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• MySQL - Structure for Permissions to Objects

  - by Kerry

  What would be an ideal structure for users permissions of objects. I've seen many related posts for general permissions, or what sections a user can access, which consists of a users, userGroups and userGroupRelations or something of that nature. In my system there are many different objects that can get created, and each one has to be able to be turned on or off. For instance, take a password manager that has groups and sub groups. Group 1 Group 2 Group 3 Group 4 Group 5 Group 6 Group 7 Group 8 Group 9 Group 10 Each group can contain a set of passwords. A user can be given read, write, edit and delete permissions to any group. More groups can get created at any point in time. If someone has permission to a group, I should be able to make him have permissions to all sub groups OR restrict it to just that group. My current thought is to have a users table, and then a permissions table with columns like: permission_id (int) PRIMARY_KEY user_id (int) INDEX object_id (int) INDEX type (varchar) INDEX read (bool) write (bool) edit (bool) delete (bool) This has worked in the past, but the new system I'm building needs to be able to scale rapidly, and I am unsure if this is the best structure. It also makes the idea of having someone with all subgroup permissions of a group more difficult. So, as a question, should I use the above structure? Or can someone point me in the direction of a better one?

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• Java/Groovy File IO Replacing an Image File with it's own Contents - Why Does This Work?

  - by jboyd

  I have some JPG files that need to be replaced at runtime with a JFIF standardized version of themselves (we are using a vendor that gives us JPG that do not have proper headers so they don't work in certain applications)... I am able to create a new file from the existing image, then get a buffered image from that file and write the contents right back into the file without having to delete it and it works... imageSrcFolder.eachFileMatch ( ~/.*\.jpg/, { BufferedImage bi = ImageIO.read( it ) ImageIO.write( bi, "jpg", it ) }); The question I have is why? Why doesn't the file end up doubled in size? Why don't I have to delete it first? Why am I able to take a file object to an existing file and then treat it as if it were a brand new one? It seems that what I consider to be a "file" is not what the File object in java actually is, or else this wouldn't work at all. My code does exactly what I want it to do, but I'm not convinced it always will... it just seems way too easy

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• How to enforce users to create objects of class derived from mine with "new" only?

  - by sharptooth

  To implement reference counting we use an IUnknown-like interface and a smart pointer template class. The interface has implementation for all the reference-count methods, including Release(): void IUnknownLike::Release() { if( --refCount == 0 ) { delete this; } } The smart pointer template class has a copy constructor and an assignment operator both accepting raw pointers. So users can do the following: class Class : public IUnknownLike { }; void someFunction( CSmartPointer<Class> object ); //whatever function Class object; someFunction( &object ); and the program runs into undefined behavior - the object is created with reference count zero, the smart pointer is constructed and bumps it to one, then the function returns, smart pointer is destroyed, calls Release() which leads to delete of a stack-allocated variable. Users can as well do the following: struct COuter { //whatever else; Class inner;// IUnknownLike descendant }; COuter object; somefunction( &object.Inner ); and again an object not created with new is deleted. Undefined behavior at its best. Is there any way to change the IUnknownLike interface so that the user is forced to use new for creating all objects derived from IUnknownLike - both directly derived and indirectly derived (with classes in between the most derived and the base)?

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• Lazy loading is not working for one to many

  - by Shire

  Any 1-M that use the primary key of the parent table, but any 1-M that uses a different column does not work. It generates the SQL correctly, but put the value of the key into the SQL instead of the column value I want. Example mapping: public TemplateMap() { Table("IMPORT"); LazyLoad(); Id(x => x.ImportId).Column("IMPORT_ID").GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.ImportSetId).Column("IMPORTSET_ID"); HasMany(x => x.GoodChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORT_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); HasMany(x => x.BadChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORTSET_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); } Lazy loading works for GoodChildren, but not for BadChildren. The SQL statement is correct for both children. But the wrong values are use. If the value of IMPORT_ID is 10 and the value of IMPORTSET_ID is 12. The value 10 will be used for the IMPORTSET_ID in the SQL for BadChildren instead of 12. Anyone have any ideas what I need to change to get BadChildren to work correctly? Note: GoodChildren links to IMPORT_ID on Template BadChildren links to IMPORTSET_ID on Template

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• HTTP POST with URL query parameters -- good idea or not?

  - by Steven Huwig

  I'm designing an API to go over HTTP and I am wondering if using the HTTP POST command, but with URL query parameters only and no request body, is a good way to go. Considerations: "Good Web design" requires non-idempotent actions to be sent via POST. This is a non-idempotent action. It is easier to develop and debug this app when the request parameters are present in the URL. The API is not intended for widespread use. It seems like making a POST request with no body will take a bit more work, e.g. a Content-Length: 0 header must be explicitly added. It also seems to me that a POST with no body is a bit counter to most developer's and HTTP frameworks' expectations. Are there any more pitfalls or advantages to sending parameters on a POST request via the URL query rather than the request body? Edit: The reason this is under consideration is that the operations are not idempotent and have side effects other than retrieval. See the HTTP spec: In particular, the convention has been established that the GET and HEAD methods SHOULD NOT have the significance of taking an action other than retrieval. These methods ought to be considered "safe". This allows user agents to represent other methods, such as POST, PUT and DELETE, in a special way, so that the user is made aware of the fact that a possibly unsafe action is being requested. ... Methods can also have the property of "idempotence" in that (aside from error or expiration issues) the side-effects of N 0 identical requests is the same as for a single request. The methods GET, HEAD, PUT and DELETE share this property. Also, the methods OPTIONS and TRACE SHOULD NOT have side effects, and so are inherently idempotent.

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• Maven3 Issues with building a multi-module enterprise project

  - by Sujit K

  I just migrated from Maven2 to Maven3 and I'm able to build each module individually or all the modules in one shot by calling mvn clean install. However, in Maven2, since we have multi-module enterprise project, we build multiple ear's and each ear is built as its own module with its own child pom. To build an individual ear with its dependents, the below command works fine in Maven2 but not in Maven3. Let me explain the issue in Maven3 a bit later. mvn -pl ear_module -rf first_dependent_module -am clean install In Maven2 when the reactor lists the build order, I see first_dependent_module second_dependent_module ear_module End of the day I have my ear module also part of the reactor which is how it should be. The reason we call -rf is we don't want to delete the target folder at the main ${project.basedir} (so not to delete the output created in target from building the other ear modules). With Maven3, however, this is all I see when the reactor lists the build order: first_dependent_module second_dependent_module Maven3 totally ignores the argument (ear_module) set to -pl flag to be also built after its dependents have been. Not sure what I'm missing here. Any help/tips would be greatly appreciated. P.S: The build I'm making is similar to the one below.... Build specific module in multi-module project Thanks, SK

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• AppDomain.Unload doesn't release the assembly I loaded up with Reflection

  Hi All, I am struggling with an issue while loading an assembly up in a temporary AppDomain to read its GetUsedReferences property. Once I do that, I call AppDomain.Unload(tempDomain) and then I try to clean up my mess by deleting the files. That fails because the file is locked. I Unloaded the temporary domain though! Any thoughts or suggestions would be greately appreciated. Here is some of my code: //I already have btyes for the .dll and the .pdb from the actual files AppDomainSetup domainSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); domainSetup.ApplicationBase = Environment.CurrentDirectory; domainSetup.ShadowCopyFiles = "true"; domainSetup.CachePath = Environment.CurrentDirectory; AppDomain tempAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("TempAppDomain", AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence, domainSetup); //Load up the temp assembly and do stuff Assembly projectAssembly = tempAppDomain.Load(assemblyFileBuffer, symbolsFileBuffer); //Then I'm trying to clean up AppDomain.Unload(tempAppDomain); tempAppDomain = null; File.Delete(tempAssemblyFile); //I even try to force GC File.Delete(tempSymbolsFile); Anyway, the Deletes fail because the files are locked still. Shouldn't they be released because I Unloaded the temporary AppDomain?!?!?! Thanks in advance, Dan

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• temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

  - by lau

  Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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• Is it Possible to Use Constraints on Hierarchical Data in a Self-Referential Table?

  - by pbarney

  Suppose you have the following table, intended to represent hierarchical data: +--------+-------------+ | Field | Type | +--------+-------------+ | id | int(10) | | parent | int(10) | | name | varchar(45) | +--------+-------------+ The table is self-referential in that the parent_id refers to id. So you might have the following data: +----+--------+---------------+ | id | parent | name | +----+--------+---------------+ | 1 | 0 | fruit | | 2 | 0 | vegetable | | 3 | 1 | apple | | 4 | 1 | orange | | 5 | 3 | red delicious | | 6 | 3 | granny smith | | 7 | 3 | gala | +----+--------+---------------+ Using MySQL, I am trying to impose a (self-referential) foreign key constraint upon the data to cascade on update and prevent deletion of a record if it has any "children." So I used the following: CREATE TABLE `test`.`fruit` ( `id` INT(10) UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `parent` INT(10) UNSIGNED, `name` VARCHAR(45) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), CONSTRAINT `fk_parent` FOREIGN KEY (`parent`) REFERENCES `fruit` (`id`) ON UPDATE CASCADE ON DELETE RESTRICT ) ENGINE = InnoDB; From what I understand, this should fit my requirements. (And parent must default to null to allow insertions, correct?) The problem is, if I change the id of a record, it will not cascade: Cannot delete or update a parent row: a foreign key constraint fails (`test`.`fruit`, CONSTRAINT `fk_parent` FOREIGN KEY (`parent`) REFERENCES `fruit` (`id`) ON UPDATE CASCADE) What am I missing? Feel free to correct me if my terminology is screwed up... I'm new to constraints.

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• Double null-terminated string

  - by wengseng

  I need to format a string to be double null-terminated string in order to use SHFileOperation. Interesting part is i found one of the following working, but not both: // Example 1 CString szDir(_T("D:\\Test")); szDir = szDir + _T('\0') + _T('\0'); // Example 2 CString szDir(_T("D:\\Test")); szDir = szDir + _T("\0\0"); //Delete folder SHFILEOPSTRUCT fileop; fileop.hwnd = NULL; // no status display fileop.wFunc = FO_DELETE; // delete operation fileop.pFrom = szDir; // source file name as double null terminated string fileop.pTo = NULL; // no destination needed fileop.fFlags = FOF_NOCONFIRMATION|FOF_SILENT; // do not prompt the user fileop.fAnyOperationsAborted = FALSE; fileop.lpszProgressTitle = NULL; fileop.hNameMappings = NULL; int ret = SHFileOperation(&fileop); Does anyone has idea on this? Is there other way to append double-terminated string?

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• php oop and mysql

  - by gloris

  I need to get data, to check and send to db. Programming with PHP OOP. Could you tell me if my class structure is good and how dislpay all data?. Thanks <?php class Database{ private $DBhost = 'localhost'; private $DBuser = 'root'; private $DBpass = 'root'; private $DBname = 'blog'; public function connect(){ //Connect to mysql db } public function select($rows){ //select data from db } public function insert($rows){ //Insert data to db } public function delete($rows){ //Delete data from db } } class CheckData{ public $number1; public $number2; public function __construct(){ $this->number1 = $_POST['number1']; $this->number2 = $_POST['number2']; } function ISempty(){ if(!empty($this->$number1)){ echo "Not Empty"; $data = new Database(); $data->insert($this->$number1); } else{ echo "Empty1"; } if(!empty($this->$number2)){ echo "Not Empty"; $data = new Database(); $data->insert($this->$number2); } else{ echo "Empty2"; } } } class DisplayData{ //How print all data? function DisplayNumber(){ $data = new Database(); $data->select(); } } $check = new CheckData(); $check->ISempty(); $display = new DisplayData() $display->DisplayNumber(); ?>

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• Using tarantula to test a Rails app

  - by Benjamin Oakes

  I'm using Tarantula to test a Rails app I'm developing. It works pretty well, but I'm getting some strange 404s. After looking into it, Tarantula is following DELETE requests (destroy actions on controllers) throughout my app when it tests. Since Tarantula gets the index action first (and seems to keep a list of unvisited URLs), it eventually tries to follow a link to a resource which it had deleted... and gets a 404. Tarantula is right that the URL doesn't exist anymore (because it deleted the resource itself). However, it's flagging it as an error -- that's hardly the behavior I would expect. I'm basically just using the Rails scaffolding and this problem is happening. How do I prevent Tarantula doing this? (Or, is there a better way of specifying the links?) Updates: Still searching, but I found a relevant thread here: http://github.com/relevance/tarantula/issues#issue/3 Seems to be coming from relying on JS too much, in a way (see also http://thelucid.com/2010/03/15/rails-can-we-please-have-a-delete-action-by-default/)

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• Partioning with Hibernate

  - by Alex

  Hello, We have a requirement to delete data in the range of 200K from database everyday. Our application is Java/JEE based using Oracle DB and Hibernate ORM tool. We explored various options like Hibernate batch processing Stored procedure Database partitioning Our DBA suggests database partitioning is the best way to go, so we can easily recreate and drop the partitioned table everyday. Now the issue is we have 2 kinds of data, one which we want to delete everyday and the other which we want to keep it. Suppose this data is stored in table "Trade". Now with partitioning, we have 2 tables "Trade". We have already existing Hibernate based DAO layer to fetch/store trades from/to DB. When we decide to partition the database, how can we control the trades to go in which of the two tables through hibernate. Basically I want , the trades need to be deleted by end of the day, to go in partitioned table and the trades I want to keep, in main table. Please suggest how can this be possible with Hibernate. We may add an additional column to identify the trades to be deleted but how can we ensure these trades should go to partitioned trade table using hibernate. I would appreciate if someone can suggest any better approach in case we are on wrong path.

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• I have created a PHP script and I am lacking to extract the primary key, I have given flow below, pl

  - by Parth

  I am using MySQL DB, working for Joomla, My requirement is tracking the activity like insert/update/delete on any table and store it in another audit table using triggers, i.e. I am doing Auditing. DB's table structure: Few tables dont have any PK nor auto increment key Flow of my script is : I fetch out all table from DB. I check whether the table have any trigger or not. If yes then it moves to check nfor next table and so on. If it does'nt find any trigger then it creates the triggers for the table, such that, -it first checks if the table has any primary key or not(for inserting in Tracking audit table for every change made) if it has the primary key then it uses it further in creation of trigger. if it doesnt find any PK then it proceeds further in creating the trigger without inserting any id in audit table Now here, My problem is I need the PK every time so that I can record the id of any particular table in which the insert/update/delete is performed, so that further i can use this audit track table to replicate in production DB.. Now as I haave mentioned earlier that I am not available with PK/auto-incremented in some table, then what should I do get the particular id in which change is done? please guide me...GEEKS!!!

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• Can this code cause a memory leak (Arduino)

  - by tbraun89

  I have a arduino project and I created this struct: struct Project { boolean status; String name; struct Project* nextProject; }; In my application I parse some data and create Project objects. To have them in a list there is a pointer to the nextProject in each Project object expect the last. This is the code where I add new projects: void RssParser::addProject(boolean tempProjectStatus, String tempData) { if (!startProject) { startProject = true; firstProject.status = tempProjectStatus; firstProject.name = tempData; firstProject.nextProject = NULL; ptrToLastProject = &firstProject; } else { ptrToLastProject->nextProject = new Project(); ptrToLastProject->nextProject->status = tempProjectStatus; ptrToLastProject->nextProject->name = tempData; ptrToLastProject->nextProject->nextProject = NULL; ptrToLastProject = ptrToLastProject->nextProject; } } firstProject is an private instance variable and defined in the header file like this: Project firstProject; So if there actually no project was added, I use firstProject, to add a new one, if firstProject is set I use the nextProject pointer. Also I have a reset() method that deletes the pointer to the projects: void RssParser::reset() { delete ptrToLastProject; delete firstProject.nextProject; startProject = false; } After each parsing run I call reset() the problem is that the memory used is not released. If I comment out the addProject method there are no issues with my memory. Someone can tell me what could cause the memory leak?

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• How to stop the submission of the form using JQUERY?

  - by Param-Ganak

  Hello frineds! I have a form which have many check boxes in it. User will check one or many checkboxes and click on Delete button which is actually submit button then the respective records for selected check boxes are get deleted. Required operation steps are as follows:- When user selects one or more checkboxes and clicks the submit button then a JQUERY code is get executed in which It should checks that if any check box is selected; if not; then is displays alert message and do not submit the form. If it founds that one or more checkboxes are selected it should ask user for his/her confirmation using confirm alert box about the confirmation of deletion. If user press YES button on confirm box then it should submit the form using javascript submit statement. If user pressed the NO button then it should unchecks the checked selected checkboxes and should not submit the form. This is the JQUERY code I had written. $(document).ready(function (){ $("#id_delete").click(function(){ var temp=$("#id_frm input:checkbox:checked"); var len=temp.length; if(len==0) { alert("Please select the order."); } else { if(confirm("Are you sure to delete the selected orders.")) { $("#id_frm").submit(); } else { temp.checked=false; } } }); }); Problems: This code is not working properly. Here 1. It submits form when there is no check box is selected. 2. It submits the form when user press NO button on confirmation dialog box. Please guide me friends in this problem.

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• Jquery drag /drop and clone

  - by Sajeev

  Hi I need to achive this .. I have a set of droppable items ( basically I am droping designs on a apparel ) and I am dropping a clone.. If I don't like the dropped object (designs) - I want to delete that by doing something like hidden . But I am unable to do that. Please help me.. here is the code var clone; $(document).ready(function(){ $(".items").draggable({helper: 'clone',cursor: 'hand'}); $(".droparea").droppable({ accept: ".items", hoverClass: 'dropareahover', tolerance: 'pointer', drop: function(ev, ui) { var dropElemId = ui.draggable.attr("id"); var dropElem = ui.draggable.html(); clone = $(dropElem).clone(); // clone it and hold onto the jquery object clone.id="newId"; clone.css("position", "absolute"); clone.css("top", ui.absolutePosition.top); clone.css("left", ui.absolutePosition.left); clone.draggable({ containment: 'parent' ,cursor: 'crosshair'}); $(this).append(clone); alert("done dragging "); /lets assume I have a delete button when I click that clone should dissapear so that I can drop another design - but the following code has no effect //and the item is still visible , how to make it dissapear ? $('#newId').css("visibility","hidden"); } }); });

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• Dealing with image upload on server

  - by user1073320

  I have got a the following problem: I have got multi-step form where in one step user upload image to server and then few steps further supplies other information, when this information is invalid no data should be commited - also the image should be deleted. I was thinking about PHP session, but I've read here PHP - Store Images in SESSION data? that it is inefficient way. Every time you proceed step in the form the image is reloaded (in the session) and as somebody mentioned "You will want it to only be as big as it needs to be and you need to delete it as soon as you don't need it because large pieces of information in the session will slow down the session startup." - here i got a question: will it slow down the stratup the session of user who upload file or sessions of all users? I have to mention that I'm looking for solution that doesn't rely on operating system scripts (cron or etc) - I have no permission to run such scripts. The perfect solution for me would be: saving image on disk (for example in some folder named after session id) then after the latest step of form move this image or delete depending on form validation. If user unexpectedly destroy the session (for example closing the browser) of course the folder with image should be deleted. In nutshell I need somethig like callback to event "destroying session".

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• need help optimizing oracle query

  - by deming

  I need help in optimizing the following query. It is taking a long time to finish. It takes almost 213 seconds . because of some constraints, I can not add an index and have to live with existing ones. INSERT INTO temp_table_1 ( USER_ID, role_id, participant_code, status_id ) WITH A AS (SELECT USER_ID user_id,ROLE_ID, STATUS_ID,participant_code FROM USER_ROLE WHERE participant_code IS NOT NULL), --1 B AS (SELECT ROLE_ID FROM CMP_ROLE WHERE GROUP_ID = 3), C AS (SELECT USER_ID FROM USER) --2 SELECT USER_ID,ROLE_ID,PARTICIPANT_CODE,MAX(STATUS_ID) FROM A INNER JOIN B USING (ROLE_ID) INNER JOIN C USING (USER_ID) GROUP BY USER_ID,role_id,participant_code ; --1 = query when ran alone takes 100+ seconds --2 = query when ran alone takes 19 seconds DELETE temp_table_1 WHERE ROWID NOT IN ( SELECT a.ROWID FROM temp_table_1 a, USER_ROLE b WHERE a.status_id = b.status_id AND ( b.ACTIVE IN ( 1 ) OR ( b.ACTIVE IN ( 0,3 ) AND SYSDATE BETWEEN b.effective_from_date AND b.effective_to_date )) ); It seems like the person who wrote the query is trying to get everything into a temp table first and then deleting records from the temp table. whatever is left is the actual results. Can't it be done such a way that there is no need for the delete? We just get the results needed since that will save time?

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• How to treat Base* pointer as Derived<T>* pointer?

  - by dehmann

  I would like to store pointers to a Base class in a vector, but then use them as function arguments where they act as a specific class, see here: #include <iostream> #include <vector> class Base {}; template<class T> class Derived : public Base {}; void Foo(Derived<int>* d) { std::cerr << "Processing int" << std::endl; } void Foo(Derived<double>* d) { std::cerr << "Processing double" << std::endl; } int main() { std::vector<Base*> vec; vec.push_back(new Derived<int>()); vec.push_back(new Derived<double>()); Foo(vec[0]); Foo(vec[1]); delete vec[0]; delete vec[1]; return 0; } This doesn't compile: error: call of overloaded 'Foo(Base*&)' is ambiguous Is it possible to make it work? I need to process the elements of the vector differently, according to their int, double, etc. types.

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• How can I limit asp.net control actions based on user role?

  - by Duke

  I have several pages or views in my application which are essentially the same for both authenticated users and anonymous users. I'd like to limit the insert/update/delete actions in formviews and gridviews to authenticated users only, and allow read access for both authed and anon users. I'm using the asp.net configuration system for handling authentication and roles. This system limits access based on path so I've been creating duplicate pages for authed and anon paths. The solution that comes to mind immediately is to check roles in the appropriate event handlers, limiting what possible actions are displayed (insert/update/delete buttons) and also limiting what actions are performed (for users that may know how to perform an action in the absence of a button.) However, this solution doesn't eliminate duplication - I'd be duplicating security code on a series of pages rather than duplicating pages and limiting access based on path; the latter would be significantly less complicated. I could always build some controls that offered role-based configuration, but I don't think I have time for that kind of commitment right now. Is there a relatively easy way to do this (do such controls exist?) or should I just stick to path-based access and duplicate pages? Does it even make sense to use two methods of authorization? There are still some pages which are strictly for either role so I'll be making use of path-based authorization anyway. Finally, would using something other than path-based authorization be contrary to typical asp.net design practices, at least in the context of using the asp.net configuration system?

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• Copy constructor demo (crashing...)

  - by AKN

  Here is the program... class CopyCon { public: char *name; CopyCon() { name = new char; } CopyCon(const CopyCon &objCopyCon) { name = new char; _tcscpy(name,objCopyCon.name); } ~CopyCon() { if( name != NULL ) { delete name; name = NULL; } } }; int main() { CopyCon objCopyCon1; objCopyCon1.name = "Hai"; CopyCon objCopyCon2(objCopyCon1); objCopyCon1.name = "Hello"; cout<<objCopyCon2.name<<endl; return 0; } Once the code execution completes, when the destructor called, it crashes on 'delete' saying... Debug Error! Program: ... HEAP CORRUPTION DETECTED: after Normal block (#124) at 0x00366990. CRT detected that the application wrote to memory after end of heap buffer. (Press Retry to debug the application) Don't we have to clear the heap memory in destructor. What's wrong with this program? Pls someone help! Copy constructor works perfectly as intended. But still... !?

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• Mapping individual buttons on ASP.NET MVC View to controller actions

  - by skb

  I have an application where I need the user to be able to update or delete rows of data from the database. The rows are displayed to the user using a foreach loop in the .aspx file of my view. Each row will have two text fields (txtName, txtDesc), an update button, and a delete button. What I'm not sure of, is how do I have the update button send the message to the controller for which row to update? I can see a couple way of doing this: Put each row within it's own form tag, then when the update button is clicked, it will submit the values for that row only (there will also be a hidden field with the rowId) and the controller class would take all the post values as parameters to the Update method on the controller. Somehow, have the button be scripted in a way to send back only the values for that row with a POST to the controller. Is there a way of doing this? One thing I am concerned about is if each row has different names for it's controls assigned by ASP.NET (txtName1, txtDesc1, txtName2, txtDesc2), then how will their values get mapped to the correct parameters of the Controller method?

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• MS Access: Permission problems with views

  - by Keith Williams

  "I'll use an Access ADP" I said, "it's only a tiny project and I've got better things to do", I said, "I can build an interface really quickly in Access" I said. </sarcasm> Sorry for the rant, but it's Friday, I have a date in just under two hours, and I'm here late because this just isn't working - so, in despair, I turn to SO for help. Access ADP front-end, linked to a SQL Server 2008 database Using a SQL Server account to log into the database (for testing); this account is a member of the role, "Api"; this role has SELECT, EXECUTE, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE access to the "Api" schema The "Api" schema is owned by "dbo" All tables have a corresponding view in the Api schema: e.g. dbo.Customer -- Api.Customers The rationale is that users don't have direct table access, but can deal with views as if they were tables I can log into SQL using my test login, and it works fine: no access to the tables, but I can select, insert, update and delete from the Api views. In Access, I see the views, I can open them, but whenever I try to insert or update, I get the following error: The SELECT permission was denied on the object '[Table name which the view is using]', database '[database name]', schema 'dbo' Crazy as it sounds, Access seems to be trying to access the underlying table rather than the view. Any ideas?

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• How to view my Android app created database, via my android app?

  - by suufang

  I'm creating an application that collects users location (Cell broadcast location code) and saves that location with a name of users option, for example say my CB location code is 546034, now my app allows me to store that location code with a name of my choice say 'Home'. So, essentially my app has that following modules, To collect users CB location. To collect a custom name from user of that location. To store these values in a database. I've succeeded in doing all the above modules. I have a sub-module for my third module which has an option for user, of showing and deleting the database values, the screen shot looks as follows, Now, Users should be able to view and delete entries when he chooses the option 'View my database of locations' I've learned how to query my database values and I'm stuck with creating a list view and providing the delete option. My code for getting the database values and querying values goes as follows, submit.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View arg0) { String locname = name.getText().toString(); if(locname.length()==0) { Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "Please enter the location name, for example 'Home'.", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } else { SQLiteDatabase cd = openOrCreateDatabase("mydata", MODE_WORLD_READABLE, null); cd.execSQL("CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS MLITable (CblocationCode INT(10), CblocationName VARCHAR);"); cd.execSQL("INSERT INTO MLITable VALUES ('"+str+ "','"+locname+ "');"); cd.close(); Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "value successfully entered.", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } } }); viewdb.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View arg0) { // here comes the code for viewing the database and deleting SQLiteDatabase db = openOrCreateDatabase("mydata", MODE_WORLD_READABLE, null); Cursor c = db.rawQuery("SELECT * FROM MLITble", null); db.close(); } }); I can see that I've read the table values, but I'm not able to create a display for those values. Help required. Thank you.

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