon. How can this be done, as secure as possible through a web-page? Actually I can run the code below, but not if I remove the comments. I'm looking for advise considering: Using HTTP Requests? How about Apache file permissions on the directory shown in code? Is htaccess enough to enable user/pass access to the cgi? Should I use a database instead of writing to a file and run a cron querying the db with permission granted to write and send the signal? Granting as less permissions as possible to the webserver. Should I set a VPN? #!/usr/bin/perl -wT use strict; use CGI; #@fileList = </home/user/*>; #read a directory listing my $query = CGI->new(); print $query->header( "text/html" ), $query->p( "FirstFileNameInArray" ), #$query->p( $fileList[0] ), #output the first file in directory $query->end_html;

    Read the article

  • Mysql random rows

    - by n00b
    please read the whole question... 90% of you dont seem to do that and some of you only read the title obviously... and if you dont know the solution, dont answer - i wont have to downvote you -.-'' im entertaining the idea of getting random rows directly from mysql. what i found was SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE somefield='something' ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 5 but even i see how slow that would be.. is the only way to do this doing something like SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE somefield='something' LIMIT RAND(aincrementvalue-5), 1 5 times? or is there a way that i with my little knowlege of databases cant come up with ? (no i dont want random indexes. i hate the idea of them...) @commenters - please first look, then think, then look again, think again and then post. i wont point fingers but i dislike stupid comments and why i think random indexes are a nasty hack ? it doesnt give you random results. it gives you x results from a random index in a predefined order its like a gapless id only in the wrong order if you fetch by 1 row and get true randomness you fall back to my method but with an additional junk field finally the reason the field exists is only to serve as a helper to something that can be done without it with almost same performance (but the quality (randomness) is better), so it is a nasty hack ;) i solved it, look @ my answer... if you think its incorrect please tell me :)

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

    - by Issy
    Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

    Read the article

  • Nested Data XML design

    - by esryl
    Looking to nest (to unlimited levels) elements in XML. Like so: <items> <item> <name>Item One</name> <item> <name>Item Two</name> </item> <item> <name>Item Three</name> <item> <name>Item Four</name> </item> <!-- etc... --> </item> </item> </items> However. While browsing for a solution I noticed in the comments of: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/988139/weird-nesting-in-xml while the above is well formed it would not validate against any sinsible DTD. Two things, what is a better way of nesting similar elements, and secondly what would be the design of the DTD. UPDATE: Would prefer to validate against an XML Schema rather than DTD.

    Read the article

  • Using a join with three tables when a field might be null

    - by John
    Hello, The code below works great. It combines data from two MySQL tables. I would like to modify it by pulling in some data from a third MySQL table called "comment." In the HTML table below, "title" is a field in the MySQL table "submission." Every "title" has a corresponding "submissionid" field. The field "submissionid" is also found in the "comment" MySQL table. In the HTML table below, I would like "countComments" to equal the number of times a field called "commentid" appears in the MySQL table "comment" for any given "submissionid," where the "submissionid" is the same in both the "submission" and "comment" tables, and where the "submissionid" corresponds to the "title" being used. Here's the catch: if there is no row in the MySQL table "comment" that corresponds with the "submissionid" being used for "table", I would like "countComments" to equal to zero. How can I do this? Thanks in advance, John $sqlStr = "SELECT s.loginid, s.title, s.url, s.displayurl, l.username FROM submission AS s, login AS l WHERE s.loginid = l.loginid ORDER BY s.datesubmitted DESC LIMIT 10"; $result = mysql_query($sqlStr); $arr = array(); echo "<table class=\"samplesrec\">"; while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename1"><a href="http://www.'.$row["url"].'">'.$row["title"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; echo '<tr>'; echo '<td class="sitename2"><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/members/index.php?profile='.$row["username"].'">'.$row["username"].'</a><a href="http://www...com/sandbox/comments/index.php?submission='.$row["title"].'">'.$row["countComments"].'</a></td>'; echo '</tr>'; } echo "</table>";

    Read the article

  • How to check if a node's value in one XML is present in another XML with a specific attribute?

    - by Manish
    The question seems to be little confusing. So let me describe my situation through an example: Suppose I have an XML: A.xml <Cakes> <Cake>Egg</Cake> <Cake>Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Another XML: B.xml <Cakes> <Cake show="true">Egg</Cake> <Cake show="true">Strawberry</Cake> <Cake show="false">Banana</Cake> </Cakes> Now I want to show some text say "TRUE" if all the Cake in A.xml have show="true" in B.xml else "FALSE". In the above case, it will print FALSE. I need to develop an XSL for that. I can loop through all the Cake in A.xml and check if that cake has show="true" in B.xml but I don't know how to break in between (and set a variable) if a show="false" is found. Is it possible? Any help/comments appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

    - by BenA
    I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

    Read the article

  • Why does the output look like this?

    - by cjk
    I have a c program below, I would like to send out a 32 bit message in a particular order Eg.0x00000001. #include <unistd.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> #include <sys/types.h> #include <stdint.h> struct test { uint16_t a; uint16_t b; }; int main(int argc, char const *argv[]) { char buf[4]; struct test* ptr=(struct test*)buf; ptr->a=0x0000; ptr->b=0x0001; printf("%x %x\n",buf[0],buf[1]); //output is 0 0 printf("%x %x\n",buf[2],buf[3]); //output is 1 0 return 0; } Then I test it by print out the values in char array. I got output in the above comments. Shouldn't the output be 0 0 and 0 1? since but[3] is the last byte? Is there anything I missed? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Django, url tag in template doesn't work: NoReverseMatch

    - by Lukasz Jocz
    I've encountered a problem with generating reverse url in templates in django. I'm trying to solve it since a few hours and I have no idea what the problem might be. URL reversing works great in models and views: # like this in models.py @models.permalink def get_absolute_url(self): return ('entry', (), { 'entry_id': self.entry.id, }) # or this in views.py return HttpResponseRedirect(reverse('entry',args=(entry_id,))) but when I'm trying to make it in template I get such an error: NoReverseMatch at /entry/1/ Reverse for ''add_comment'' with arguments '(1L,)' and keyword arguments '{}' not found. My file structure looks like this: project/ +-- frontend ¦   +-- models.py ¦   +-- urls.py ¦   +-- views.py +-- settings.py +-- templates ¦   +-- add_comment.html ¦   +-- entry.html +-- utils ¦   +-- with_template.py +-- wsgi.py My urls.py: from project.frontend.views import * from django.conf.urls import patterns, include, url urlpatterns = patterns('project.frontend.views', url(r'^entry/(?P<entry_id>\d+)/', 'entry', name="entry"), (r'^entry_list/', 'entry_list'), Then entry_list.html: {% extends "base.html" %} {% block content %} {% for entry in entries %} {% url 'entry' entry.id %} {% endfor %} {% endblock %} In views.py I have: @with_template def entry(request, entry_id): entry = Entry.objects.get(id=entry_id) entry.comments = entry.get_comments() return locals() where with_template is following decorator(but I don't think this is a case): class TheWrapper(object): def __init__(self, default_template_name): self.default_template_name = default_template_name def __call__(self, func): def decorated_func(request, *args, **kwargs): extra_context = kwargs.pop('extra_context', {}) dictionary = {} ret = func(request, *args, **kwargs) if isinstance(ret, HttpResponse): return ret dictionary.update(ret) dictionary.update(extra_context) return render_to_response(dictionary.get('template_name', self.default_template_name), context_instance=RequestContext(request), dictionary=dictionary) update_wrapper(decorated_func, func) return decorated_func if not callable(arg): return TheWrapper(arg) else: default_template_name = ''.join([ arg.__name__, '.html']) return TheWrapper(default_template_name)(arg) Do you have any idea, what may cause the problem? Great thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • reading newlines with FORMAT statement

    - by peter.murray.rust
    I'm writing a preprocessor and postprocessor for Fortran input and output using FORMAT-like statements (there are reasons not to use a FORTRAN library). I want to treat the new line ("/") character correctly. I don't have a Fortran compiler immediately to hand. Is there a simple algorithm for working out how many newlines are written or consumed (This post just gives reading examples) [Please assume a FORTRAN77-like mentality in the FORTRAN code and correct any FORTRAN syntax on my part] UPDATE: no comments yet so I am reduced to finding a compiler and running it myself. I'll post the answers if I'm not beaten to it. No-one commented I had the format syntax wrong. I've changed it but there may still be errors Assume datafile 1 a b c d etc... (a) does the READ command always consume a newline? does READ(1, '(A)') A READ(1, '(A)') B give A='a' and B='b' (b) what does READ(1,'(A,/)') A READ(1,'(A)') B give for B? (I would assume 'c') (c) what does READ(1, '(/)') READ(1, '(A)') A give for A (is it 'b' or 'c') (d) what does READ(1,'(A,/,A)') A, B READ(1,'(A)') C give for A and B and C(can I assume 'a' and 'b' and 'c') (e) what does READ(1,'(A,/,/,A)') A, B READ(1,'(A)') C give for A and B and C(can I assume 'a' and 'c' and 'd')? Are there any cases in which the '/' is redundant?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205  | Next Page >