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  • How to manage Javascript modules in django templates?

    - by John Mee
    Lets say we want a library of javascript-based pieces of functionality (I'm thinking jquery): For example: an ajax dialog a date picker a form validator a sliding menu bar an accordian thingy There are four pieces of code for each: some Python, CSS, JS, & HTML. What is the best way to arrange all these pieces so that: each javascript 'module' can be neatly reused by different views the four bits of code that make up the completed function stay together the css/js/html parts appear in their correct places in the response common dependencies between modules are not repeated (eg: a javascript file in common) x-------------- It would be nice if, or is there some way to ensure that, when called from a templatetag, the templates respected the {% block %} directives. Thus one could create a single template with a block each for CSS, HTML, and JS, in a single file. Invoke that via a templatetag which is called from the template of whichever view wants it. That make any sense. Can that be done some way already? My templatetag templates seem to ignore the {% block %} directives. x-------------- There's some very relevant gasbagging about putting such media in forms here http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/dev/topics/forms/media/ which probably apply to the form validator and date picker examples.

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  • can't figure out serving static images in django dev environment

    - by photographer
    I've read the article (and few others on the subject), but still can't figure out how to show an image unless a link to a file existing on a web-service is hard-coded into the html template. I've got in urls.py: ... (r'^galleries/(landscapes)/(?P<path>.jpg)$', 'django.views.static.serve', {'document_root': settings.MEDIA_URL}), ... where 'landscapes' is one of the albums I'm trying to show images from. (There are several more of them.) In views.py it calls the template with code like that: ... <li><img src=160.jpg alt='' title='' /></li> ... which resolves the image link in html into: http://127.0.0.1:8000/galleries/landscapes/160.jpg In settings.py I have: MEDIA_ROOT = 'C:/siteURL/galleries/' MEDIA_URL = 'http://some-good-URL/galleries/' In file system there is a file C:/siteURL/galleries/landscapes/160.jpg and I do have the same file at http://some-good-URL/galleries/landscapes/160.jpg No matter what I use in urls.py — MEDIA_ROOT or MEDIA_URL (with expectation to have either local images served or from the web-server) — I get following in the source code in the browser: <li><img src=160.jpg /></li> There is no image shown in the browser. What am I doing wrong?

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  • How to start an iPhone 3.1.3 project in Xcode 3.2.3 (iPhone SDK 4 beta)

    - by Zordid
    Hi there! I am having big problems since I downloaded the beta version of iPhone SDK 4.0. Okay, I just started to look at iPhone development a few weeks ago, but I cannot figure out how Xcode is supposed to work: whenever I start a new project, I choose a template like "View-based application" or so. Now, the target will always (at least I did not find a preference anywhere!) be the latest SDK: 4.0. But then: switching the target back to, say, 3.1.3 the template files seem to contain errors! Starting an empty application this way yields an exception: Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSUnknownKeyException', reason: [...] this class is not key value coding-compliant for the key rootViewController sick Now, my (stupid) question: How do I develop an application NOT targeting the latest SDK, but the standard 3.1.3 SDK?? In other words: I would expect Xcode not only to ask for a project type in the New Project window, but also for my desired target!! Am I right that the templates generated with this step are not valid for any other target than 4.0? How can that be?? ...I want my Eclipse back! sigh Can anybody help me please?

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  • How to insert a blank line above my copyright text inside the comment lines in intelliJ IDEA?

    - by tim_wonil
    I'm using intelliJ IDEA 9. It has a function to make a copyright profile and apply to all files I create. What I'm trying to do is to format the copyright comment right. Suppose I have a copyright text as this: Copyright (c) 2010 my.company. All rights reserved. I wish it to be inserted in files automatically as following: //////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // // Copyright (c) 2010 my.company. All rights reserved. // //////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// But when I enter the line "Copyright (c) 2010 my.company. All rights reserved." in the copyright profile (without quotes) and configure the formatting to use line comment and borders, and so on, I can only make it to display as below: //////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // Copyright (c) 2010 my.company. All rights reserved. //////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// Even when I put the copyright text with blank line above and below to the template, as following, it still comes out like above. Copyright (c) 2010 my.company. All rights reserved. It seems to ignore blank lines in the copyright template. Is there any way to configure it so the copyright text will have blank lines above and below within the comments?

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  • Understanding asp.net mvc IView and IView.Render

    - by Harpreet
    I'm trying to devise a method of doing VERY simple asp.net mvc plugins but mostly I'm trying to understand how view rendering works. I've distilled my problem down to this public class CustomView : IView { public void Render(ViewContext viewContext, TextWriter writer) { writer.Write( /* string to render */); } } Now, within that write method I can render any string to the view but when I put a line of code in there wrapped with <% % it renders the code to the view literally rather than parsing it and executing it. I've tried adding things like <% @Page ... to the beginning of the string and it just renders that literally as well. Among many attempts I'm currently calling it this way within a controller action: ... CustomView customView = new CustomView(); ViewResult result = new ViewResult(); result.View = customView; result.ViewName = "Index.aspx"; result.MasterName = ""; return result; What am I missing or doing wrong that this won't work? The ViewResult seems to have the WebFormViewEngine in its ViewEngines collection. I just want to understand this and after stripping it down to what I think should be the minimum it doesn't behave as I think it should. I'm guessing some other part of the machinery is involved/missing but I can't figure out what.

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  • Extract a subset of XML file using XSL

    - by Lucas -luky- Noleto
    I have this XML file: <Response> <errorCode>error Code</errorCode> <errorMessage>msg</errorMessage> <ResponseParameters> <className> <attribute1>a</attribute1> <attribute2>b</attribute2> </className> </ResponseParameters> </Response> And I want the output to be: <className> <attribute1>a</attribute1> <attribute2>b</attribute2> </className> My current XSL file is including also "ResponseParameters" tag, which I do not want. EDIT: note that the node className is dynamic. I do not know what will be this name at runtime. <?xml version="1.0"?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0"> <xsl:output indent="yes" /> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:copy-of select="//ResponseParameters"> </xsl:copy-of> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet>

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  • How to Use DataSource Property in DataFormWebPart

    - by Bryan Shen
    I'm writing a custom web part that extends DataFormWebPart. public class MyCustomWebPart : DataFormWebPart{ // other methods public override void DataBind() { XmlDataSource source = new XmlDataSource() { Data = @" <Person> <name cap='true'>Bryan</name> <occupation>student</occupation> </Person> " }; DataSources.Add(source); base.DataBind(); } } The only noticeable thing I do is overriding the DataBind() method, where I use xml as the data source. After I deploy the web part, I set the following XSL to it: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output method="xml" version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xmp> <xsl:copy-of select="*"/> </xmp> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> This xsl will surround the input xml with a tag . So I expected the web part to display the original xml data as I wrote in C# code behind. But what shows up in the web part is this: <Person> <name cap="true" /> <occupation /> </Person> All the values within the inner-most tags disappear. What's going on? Can anybody help me? Thanks.

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  • Merge Word Documents (Office Interop & .NET), Keeping Formatting

    - by mbmccormick
    I'm having some difficulty merging multiple word documents together using Microsoft Office Interop Assemblies (Office 2007) and ASP.NET 3.5. I'm able to merge the documents, but some of my formatting is missing (namely the fonts and images). My current merge code is shown below. private void CombineDocuments() { object wdPageBreak = 7; object wdStory = 6; object oMissing = System.Reflection.Missing.Value; object oFalse = false; object oTrue = true; string fileDirectory = @"C:\documents\"; Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application WordApp = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application(); Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Document wDoc = WordApp.Documents.Add(ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing); string[] wordFiles = Directory.GetFiles(fileDirectory, "*.doc"); for (int i = 0; i < wordFiles.Length; i++) { string file = wordFiles[i]; wDoc.Application.Selection.Range.InsertFile(file, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oFalse); wDoc.Application.Selection.Range.InsertBreak(ref wdPageBreak); wDoc.Application.Selection.EndKey(ref wdStory, ref oMissing); } string combineDocName = Path.Combine(fileDirectory, "Merged Document.doc"); if (File.Exists(combineDocName)) File.Delete(combineDocName); object combineDocNameObj = combineDocName; wDoc.SaveAs(ref combineDocNameObj, ref m_WordDocumentType, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing, ref oMissing); } I don't care necessarily how this is accomplished. It could output via PDF if it had to. I just want the formatting to carry over. Any help or hints that you could provide me with would be appreciated! Thanks!

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  • Dynamic ASP.NET controls using Infragistics

    - by Emil D
    So, in my asp.net webapp I need to dynamically load a custom control, based on the selected value of a dropdown list.That seems to work at first glance, but for some reason all infragistics controls that I have in my custom control appear, but won't work.I get a "Can't init [controlname]" warning in my browser.If I declare my custom control statically, this problem doesn't apprear Here's my code: Markup: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="GenericReportGUI.ascx.cs" Inherits="GenericReportGUI" %> <%@ Register assembly="Infragistics35.WebUI.Misc.v8.3, Version=8.3.20083.1009,Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=7dd5c3163f2cd0cb" namespace="Infragistics.WebUI.Misc" tagprefix="igmisc" %> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="myUpdatePanel" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <igmisc:WebPanel ID="WebPanel1" runat="server"> <Template> <div> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="Placeholder" runat="server"> </asp:PlaceHolder> </div> </Template> </igmisc:WebPanel> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> Code-behind: public partial class GenericReportGUI : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected override void OnPreRender( EventArgs e ) { base.OnPreRender(e); loadCustomControl(); } protected void loadCustomControl() { Placeholder.Controls.Clear(); string controlPath = getPath(); //getPath() returns the path to the .ascx file we need to load, based on the selected value of a dropdownlist try { Control newControl = LoadControl( controlPath ); Placeholder.Controls.Add( newControl ); } catch { //if the desired control cannot be loaded, display nothing } myUpdatePanel.Update();//Update the UpdatePanel that contains the custom control } } I'm a total noob when it comes to asp.net, so any help with this issue would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Increasing Max Upload File Size on IIS7/Win7 Pro

    - by Jay Querido
    I'm setting up a server for a client (something I don't typically do), and I'm running into issues with uploading larger files (11MB). The server is running Windows 7 Professional with IIS added. In web.config I've tried setting <system.web> <httpRuntime maxRequestLength="65536" /> <!-- 64MB --> </system.web> ... and that doesn't work. I've set <system.webSecurity> <security> <requestFiltering> <requestLimits maxAllowedContentLength="68157440" /> </requestFiltering> </security> </system.webSecurity> ... and that doesn't work either. What am I missing here? As I've said, I don't typically set up servers, so I may be missing something obvious... no suggestion will be scoffed at! Thanks in advance.

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  • Is VB Really Case Insensitive?

    - by Otaku
    I'm not trying to start an argument here, but for whatever reason it's typically stated that VB is case insensitive and C languages aren't (and somehow that is a good thing). But here's my question: Where exactly is VB case insensitive? When I type... Dim ss As String Dim SS As String ...into the VS2008 IDE the second one has a warning of "Local variable 'SS' is already declared in the current block". In VBA VBE, it doesn't immediately kick an error, but rather just auto-corrects the case. Am I missing something here with this argument that VB is not case sensitive? (Also, if you know or care to answer, why would that be a bad thing?) EDIT: Why am I even asking this question? I've used VB in many of it's dialects for years now, sometimes as a hobbyist, sometimes for small business-related programs in a workgroup. As of the last 6 months I've been working on a big project, much bigger than I anticipated. Much of the sample source code out there is in C#. I don't have any burning desire to learn C#, but if there are things I'm missing out on that C# offers that VB doesn't (an opposite would be VB.NET offers XML Literals), then I'd like to know more about that feature. So in this case, it's often argued that C languages are case sensitive and that's good and VB is case insensitive and that is bad. I'd like to know A) how exactly is VB case insensitive because every single example in the code editor becomes case sensititive (meaning case gets corrected) whether I want it or not and B) is this compelling enough for me to consider moving to C# if VB.NET case is somehow limiting what I could do with code?

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  • Seperating Javascript and Html, when dynamically adding html via javascript

    - by optician
    I am currently building a very dynamic table for a list application, which will basically perform basic CRUD functions via AJAX. What I would like to do is separate the visual design and javascript to the point where I can change the design side without touching the JS side. This would only work where the design stays roughly the same(i would like to use it for rapid protyping) Here is an example. <table> <tr><td>record-123</td><td>I am line 123</td><td>delete row</td></tr> <tr><td>record-124</td><td>I am line 124</td><td>delete row</td></tr> <tr><td>record-125</td><td>I am line 125</td><td>delete row</td></tr> <tr><td>add new record</td></tr> </table> Now, when I add a new record, I would like to insert a new row of html, but I would rather not put this html into the javascript file. What I am considering is creating a row like this on the page, near the table. <tr style='visble:none;' id='template-row'><td>record-id</td><td>content-area</td><td>delete row</td></tr> And when I come to add the new row, I search the page for the tags with the id=template-row , and then grab it, do a string replace on it, and then put it in the right place in the page. As long as the design doesn't shift radically, and I keep the placeholder strings the same, it means designs can be quickly modified without touching the js. Can any give any advice on a methodology like this?

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  • Separating Javascript and Html, when dynamically adding html via javascript

    - by optician
    I am currently building a very dynamic table for a list application, which will basically perform basic CRUD functions via AJAX. What I would like to do is separate the visual design and javascript to the point where I can change the design side without touching the JS side. This would only work where the design stays roughly the same(i would like to use it for rapid protyping) Here is an example. <table> <tr><td>record-123</td><td>I am line 123</td><td>delete row</td></tr> <tr><td>record-124</td><td>I am line 124</td><td>delete row</td></tr> <tr><td>record-125</td><td>I am line 125</td><td>delete row</td></tr> <tr><td>add new record</td></tr> </table> Now, when I add a new record, I would like to insert a new row of html, but I would rather not put this html into the javascript file. What I am considering is creating a row like this on the page, near the table. <tr style='visble:none;' id='template-row'><td>record-id</td><td>content-area</td><td>delete row</td></tr> And when I come to add the new row, I search the page for the tags with the id=template-row , and then grab it, do a string replace on it, and then put it in the right place in the page. As long as the design doesn't shift radically, and I keep the placeholder strings the same, it means designs can be quickly modified without touching the js. Can any give any advice on a methodology like this?

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  • MSBuild fails, but building inside Visual Studio works fine

    - by Matt
    C#, .NET 2.0 I have an ASP.NET website in a solution, with 2 other projects (used as library references). When I build (debug or release) in Visual Studio, everything works fine. However, building with MSBuild fails. This build had been working (it's actually invoked via a nAnt task). The only thing that has changed is that I have a new user control whose Type I am referencing in my code behind. The offending code is in my ASPX code behind. MessageAlert is the UserControl: MessageAlert userControl = this.LoadControl("~/UserControls/MessageAlert.ascx") as MessageAlert; userControl.UserMessage = message; this.UserMessages.Controls.Add(userControl); In order to get Visual Studio to recognize the type 'MessageAlert' I had to: 1) Set the ClassName="MessageAlert" in the @Control markup at the top of the user control (because using the auto-generated UserControls_MessageAlert wasn't working either) 2) Register the user control in the markup of my ASPX, using an @Register 3) Add a "using ASP" to the top of my code behind After those steps, I could successfully reference the MessageAlert type in my codebehind from visual studio. But from MSBuild I get "The type or namespace name 'MessageAlert' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) " The MSBuild execution is very simple - it points the the very same solution file and sets the configuration property to release. It seems, based on the # of steps I had to go through to get Type references to MessageAlert in Visual Studio, that there is something missing in the MSBuild process. But what? Doesn't Visual Studio in fact invoke MSBuild behind the scenes? Is there a better way to reference a UserControl type in the code behind of an ASPX? EDIT: To clarify, the MessageAlert user control is not in the other referenced assemblies/projects. I mentioned them because, together with the website, the compose the Solution file, which is the same sln file being built by MS Build.

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  • AlertDialog in if-stetement doesn't show()

    - by Steffen Kern
    I have the following code: public void button_login(View view) { // Instantiate an AlertDialog.Builder with its constructor AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); builder.setPositiveButton(R.string.ok, new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int id) { /* User clicked OK button */ } }); // Preserve EditText values. EditText ET_username = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.username); EditText ET_password = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.password); String str_username = ET_username.toString(); String str_password = ET_password.toString(); // Intercept missing username and password. if(str_username.length() == 0) { builder.setMessage(R.string.hint_username_empty); AlertDialog dialog = builder.create(); dialog.show(); } } I have an activity that includes the two EditText-Views and a button. When I click the button the shown method will be called. My problem: The AlertDialog doesnt show up! When I put the create and show at beginning like this: // Instantiate an AlertDialog.Builder with its constructor AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); builder.setPositiveButton(R.string.ok, new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int id) { /* User clicked OK button */ } }); builder.setMessage(R.string.hint_username_empty); AlertDialog dialog = builder.create(); dialog.show(); // Preserve EditText values. EditText ET_username = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.username); EditText ET_password = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.password); String str_username = ET_username.toString(); String str_password = ET_password.toString(); // Intercept missing username and password. if(str_username.length() == 0) { } } Then the Dialog shows up. Any ideas why the dialog doesnt show up in the first place? Greetz, Steffen

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  • ASP.NET MVC2: Client-side validation not working with Start.js

    - by Shaggy13spe
    Ok, this is strange. I would hope it's something I'm doing wrong and not that MS has two technologies that simply don't work together. (UPDATE: See bottom of post for Script tag order in HEAD section) I'm trying to use the dataView template and client-side validation. If I include a reference to: <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/beta/0911/Start.js" type="text/javascript"></script> by itself, the dataview template works fine. but if I put in the following references: <script src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/jquery.validate/1.7/jquery.validate.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcAjax.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.js" type="text/javascript"></script> then I get the following error: > Error: Type._registerScript is not a > function Source File: > http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/beta/0911/MicrosoftAjaxTemplates.js > Line: 1 and: > Error: Sys.get("$listings") is null > Source File: > http://localhost:12370/Listings Line: > 76 Here's the code calling the dataview: $(document).ready(function () { LoadMap(); Sys.require([Sys.components.dataView, Sys.scripts.jQuery], function() { $("#listings").dataView(); Sys.get("$listings").set_data(listings.Data); updateMap(listings.Data); }); }); I would really appreciate any help with this one. Thanks! UPDATE: I've tried moving around the order of the last 4 script tags, but to no avail.

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  • Xcode Link Frameworks "Relative to Current SDK" Doesn't Work When Mixing Mac Framework and iPhone St

    - by bl4th3rsk1t3
    I have a framework of code I maintain. It's got mac and iphone objective-c code. And some of it is shared. I'm not having any problems with code. It's a problem with Xcode. Let's just call my framework "AwesomeKit" for this problem. The first thing I did was create an xcode Framework project called "AwesomeKit". Add source files to it, link against the common mac frameworks: foundation, cocoa, carbon, etc. It compiles fine. Then, add a new "static library" target, let's call it "AwesomeKit-iPhone" and set the base SDK in the build settings to iphone device 3.1.3. The problem comes when I try to add "Existing Frameworks" to the AweseomKit-iPhone target. -First change the current build target to AwesomeKit-iPhone. -Right click on any group and select "Add Existing Frameworks..." -Choose UIKit.framework UIKit will immediately be highlighted red, as if it's missing. It is indeed missing because Xcode uses the "Relative SDK" setting from the "Mac OS 10.6" SDK. When it should be using it relative to the current target's base sdk iphone device 3.1.3. What the heck? Has anyone experienced this? This is really annoying.

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  • Why is my app delegate's didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method all of sudden being called AFTER my Ro

    - by BeachRunnerJoe
    Hi. I've been playing with the iPad's SplitView template in Xcode. Here are two of the many important methods that are auto-generated for you by the Split View-based Application template... AppNameAppDelegate.m #pragma mark - #pragma mark Application lifecycle - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // Override point for customization after app launch rootViewController.managedObjectContext = self.managedObjectContext; // Add the split view controller's view to the window and display. [window addSubview:splitViewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } RootViewController.m #pragma mark - #pragma mark View lifecycle - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.clearsSelectionOnViewWillAppear = NO; self.contentSizeForViewInPopover = CGSizeMake(320.0, 600.0); NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } } When you build and run the project before making any changes at all, the application:didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method is called before the RootViewController:viewDidLoad method is called. I'm new to iPhone development, but I'm assuming this is the correct and typical sequence. However, as soon as I changed the RootViewController code and set it as a subclass of UIViewController (instead of UITableViewController by default), and made the respective adjustments in Interface Builder, suddenly the RootViewController:viewDidLoad is being called before the application:didFinishLaunchingWithOptions method. I need to get it back to the way it was working before because, as you can see in the code, the viewDidLoad method depends on didFinishLauchingWithOptions method to execute so it can set the rootViewController's managedObjectContext that it uses to perform the fetch request. Any ideas what caused this? Any ideas how I can fix this? Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm gonna keep researching and playing with the code.

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  • Laravel - public layout not needed in every function

    - by fischer
    I have just recently started working with Laravel. Great framework so far! However I have a question. I am using a layout template like this: public $layout = 'layouts.private'; This is set in my Base_Controller: public function __construct(){ //Styles Asset::add('reset', 'css/reset.css'); Asset::add('main', 'css/main.css'); //Scripts Asset::add('jQuery', 'http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.8.1/jquery.min.js'); //Switch layout template according to the users auth credentials. if (Auth::check()) { $this -> layout = 'layouts.private'; } else { $this -> layout = 'layouts.public'; } parent::__construct(); } However I get an error exception now when I try to access functions in my diffrent controllers, which should not call any view, i.e. when a user is going to login: class Login_Controller extends Base_Controller { public $restful = true; public function post_index() { $user = new User(); $credentials = array('username' => Input::get('email'), 'password' => Input::get('password')); if (Auth::attempt($credentials)) { } else { } } } The error I get, is that I do not set the content of the different variables in my public $layout. But since no view is needed in this function, how do I tell Laravel not to include the layout in this function? The best solution that I my self have come a cross (don't know if this is a bad way?) is to unset($this -> layout); from function post_index()... To sum up my question: how do I tell Laravel not to include public $layout in certain functions, where a view is not needed? Thanks in advance, fischer

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  • Emphasized text in docbook, fo, pdf out put.

    - by Mica
    I am trying to emphasize a character of some static text to render into the footer of my pdf, but can't figure out the right combination of tags in my xsl. How can I accomplish this? Example: <!-- Footer content --> <xsl:template name="footer.content"> <xsl:param name="pageclass" select="''"/> <xsl:param name="sequence" select="''"/> <xsl:param name="position" select="''"/> <xsl:param name="gentext-key" select="''"/> <fo:block> <xsl:choose> ... <xsl:when test="$sequence = 'odd' and $position = 'left'"> <xsl:text>&#x00A9;<emphasis>My</emphasis>Company</xsl:text> </xsl:when> ... </xsl:choose> </fo:block> </xsl:template> This example generates an error in xsltproc. Help!

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  • RuntimeException from xmlbeans - can't find compiled schema

    - by findango
    I'm getting a RuntimeException while executing some code that depends on generated xmlbeans classes. I can't figure out if this is: me missing something during code-generation or packaging a runtime dependency missing a misleading error message, and I should be looking elsewhere. The xbean.jar version is the same in the build and execution environment. Anyone seen this before or have any ideas? Thanks. ...snip... Caused by: java.lang.RuntimeException: Could not instantiate SchemaTypeSystemImpl (java.lang.reflect.InvocationTargetException): is the version of xbean.jar correct? at schemaorg_apache_xmlbeans.system.s2B8331230CBD98F4933B0B025B6BF726.TypeSystemHolder.loadTypeSystem(Unknown Source) at schemaorg_apache_xmlbeans.system.s2B8331230CBD98F4933B0B025B6BF726.TypeSystemHolder.(Unknown Source) ... 38 more Caused by: java.lang.reflect.InvocationTargetException at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance(NativeConstructorAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingConstructorAccessorImpl.newInstance(DelegatingConstructorAccessorImpl.java:27) at java.lang.reflect.Constructor.newInstance(Constructor.java:494) ... 40 more Caused by: org.apache.xmlbeans.SchemaTypeLoaderException: XML-BEANS compiled schema: Could not locate compiled schema resource schemaorg_apache_xmlbeans/system/s2B8331230CBD98F4933B0B025B6BF726/index.xsb (schemaorg_apache_xmlbeans.system.s2B8331230CBD98F4933B0B025B6BF726.index) - code 0 at org.apache.xmlbeans.impl.schema.SchemaTypeSystemImpl$XsbReader.(SchemaTypeSystemImpl.java:1504) at org.apache.xmlbeans.impl.schema.SchemaTypeSystemImpl.initFromHeader(SchemaTypeSystemImpl.java:260) at org.apache.xmlbeans.impl.schema.SchemaTypeSystemImpl.(SchemaTypeSystemImpl.java:183) ... 44 more ...snip...

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  • Using ASP .NET Membership and Profile with MVC, how can I create a user and set it to HttpContext.Cu

    - by Jeremy Gruenwald
    I've read the other questions on the topic of MVC membership and profiles, but I'm missing something. I implemented a custom Profile object in code as described by Joel here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/426609/asp-net-membership-how-to-assign-profile-values I can't get it to work when I'm creating a new user, however. When I do this: Membership.CreateUser(userName, password); Roles.AddUserToRole(userName, "MyRole"); the user is created and added to a role in the database, but HttpContext.Current.User is still empty, and Membership.GetUser() returns null, so this (from Joel's code) doesn't work: static public AccountProfile CurrentUser { get { return (AccountProfile) (ProfileBase.Create(Membership.GetUser().UserName)); } } AccountProfile.CurrentUser.FullName = "Snoopy"; I've tried calling Membership.GetUser(userName) and setting Profile properties that way, but the set properties remain empty, and calling AccountProfile.CurrentUser(userName).Save() doesn't put anything in the database. I've also tried indicating that the user is valid & logged in, by calling Membership.ValidateUser, FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie, etc., but the current user is still null or anonymous (depending on the state of my browser cookies). I have the feeling I'm missing some essential piece of understanding about how Membership, Authentication, and Profiles fit together. Do I have to do a round trip before the current User will be populated? Any advice would be much appreciated.

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  • Using Entity Framework with an SQL Compact Private Installation

    - by David Veeneman
    I am using Entity Framework 4 in a desktop application with SQL Compact. I want to use a private installation of SQL Compact with my application, so that my installer can install SQL Compact without giving the user a second installation to do. It also avoids versioning hassles down the road. My development machine has SQL Compact 3.5 SP1 installed as a public installation, so my app runs fine there, as one would expect. But it's not running on my test machine, which does not have SQL Compact installed. I get this error: The specified store provider cannot be found in the configuration, or is not valid. I know some people have had difficulty with SQL Compact private installations, but I have used them for a while, and I really like them. Unfortunately, my regular private installation approach isn't working. I have checked the version numbers on my SQL CE files, and they are all 3.8.8078.0, which is the SP2 RC version. Here are the files I have included in my private installation: sqlcecompact35.dll sqlceer35EN.dll sqlceme35.dll sqlceqp35.dll sqlcese35.dll System.Data.SqlServerCe.dll System.Data.SqlServerCe.Entity.dll I have added a reference to System.Data.SqlServerCe to my project, and I have verified that all of the files listed above are being copied to the application folder on the installation machine. Here is the code I use to configure an EntityConnectionStringBuilder when I open a SQL Compact file: var sqlCompactConnectionString = string.Format("Data Source={0}", filePath); // Set Builder properties builder.Metadata = string.Format("res://*/{0}.csdl|res://*/{0}.ssdl|res://*/{0}.msl", edmName); builder.Provider = "System.Data.SqlServerCe.3.5"; builder.ProviderConnectionString = sqlCompactConnectionString; var edmConnectionString = builder.ToString(); Am I missing a file? Am I missing a configuration stepp needed to tell Entity Framework where to find my SQL Compact DLLs? Any other suggestions why EF isn't finding my SQL Compact DLLs on the installation machine? Thanks for your help.

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  • How do I hook into the action method for an iPad popover toolbar button?

    - by Elisabeth
    Hi, I am using the split view template to create a simple split view that has, of course, a popover in Portrait mode. I'm using the default code generated by template that adds/removes the toolbar item and sets the popover controller and removes it. These two methods are splitViewController:willShowViewController:... and splitViewController:willHideViewController:... I'm trying to figure out how to make the popover disappear if the user taps on the toolbar button while the popover is displayed. You can make the popover disappear without selecting an item if you tap anywhere outside the popover, but I would also like to make it disappear if the user taps the button again. Where I'm stuck is this: there doesn't seem to be an obvious, easy way to hook into the action for the toolbar button. I can tell, using the debugger, that the action that's being called on the button is showMasterInPopover. And I am new to working with selectors programmatically, I admit. Can I somehow write an action and set it on the toolbar item without overriding the action that's already there? e.g. add an action that calls the one that's there now? Or would I have to write an action that shows/hides the popover myself (behavior that's being done behind the scenes presumably by the split view controller now???). Or am I missing an easy way to add this behavior to this button without changing the existing behavior that's being set up for me? Thank you!

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  • Data Binding to an object in C#

    - by Allen
    Objective-c/cocoa offers a form of binding where a control's properties (ie text in a textbox) can be bound to the property of an object. I am trying to duplicate this functionality in C# w/ .Net 3.5. I have created the following very simple class in the file MyClass.cs: class MyClass { private string myName; public string MyName { get { return myName; } set { myName = value; } } public MyClass() { myName = "Allen"; } } I also created a simple form with 1 textbox and 1 button. I init'd one instance of Myclass inside the form code and built the project. Using the DataSource Wizard in Vs2008, i selected to create a data source based on object, and selected the MyClass assembly. This created a datasource entity. I changed the databinding of the textbox to this datasource; however, the expected result (that the textbox's contents would be "allen") was not achieved. Further, putting text into the textbox is not updating the name property of the object. I know i'm missing something fundamental here. At some point i should have to tie my instance of the MyClass class that i initialized inside the form code to the textbox, but that hasn't occurred. Everything i've looked at online seems to gloss over using DataBinding with an object (or i'm missing the mark entirely), so any help is great appreciated. ----Edit--- Utilizing what i learned by the answers, i looked at the code generated by Visual Studio, it had the following: this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = typeof(BindingTest.MyClass); if i comment that out and substitute : this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = new MyClass(); i get the expected behavior. Why is the default code generated by VS like it is? Assuming this is more correct than the method that works, how should i modify my code to work within the bounds of what VS generated?

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