Search Results

Search found 5872 results on 235 pages for 'authorize attribute'.

Page 205/235 | < Previous Page | 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212  | Next Page >

  • remove a duplicate element(with specific value) from xml using linq

    - by Q8Y
    If I have this xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <super> <A value="1234"> <a1 xx="000" yy="dddddd" /> <a1 xx="111" yy="eeeeee" /> <a1 xx="222" yy="ffffff"/> </A> </super> and I need to remove a1 element (that have xx=222) completely. why this won't happen using my code?? i realized that it will delete it only if it was placed the first element(i.e, if i want to delete a1 that have x=000 , it will delete it since its the first one), why is that?? what wrong with the code ?? var employee = from emp in element.Elements("A") where (string)emp.Element("a1").Attribute("xx") == "222" select emp.Element("a1"); foreach (var empployee_1 in employee) { empployee_1.Remove(); } element.Save(@"TheLocation"); thanks alot

    Read the article

  • SQLAlchemy sessions - DetachedInstanceError?

    - by benjaminhkaiser
    I have a function that attempts to take a list of usernames, look each one up in a user table, and then add them to a membership table. If even one username is invalid, I want the entire list to be rolled back, including any users that have already been processed. I thought that using sessions was the best way to do this but I'm running into a DetachedInstanceError: DetachedInstanceError: Instance <Organization at 0x7fc35cb5df90> is not bound to a Session; attribute refresh operation cannot proceed Full stack trace is here. The error seems to trigger when I attempt to access the user (model) object that is returned by the query. From my reading I understand that it has something to do with there being multiple sessions, but none of the suggestions I saw on other threads worked for me. Code is below: def add_members_in_bulk(organization_eid, users): """Add users to an organization in bulk - helper function for add_member()""" """Returns "success" on success and id of first failed student on failure""" session = query_session.get_session() session.begin_nested() users = users.split('\n') for u in users: try: user = user_lookup.by_student_id(u) except ObjectNotFoundError: session.rollback() return u if user: membership.add_user_to_organization( user.entity_id, organization_eid, '', [] ) session.flush() session.commit() return 'success' here's the membership.add_user_to_organization: def add_user_to_organization(user_eid, organization_eid, title, tag_ids): """Add a User to an Organization with the given title""" user = user_lookup.by_eid(user_eid) organization = organization_lookup.by_eid(organization_eid) new_membership = OrganizationMembership( organization_eid=organization.entity_id, user_eid=user.entity_id, title=title) new_membership.tags = [get_tag_by_id(tag_id) for tag_id in tag_ids] crud.add(new_membership) and here is the lookup by ID query: def by_student_id(student_id, include_disabled=False): """Get User by RIN""" try: return get_query_set(include_disabled).filter(User.student_id == student_id).one() except NoResultFound: raise ObjectNotFoundError("User with RIN %s does not exist." % student_id)

    Read the article

  • MSI install sequence - run DB scripts before services start

    - by marc_s
    Folks, we're running into some sequencing troubles with our MSI install. As part of our app, we install a bunch of services and allow the user to pick whether to start them right away or later. When they start right away, they seem to start too early in the install sequence - before our database manager had a chance to update the database. Right now, our custom action to run the database updater looks like this - it's being run after "InstallFinalize" - very late in the process. <InstallExecuteSequence> <RemoveExistingProducts After='InstallInitialize' /> <Custom Action='RunDbUpdateManagerAction' After='InstallFinalize'> DbUpdateManager=3</Custom> </InstallExecuteSequence> What would be the more appropriate step to run after or before, to make sure the DB scripts are executed before any of the installed services start up? Is there a "BeforeServiceStart" step? EDIT: Just defining the "Before='StartServices'" attribute on the tag didn't solve my problem. I am assuming the issue is this: the custom action has an "inner text", which represents a condition, and this condition is: "&DbUpdateManager=3". From what I can deduce from trial & error, this probably means "the DbUpdateManager feature must be published". Now, trouble is: "PublishFeature" comes way at the end in the install sequence, just before "InstallFinalize", and definitely AFTER InstallServices / StartServices. So when I specify the "Before=StartServices" requirement, the condition "DbUpdateManager feature must be published" isn't true yet, so the DbUpdateManager doesn't get executed :-( I tried removing the condition - in that case, my DbUpdateManager sometimes doesn't execute at all, sometimes more than once - no real clear pattern as to what happens when..... Any more ideas?? Is there a way I could check for a condition "the DbUpdateManager feature is installed" which would be true after the "InstallFiles" step?? Marc

    Read the article

  • Altering ManagedObjects In NSArray

    - by Garry
    I have an entity called 'Job' with two boolean attributes named 'completed' and 'logged'. I am trying to retrieve all completed jobs that have not been logged at app start-up and change them to logged. I'm able to get all the completed but unlogged jobs with this fetchRequest: NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(completed == %@ && logged == %@)", [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES], [NSNumber numberWithBool:NO]]; I'm then assigning this predicate to a fetchRequest and calling the [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest] method to get an array of all Job entities that meet this criteria. This seems to work fine and is returning the correct number of jobs. What I've been trying to do is loop through the NSArray returned, set the logged attribute to YES and then save. This seems to complete and doesn't return any errors but the changes are not persisted when the application quits. Where am I going wrong? [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSError error; NSArray jobsToLog = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; if ([jobsToLog count] > 0) { for (int i = 0; i < [jobsToLog count] - 1; i++) { [[jobsToLog objectAtIndex:i] setLogged:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES]]; // Commit the changes made to disk error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // An error occurred } } } Thanks in anticipation,

    Read the article

  • Reference to the Main Form whilst trying to Serialize objects in C#

    - by Paul Matthews
    I have a button on my main form which calls a method to serialize some objects to disk. I am trying to add these objects to an ArrayList and then serialize them using a BinaryFormatter and a FileStream. public void SerializeGAToDisk(string GenAlgName) { // Let's make a list that includes all the objects we // need to store a GA instance ArrayList GAContents = new ArrayList(); GAContents.Add(GenAlgInstances[GenAlgName]); // Structure and info for a GA GAContents.Add(RunningGAs[GenAlgName]); // There may be several running GA's using (FileStream fStream = new FileStream(GenAlgName + ".ga", FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None)) { BinaryFormatter binFormat = new BinaryFormatter(); binFormat.Serialize(fStream, GAContents); } } When running the above code I get the following exception: System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException was unhandled Message=Type 'WindowsFormsApplication1.Form1' in Assembly 'GeneticAlgApp, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is not marked as serializable. So that means that somewhere in the objects I'm trying to save there must be a reference to the main form. The only possible references I can see are 3 delegates which all point to methods in the main form code. Do delegates get serialized as well? I can't seem to apply the [NonSerialized] attribute to them. Is there anything else I might be missing? Even better, is there a quick method to find the reference(s) that are causing the problem?

    Read the article

  • send post data in jsf

    - by milostrivun
    I just cannot figure this out, it looks really simple but I'm relatively new at jsf. Here is the old stuff: Plain old html form tag like this: <form name="someForm" action="somewhere" method="post"> <input name="param1"/> <input name="param2" /> </form That is sending data by post to a location specified in the action attribute of the form. The new stuff: <h:form id="paymentForm"> <h:panelGroup> <h:inputText id="param1" value="#{facesView.param1}" ></h:inputText> <h:inputText id="param1" value="#{facesView.param2}" ></h:inputText> <h:panelGroup> <h:commandLink>Submit</h:commandLink> </h:panelGroup> </h:form> This other new stuff doesn't work. 1.How do I specify to this h:form where to go(like setting action in old html) because I need it to go to a totally new url. 2.how to pass params with POST? Any help is appreciated. Milos

    Read the article

  • CakePHP: Need help using saveField to update a fields in a belongsTo model

    - by afrisch
    I am trying to update a password into two different models/tables in CakePHP. I can update it fine in the parent model, but not the second model. Models: Users (hasOne GameProfile) PK=id Gameprofiles (belongsTo User) FK=user_id Here is a stripped down version of my function in the Users_controller.php: function updatepass() { if (!empty($this->data)) { $this->User->id = $this->Auth->user('id'); $this->User->saveField('sha1password', $this->Auth->password($this->data['User']['newpass'])); $this->User->Gameprofile->saveField('plainpassword', $this->data['User']['newpass']); } } When I execute the function, the users table is updated fine. But the gameprofile table is not updated, rather Cake does an insert. SQL Query Log: 1195 Query UPDATE `users` SET `sha1password` = 'e9443e9f5e1a07832aad1b2f84de1a666daf89b5' WHERE `users`.`id` = 30 1195 Query INSERT INTO `gameprofiles` (`plainpassword`) VALUES ('abc') Is there a way to get CakePHP to do an update using saveField on a model with a belongsTo attribute? I've tried various ways to refer to user_id before executing the second saveField, but just can't seem to find the winning combination. Any help is greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • why does setting stderr=subprocess.STDOUT fix a subprocess.check_output call?

    - by ShankarG
    I have a python script running on a small server that is called in three different ways - from within another python script, by cron, or by gammu-smsd (an SMS daemon with the wonderful mobile utility [gammu]). The script is for maintenance and contained the following kludge to measure used space on the system (presumably this is possible from within Python, but this was quick and dirty): reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], shell=True)[0:-1] Oddly enough this line would only fail when the script was called by a shell script running from gammu-smsd. The line would fail with a CalledProcessError exception saying "returned exit status 2", even though the output attribute of the CalledProcessError object contained the correct output. The only command in the sequence of shell commands that would give such an error status would be awk, with status 2 indicating a fatal error. If the python script with this line was called by cron, by another python script, or from the command line, this line would work fine. I broke my head trying to fix the environment for the script, thinking this must be the problem. Finally though I put in stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, like so: reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, shell=True)[0:-1] This was a debug measure to help me figure out if some output was coming on stderr. But after this the script started working, even when called from gammu-smsd! Why might this be the case? I ask for future reference when using subprocess...

    Read the article

  • Jquery Apache - IE problem

    - by Soldierflup
    I'm having a button tag on my page with a value. <button class='btn' value='value'>show value</button> I have this jquery code : $('.btn').click(function() { var w = 'value = '+$(this).val()+' / text = '+$(this).html(); alert(w); }); In FF, no problem the result is ok (display: value = value / text = show value). The problem comes with IE8 which displays a different results from my testing server and the production server. The testing server is my local machine with a standard XAMPP installation. The productionserver is a server based on linux with apache, php and mysql. Result from the testing server is ok (display like FF), the result from the production server is not good (displaying : value = show value / text : show value). Anyone an idea if it is apache that causes the error ? I know there are some issues with the use of val() because IE is considering it as an attribute and not a value. The problem is that changing the jQuery from val() to attr('value') is quit a lot of work (this implementation is already on a lot of pages) and I think it could be much easier to change something on the webserver.

    Read the article

  • asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

    - by David Liddle
    I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

    Read the article

  • Setting <td> value using jquery

    - by timk
    Hello, I have the div structure shown below. For the second <td> in the table i want to replace &nbsp; with a hyperlink whose href attribute is stored in the variable myLink. How can i do this with jquery ? Please help. Thank You. <div class="pbHeader"> <table cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0" border="0"> <tbody> <tr> <td class="pbTitle"> <h2 class="mainTitle">Transfer Membership</h2> </td> <td> &nbsp; </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> </div>

    Read the article

  • How can I timeout Client-scoped variables in Coldfusion?

    - by Joshua Carmody
    I apologize if this is a "duh" question. It seems like the answer should be easily googleable, but I haven't found it yet. I am working on a large Coldfusion application that stores a large amount of session/user data in the Client scope (ie <cfset Client.UserName = "JoshuaC"> ). I did not write this application, and I don't have the luxury of significantly refactoring it. I've been given the task of setting the Client variables to time out after 72 hours. I'm not entirely sure how to do this. If I had written the application, I would have stored the variables in the Session scope, and then changed the sessiontimeout attribute of the CFAPPLICATION tag. As it is though, I'm not sure if that timeout affects the Client variables, or what their level of persistence is. The way the application works now, the Client variables never time out, and only clearing the user's cookies, or visiting a logout page which sets all the Client-scoped application variables to "", will clear the values. Of course, I could create some kind of timestamp variable like Client.LastAccessDateTime, and put something in the Application.cfm to clear the client variables if that datetime is more than 72 hours prior to Now(). But there's got to be a better way, right?

    Read the article

  • Is MarshalByRefObject special?

    - by Vilx-
    .NET has a thing called remoting where you can pass objects around between separate appdomains or even physical machines. I don't fully understand how the magic is done, hence this question. In remoting there are two base ways of passing objects around - either they can be serialized (converted to a bunch of bytes and the rebuilt at the other end) or they can inherit from MarshalByRefObject, in which case .NET makes some transparent proxies and all method calls are forwarded back to the original instance. This is pretty cool and works like magic. And I don't like magic in programming. Looking at the MarshalByRefObject with the Reflector I don't see anything that would set it apart from any other typical object. Not even a weird internal attribute or anything. So how is the whole transparent proxy thing organized? Can I make such a mechanism myself? Can I make an alternate MyMarshalByRefObject which would not inherit from MarshalByRefObject but would still act the same? Or is MarshalByRefObject receiving some special treatment by the .NET engine itself and the whole remoting feat is non-duplicatable by mere mortals?

    Read the article

  • JavaScript - Efficiently find all elements containing one of a large set of strings

    - by noah
    I have a set of strings and I need to find all all of the occurrences in an HTML document. Where the string occurs is important because I need to handle each case differently: String is all or part of an attribute. e.g., the string is foo: <input value="foo"> - Add class ATTR to the element. String is the full text of an element. e.g., <button>foo</button> - Add class TEXT to the element. String is inline in the text of an element. e.g., <p>I love foo</p> - Wrap the text in a span tag with class TEXT. Also, I need to match the longest string first. e.g., if I have foo and foobar, then <p>I love foobar</p> should become <p>I love <span class="TEXT">foobar</span></p>, not <p>I love <span class="TEXT">foo</span>bar</p>. The inline text is easy enough: Sort the strings descending by length and find and replace each in document.body.innerHTML with <span class="TEXT">$1</span>, although I'm not sure if that is the most efficient way to go. For the attributes, I can do something like this: sortedStrings.each(function(it) { document.body.innerHTML.replace(new RegExp('(\S+?)="[^"]*'+escapeRegExChars(it)+'[^"]*"','g'),function(s,attr) { $('[+attr+'*='+it+']').addClass('ATTR'); }); }); Again, that seems inefficient. Lastly, for the full text elements, a depth first search of the document that compares the innerHTML to each string will work, but for a large number of strings, it seems very inefficient. Any answer that offers performance improvements gets an upvote :)

    Read the article

  • Safari specific scroll bar issue in legacy code

    - by user1237169
    I am trying to debug an issue that is occurring specifically in Safari. On a few pages of a web application, the content is larger than the frame and a scroll bar appears on the right but when the scroll bar moves up or down the content does not scroll with it. So you can "scroll" the scroll bar but the content itself was inaccessible even though the scroll bar was mobile. The issue only occurs in the "Multi-Process Windows" debug mode option but not in the "Single-Process Windows" option. The scroll bar works perfectly fine in Firefox, IE, and Chrome, just not in Safari. Because there's a lot of legacy code, I'm not quite sure exactly what the actual content is and which specific html elements are relevant. From what I can tell there's an Iframe element, html element, body element, div element, iframe element html element, body element and finally some divs. edit Does it matter if some of the elements within the <iframe> have the attribute scrolling="no"? I see this on a few of the elements within iframe but my coworker reassures me they don't matter.

    Read the article

  • What is the best / proper idiom in django for modifying a field during a .save() where you need to o

    - by MDBGuy
    Hi, say I've got: class LogModel(models.Model): message = models.CharField(max_length=512) class Assignment(models.Model): someperson = models.ForeignKey(SomeOtherModel) def save(self, *args, **kwargs): super(Assignment, self).save() old_person = #????? LogModel(message="%s is no longer assigned to %s"%(old_person, self).save() LogModel(message="%s is now assigned to %s"%(self.someperson, self).save() My goal is to save to LogModel some messages about who Assignment was assigned to. Notice that I need to know the old, presave value of this field. I have seen code that suggests, before super().save(), retrieve the instance from the database via primary key and grab the old value from there. This could work, but is a bit messy. In addition, I plan to eventually split this code out of the .save() method via signals - namely pre_save() and post_save(). Trying to use the above logic (Retrieve from the db in pre_save, make the log entry in post_save) seemingly fails here, as pre_save and post_save are two seperate methods. Perhaps in pre_save I can retrieve the old value and stick it on the model as an attribute? I was wondering if there was a common idiom for this. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Dynamic editor upload into web page. Need advice

    - by Andrew Florko
    Hello everybody, I am writing intranet site for tracking employees science activities in organization. There lots of editable information on each personal page (science degree, publications & so on) so I upload editor per request (user clicks "edit" and modal dialog with html editor: set of textboxes/comboboxes/autocomplete features & validation logic appears). Editor is html layout that is wrapped with jquery dialog plugin + some logic, written as javascript functions that should be invoked from the callee page (onsubmit, validate, afterLoad editor events). There are also attributes (editor preferrable with and height) that are passed to callee page also. Currently I send these functions & attribute as ... function onsubmit() { }; function validate() { } var width = 640; var height = 800 ... code that is embedded into the request page. Function calls and editor markup wrap with jquery plugin completed in the callee page. It works, but I have some try { call editor event handler } catch { } stuff in callee page (because not every editor provides these functions) and some attributes (editor width & height for instance) that are loaded as variables declared in javascript. Please, suggest, is there a better approach to build & use custom editors for my situation. Thank you in advance!

    Read the article

  • Manually wiring up unobtrusive jquery validation client-side without Model/Data Annotations, MVC3

    - by cmorganmcp
    After searching and experimenting for 2 days I relent. What I'd like to do is manually wire up injected html with jquery validation. I'm getting a simple string array back from the server and creating a select with the strings as options. The static fields on the form are validating fine. I've been trying the following: var dates = $("<select id='ShiftDate' data-val='true' data-val-required='Please select a date'>"); dates.append("<option value=''>-Select a Date-</option>"); for (var i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { dates.append("<option value='" + data[i] + "'>" + data[i] + "</option>"); } $("fieldset", addShift).append($("<p>").append("<label for='ShiftDate'>Shift Date</label>\r").append(dates).append("<span class='field-validation-valid' data-valmsg-for='ShiftDate' data-valmsg-replace='true'></span>")); // I tried the code below as well instead of adding the data-val attributes and span manually with no luck dates.rules("add", { required: true, messages: { required: "Please select a date" } }); // Thought this would do it when I came across several posts but it didn't $.validator.unobtrusive.parse(dates.closest("form")); I know I could create a view model ,decorate it with a required attribute, create a SelectList server-side and send that, but it's more of a "how would I do this" situation now. Can anyone shed light on why the above code wouldn't work as I expect? -chad

    Read the article

  • Jquery toggle event is messing with checkbox value

    - by John McCollum
    Hi all, I'm using Jquery's toggle event to do some stuff when a user clicks a checkbox, like this: $('input#myId').toggle( function(){ //do stuff }, function(){ //do other stuff } ); The problem is that the checkbox isn't being ticked when I click on the checkbox. (All the stuff I've put into the toggle event is working properly.) I've tried the following: $('input#myId').attr('checked', 'checked'); and $(this).attr('checked', 'checked'); and even simply return true; But nothing is working. Can anyone tell me where I'm going wrong? Edit - thanks to all who replied. Dreas' answer very nearly worked for me, except for the part that checked the attribute. This works perfectly (although it's a bit hacky) $('input#myInput').change(function () { if(!$(this).hasClass("checked")) { //do stuff if the checkbox isn't checked $(this).addClass("checked"); return; } //do stuff if the checkbox isn't checked $(this).removeClass('checked'); }); Thanks again to all who replied.

    Read the article

  • Behavior difference between UIView.subviews and [NSView subviews]

    - by zpasternack
    I have a piece of code in an iPhone app, which removes all subviews from a UIView subclass. It looks like this: NSArray* subViews = self.subviews; for( UIView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } This works fine. In fact, I never really gave it much thought until I tried nearly the same thing in a Mac OS X app (from an NSView subclass): NSArray* subViews = [self subviews]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } That totally doesn’t work. Specifically, at runtime, I get this: *** Collection <NSCFArray: 0x1005208a0> was mutated while being enumerated. I ended up doing it like so: NSArray* subViews = [[self subviews] copy]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } [subViews release]; That's fine. What’s bugging me, though, is why does it work on the iPhone? subviews is a copy property: @property(nonatomic,readonly,copy) NSArray *subviews; My first thought was, maybe @synthesize’d getters return a copy when the copy attribute is specified. The doc is clear on the semantics of copy for setters, but doesn’t appear to say either way for getters (or at least, it’s not apparent to me). And actually, doing a few tests of my own, this clearly does not seem to be the case. Which is good, I think returning a copy would be problematic, for a few reasons. So the question is: how does the above code work on the iPhone? NSView is clearly returning a pointer to the actual array of subviews, and perhaps UIView isn’t. Perhaps it’s simply an implementation detail of UIView, and I shouldn’t get worked up about it. Can anyone offer any insight?

    Read the article

  • Web Reference Code generator template.

    - by Bluephlame
    I Have an internal SOAP Web service that is being called from an external REST service in .NET it works fine however I am simply passing through the SOAP objects of the REST Layer but the automatic generation of the WebReference Code in Visual Studio adds the 'field' to the end of every attribute. basically it makes my XML look all nasty. Everything works I just want to clean up my XML. Any ideas how i can change the template for the reference.cs or to make the XML generate nicely from the Web Service Objects. Here is an example of the reference.cs public int HeadLeft { get { return this.headLeftField; } set { this.headLeftField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadTop { get { return this.headTopField; } set { this.headTopField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadWidth { get { return this.headWidthField; } set { this.headWidthField = value; } } Here is an examle of the XML <a:headHeightField>208</a:headHeightField> <a:headLeftField>316</a:headLeftField> <a:headTopField>103</a:headTopField> <a:headWidthField>161</a:headWidthField>

    Read the article

  • How do I debug JavaScript .onlick event?

    - by user3700824
    I'm learning JavaScript but seem to be having a problem. I have a piece of code that is executed when the page is fully loaded. The function then gathers all the button elements on my HTML page. From here I loop through getting each button's title attribute and then assign an onclick event to the button that is equal to a function that writes to the console.log with the title. I have tried various ways of doing this but it is not working. Here is the JavaScript code that I'm working with. Currently all it does is loop through calling the function and logging the tile to the console.log, but this is not supposed to happen. Each time I click the button it should call the function with its title and log that. window.onload = myPageIsReady; function myPageIsReady(){ var myList = document.getElementsByTagName("button"); var myTitle = []; for(var i = 0; i < myList.length; i++){ myTitle[i] = myList[i].getAttribute("title"); myList[i].onclick = getMyTitle(myTitle[i]); }; function getMyTitle(myTitle){ console.log(myTitle); }; };

    Read the article

  • MySql "comments" parameter as descriptor?

    - by Nick
    So, I'm trying to learn a lot at once, and this place is really helpful! I'm making a little running log website for myself and maybe a few other people, and I have it so that the user can add workouts for each day. With each workout, I have a variety of information the user can fill out for the workout, such as running distance, time, quality of run, course, etc... I store this in a MySql database as a table with fields titled "distance", "time", "runquality", etc... Now, these field titles don't match up with what I want displayed on the running log, so I was thinking of using the "Comments" attribute for a field to store its human-readable title--thus the field "runquality" would have "Quality of run" as its comment, and then I would pull the comment with a SQL query and display it instead of the field name. Is this a good theoretical/practical way of going about it? And what sort of SQL would I use to pull the comment for the field anyway? Secondly, suppose I want to add the ability for the user to create their own workout descriptors. So say a user wants to add a "temperature" descriptor for their workout. Should I create a script that adds fields to my workout table, or should I create a separate table listing only workout descriptors and somehow link the descriptor table with the "contents" table? I haven't learned any theory about database design or anything so any help is appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Mapping relationships from multiple databases in NHibernate

    - by mannish
    I have a multi-database application configured with NHibernate. The entities that correspond to tables from each database are in their own separate assemblies (an assembly per database if you will). I have a need/desire to relate an entity from one database to an entity of another database. Everything up to this point works as I want it to (the application handles multiple session factories, etc.). The relationship I want is many-to-one, but in reality my application only cares about one side of the relationship (for reasons that aren't relevant). The relevant entities are Project and PMProject, where a Project HAS A PMProject. When I map the many-to-one, I get the following error: NHibernate.MappingException: An association from the table PROJECTS refers to an unmapped class: SDMS.PPRM.PMProject The Project mapping itself reads (ignore the funky column naming; it's an Oracle db): <many-to-one name="PMProject" class="SDMS.PPRM.PMProject" column="PM_PROJECT_ID" cascade="none" /> In the class attribute, I'm referencing the appropriate assembly, but I get that error which seems to tell me it simply can't find the mapping file for PMProject. But that file exists (it's set as embedded resource), the session factory instantiation works without fail; so I'm at a loss on how to tell the Project mapping how/where to look for the appropriate mapping. Is there something I'm missing? A better way to go about this? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • figuring out which field to look for a value in with SQL and perl

    - by Micah
    I'm not too good with SQL and I know there's probably a much more efficient way to accomplish what I'm doing here, so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance for your input! I'm writing a short program for the local school high school. At this school, juniors and seniors who have driver's licenses and cars can opt to drive to school rather than ride the bus. Each driver is assigned exactly one space, and their DLN is used as the primary key of the driver's table. Makes, models, and colors of cars are stored in a separate cars table, related to the drivers table by the License plate number field. My idea is to have a single search box on the main GUI of the program where the school secretary can type in who/what she's looking for and pull up a list of results. Thing is, she could be typing a license plate number, a car color, make, and model, someone driver's name, some student driver's DLN, or a space number. As the programmer, I don't know what exactly she's looking for, so a couple of options come to mind for me to build to be certain I check everywhere for a match: 1) preform a couple of SELECT * FROM [tablename] SQL statements, one per table and cram the results into arrays in my program, then search across the arrays one element at a time with regex, looking for a matched pattern similar to the search term, and if I find one, add the entire record that had a match in it to a results array to display on screen at the end of the search. 2) take whatever she's looking for into the program as a scaler and prepare multiple select statements around it, such as SELECT * FROM DRIVERS WHERE DLN = $Search_Variable SELECT * FROM DRIVERS WHERE First_Name = $Search_Variable SELECT * FROM CARS WHERE LICENSE = $Search_Variable and so on for each attribute of each table, sticking the results into a results array to show on screen when the search is done. Is there a cleaner way to go about this lookup without having to make her specify exactly what she's looking for? Possibly some kind of SQL statement I've never seen before?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212  | Next Page >