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  • Uploadify not working with ASP.NET WebForms

    - by João Guilherme
    Hi ! I'm trying to use Uploadify in a ASP.NET webforms project. The problem is that my script is not calling the generic handler. Here is the script. <input id="fileInput" name="fileInput" type="file" /> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#fileInput').uploadify({ 'uploader': '/Ferramenta/Comum/Uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'script': 'UploadTest.ashx', 'cancelImg': '/Ferramenta/Comum/Uploadify/cancel.png', 'folder': "/Ferramenta/Geral/", 'auto': true, 'onError': function(event, queueID, fileObj, errorObj) { alert('error'); }, 'onComplete': function(event, queueID, fileObj, response, data) { alert('complete'); }, 'buttonText' : 'Buscar Arquivos' }); }); </script> This is the code of the generic handler (just to test) using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Services; using System.IO; namespace Tree.Ferramenta.Geral { public class UploadTest : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { context.Response.Write("1"); } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } } } Any ideas ? Thanks !

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  • HtmlAgilityPack giving problems with malformed html

    - by Kapil
    I want to extract meaningful text out of an html document and I was using html-agility-pack for the same. Here is my code: string convertedContent = HttpUtility.HtmlDecode(ConvertHtml(HtmlAgilityPack.HtmlEntity.DeEntitize(htmlAsString))); ConvertHtml: public string ConvertHtml(string html) { HtmlDocument doc = new HtmlDocument(); doc.LoadHtml(html); StringWriter sw = new StringWriter(); ConvertTo(doc.DocumentNode, sw); sw.Flush(); return sw.ToString(); } ConvertTo: public void ConvertTo(HtmlAgilityPack.HtmlNode node, TextWriter outText) { string html; switch (node.NodeType) { case HtmlAgilityPack.HtmlNodeType.Comment: // don't output comments break; case HtmlAgilityPack.HtmlNodeType.Document: foreach (HtmlNode subnode in node.ChildNodes) { ConvertTo(subnode, outText); } break; case HtmlAgilityPack.HtmlNodeType.Text: // script and style must not be output string parentName = node.ParentNode.Name; if ((parentName == "script") || (parentName == "style")) break; // get text html = ((HtmlTextNode)node).Text; // is it in fact a special closing node output as text? if (HtmlNode.IsOverlappedClosingElement(html)) break; // check the text is meaningful and not a bunch of whitespaces if (html.Trim().Length > 0) { outText.Write(HtmlEntity.DeEntitize(html) + " "); } break; case HtmlAgilityPack.HtmlNodeType.Element: switch (node.Name) { case "p": // treat paragraphs as crlf outText.Write("\r\n"); break; } if (node.HasChildNodes) { foreach (HtmlNode subnode in node.ChildNodes) { ConvertTo(subnode, outText); } } break; } } Now in some cases when the html pages are malformed (for example the following page - http://rareseeds.com/cart/products/Purple_of_Romagna_Artichoke-646-72.html has a malformed meta-tag like <meta content="text/html; charset=uft-8" http-equiv="Content-Type">) [Note "uft" instead of utf] my code is puking at the time I am trying to load the html document. Can someone suggest me how can I overcome these malformed html pages and still extract relevant text out of a html document? Thanks, Kapil

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  • Multiple overlay items in android

    - by Bostjan
    I seem to be having a problem with using ItemizedOverlay and OveralyItems in it. I can get the first overlayItem to appear on the map but not any items after that. Code sample is on: http://www.anddev.org/multiple_overlay_items-t12171.html Quick overview here: public class Markers extends ItemizedOverlay { private Context ctx; private ArrayList<OverlayItem> mOverlays = new ArrayList<OverlayItem>(); public Markers(Drawable defaultMarker, Context cont) { super(boundCenterBottom(defaultMarker)); this.ctx = cont; // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub } @Override protected OverlayItem createItem(int i) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return mOverlays.get(i); } @Override public boolean onTap(GeoPoint p, MapView mapView) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return super.onTap(p, mapView); } @Override protected boolean onTap(int index) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Toast.makeText(this.ctx, mOverlays.get(index).getTitle().toString()+", Latitude: "+mOverlays.get(index).getPoint().getLatitudeE6(), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); return super.onTap(index); } @Override public int size() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return mOverlays.size(); } public void addOverlay(OverlayItem item) { mOverlays.add(item); setLastFocusedIndex(-1); populate(); } public void clear() { mOverlays.clear(); setLastFocusedIndex(-1); populate(); }} Markers usersMarker = new Markers(user,overview.this); GeoPoint p = new GeoPoint((int) (lat * 1E6),(int) (lon * 1E6)); OverlayItem item = new OverlayItem(p,userData[0],userData[3]); item.setMarker(this.user); usersMarker.addOverlay(item); The lines after the class are just samples of how it's used the first marker shows up on the map but if I add any more they don't show up? Is there a problem with the populate() method? I tried calling it manually after adding all markers but it still didn't help. Please, if you have any idea what could be wrong, say so.

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  • Jmock mock DAO object

    - by Gandalf StormCrow
    Hi all, I wrote a method that retrieves certain list of strings, given a correct string key. Now when I create a list(the one to be retrieved by method descibed in previous sentence) and create test I can easily get results and test passes successfully. Now on the other hand if I save the content of this list to database in 2 columns, key and value I wrote a class which retrieves this items with method inside it. And when I print it out to console the expected results are correct, now I initialize my DAO from application context where inside its bean it gets session and because of DAO works. Now I'm trying to write a test which will mock the DAO, because I'm running test localy not on the server .. so I told jmock to mock it : private MyDAO myDAO; in the setup() myDAO = context.mock(MyDAO.class); I think I'm mocking it correctly or not, how can I mock this data from database? what is the best way? Is there somewhere good Jmock documentation? on their official site its not very good and clear, you have to know what you seek in order to find it, can't discover something cool in the mean time.

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  • Validating DataAnnotations with Validator class

    - by Pablote
    I'm trying to validate a class decorated with dataannotation with the Validator class. It works fine when the attributes are applied to the same class. But when I try to use a metadata class it doesn't work. Is there anything I should do with the Validator so it uses the metadata class? Here's some code.. this works: public class Persona { [Required(AllowEmptyStrings = false, ErrorMessage = "El nombre es obligatorio")] public string Nombre { get; set; } [Range(0, int.MaxValue, ErrorMessage="La edad no puede ser negativa")] public int Edad { get; set; } } this doesnt work: [MetadataType(typeof(Persona_Validation))] public class Persona { public string Nombre { get; set; } public int Edad { get; set; } } public class Persona_Validation { [Required(AllowEmptyStrings = false, ErrorMessage = "El nombre es obligatorio")] public string Nombre { get; set; } [Range(0, int.MaxValue, ErrorMessage = "La edad no puede ser negativa")] public int Edad { get; set; } } this is how I validate the instances: ValidationContext context = new ValidationContext(p, null, null); List<ValidationResult> results = new List<ValidationResult>(); bool valid = Validator.TryValidateObject(p, context, results, true); thanks.

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  • Android Scan for Wifi networks

    - by Nils
    Hello, I'm trying to scan for wireless networks and found this helpful source on the net. Unfortunately it's not working and I have no idea why. My problem is that I can't wait 10 minutes for the result - I need them within a few seconds and thought about setting the boolean variable waiting on false as soon as I get a result.... well, it runs forever ... looks like nothing is received. Any idea ? Thanks. // -- Sample WiFi implementation - http://groups.google.com/group/android-developers/browse_thread/thread/f722d5f90cfae69 IntentFilter i = new IntentFilter(); i.addAction(WifiManager.SCAN_RESULTS_AVAILABLE_ACTION); registerReceiver(new BroadcastReceiver(){ @Override public void onReceive(Context c, Intent i){ // Code to execute when SCAN_RESULTS_AVAILABLE_ACTION event occurs mWifiManager = (WifiManager) c.getSystemService(Context.WIFI_SERVICE); wireless = mWifiManager.getScanResults(); // Returns a <list> of scanResults waiting = false; } } ,i); // -- End Wifi Sample mWifiManager.startScan(); while (waiting) { try { Thread.sleep(200); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } Log.d("PROJECT1","Wifi WAITING"); }

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  • Click in a ListView item changes status of elements inside the item?

    - by Antonio
    Hi, I don't know exactly how to explain this problem, but I'll try. I have a ListView with several items. Each item has inside a TextView and two ImageView. I want the ImageView change when I click on them, and I want to open a context menu when I press for a long time into the ListView item. For the ImageView, everything works properly. For the whole item, I can show the context menu after a long press, but my problem is that the ImageView changes as well when I am pressing the TextView, for example. Somo pieces of my code: ListView item: <TextView android:id="@+id/title" android:textColor="@color/black" android:maxLines="2" android:textSize="14dip" /> <ImageView android:id="@+id/minus" android:src="@drawable/minusbutton" android:adjustViewBounds="true" android:gravity="center" /> <ImageView android:id="@+id/plus" android:src="@drawable/plusbutton" android:adjustViewBounds="true" android:gravity="center" /> Drawable to change the status of the plus button: <selector xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:state_enabled="false" android:drawable="@drawable/button_add_normal_disabled" /> <item android:state_enabled="true" android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/button_add_pressed" /> <item android:state_enabled="true" android:state_focused="true" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/button_add_active" /> <item android:state_enabled="true" android:state_focused="false" android:state_pressed="false" android:drawable="@drawable/button_add_normal" /> I hope you understand my problem. I think that all the children of a view are affected by an event in the parent, but I am not sure. Do you have a solution? Thanks in advance

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  • WPF Toolkit Charting and IndependentValueBinding, IndependentValuePath

    - by Joel Barsotti
    So I'm having a problem with the charting engine from the WPF toolkit. We haven't moved our data to a proper object model, so the ItemSource is backed with a DataView. First attempt <chartingToolkit:ScatterSeries x:Name="TargetSeries" DataPointStyle="{StaticResource TargetStyle}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=TargetSeriesData}" IndependentValueBinding="{Binding Path=TargetSeries_X}" DependentValueBinding="{Binding Path=TargetSeries_X}" /> This crashes because, I believe, it thinks the bindings are the values to plot or some sort of mismatch. Second attempt <chartingToolkit:ScatterSeries x:Name="TargetSeries" DataPointStyle="{StaticResource TargetStyle}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=TargetSeriesData}" IndependentValuePath="{Binding Path=TargetSeries_X}" DependentValuePath="{Binding Path=TargetSeries_X}" /> This crashes during the init step becaue the Path properties aren't backed with dependency properties and therefore cannot be bound. Third attempt <chartingToolkit:ScatterSeries x:Name="TargetSeries" DataPointStyle="{StaticResource TargetStyle}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=TargetSeriesData}" IndependentValuePath="targetFooXColumnName" DependentValuePath="targetFooYColumnName" /> Now this works! But I wanted to use the binding so I can switch from using the targetFooXColumnName to the targetFooBarXColumnName. So this solution will cause a whole lot of hacky looking code to switch the Path's manually. Anyway to fix this? Can I use some sort of convertor to get the Binding properties to correctly pull the data from the columns in the DataView? Thanks, Joel

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  • Facebooker Causing Problems with Rails Integration Testing

    - by Eric Lubow
    I am (finally) attempting to write some integration tests for my application (because every deploy is getting scarier). Since testing is a horribly documented feature of Rails, this was the best I could get going with shoulda. class DeleteBusinessTest < ActionController::IntegrationTest context "log skydiver in and" do setup do @skydiver = Factory( :skydiver ) @skydiver_session = SkydiverSession.create(@skydiver) @biz = Factory( :business, :ownership = Factory(:ownership, :skydiver = @skydiver )) end context "delete business" do setup do @skydiver_session = SkydiverSession.find post '/businesses/destroy', :id = @biz.id end should_redirect_to('businesses_path()'){businesses_path()} end end end In theory, this test seems like it should pass. My factories seem like they are pushing the right data in: Factory.define :skydiver do |s| s.sequence(:login) { |n| "test#{n}" } s.sequence(:email) { |n| "test#{n}@example.com" } s.crypted_password '1805986f044ced38691118acfb26a6d6d49be0d0' s.password 'secret' s.password_confirmation { |u| u.password } s.salt 'aowgeUne1R4-F6FFC1ad' s.firstname 'Test' s.lastname 'Salt' s.nickname 'Mr. Password Testy' s.facebook_user_id '507743444' end The problem I am getting seems to be from Facebooker only seems to happen on login attempts. When the test runs, I am getting the error: The error occurred while evaluating nil.set_facebook_session. I believe that error is to be expected in a certain sense since I am not using Facebook here for this session. Can anyone provide any insight as to how to either get around this or at least help me out with what is going wrong?

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  • Maintaining ISAPI Rewrite Path with the ASP.NET tilde (~)

    - by Adam
    My team is upgrading from ASP.NET 3.5 to ASP.NET 4.0. We are currently using Helicon ISAPI Rewrite to map http://localhost/<account-name>/default.aspx to http://localhost/<virtual-directory>/default.aspx?AccountName=<account-name> where <account-name> is a query string variable and <virtual-directory> is a virtual directory (naturally). Before the upgrade the tilde (~) resolved to http://localhost/<account-name>/... (which I want it to do) and after the upgrade the tilde resolves to http://localhost/<virtual-directory>/... which results in an error because the <account-name> query string is required. I'd like to avoid going down the road of replacing everything with relative paths because there are several features in our system that use the entire URL instead of just the relative path. For what it's worth I'm using IIS7 in Windows 7, Visual Studio 2010 with ASP.NET 4.0 and the 64 bit Helicon ISAPI Rewrite. If I switch back to the ASP.NET 3.5 version then it still works fine (leading me to believe nothing changed in IIS unless it's within the 4.0 app pool - when I switch back and forth between 3.5 and 4.0 I have to change the app pool in IIS). Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

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  • Setting up multiple channel types (AMF/AMFX) for Flex/BlazeDs

    - by Fergal
    We've configured our Flex client to have two channels for calling our services via BlazeDS. One channel is configured to use AMFChannel and the other for HTTPChannel. Here's the services-config.xml <channel-definition id="my-amf" class="mx.messaging.channels.AMFChannel"> <endpoint url="http://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/data/messagebroker/amf" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.AMFEndpoint" /> <properties> <polling-enabled>false</polling-enabled> </properties> </channel-definition> <channel-definition id="my-amfx" class="mx.messaging.channels.HTTPChannel"> <endpoint url="http://{server.name}:{server.port}/{context.root}/data/messagebroker/amfx" class="flex.messaging.endpoints.HTTPEndpoint" /> <properties> <polling-enabled>false</polling-enabled> </properties> </channel-definition> Our flex client is written to use either AMF or AMFX depending on how we configure it. The problem is that although the client can switch between channels it sends an AMF binary payload when attempting to call services via AMFX (expecting XML). The funny thing is that we can write services-config.xml to use either AMF or AMFX individually but Flex doesn't seem to want to let us use both. Is this a bug in Flex? If not how can we get it to use the correct protocol?

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  • Get variables in c# from ajax call

    - by fzshah76
    I've got an Ajax call for log in here is the code: //if MOUSE class is clicked $('.mouse').click(function () { //get the form to submit and return a message //how to call the function var name = $('#name').val(); var pwd2 = $('#pwd2').val(); $.ajax({ type:"POST", url: "http://localhost:51870/code/Login.aspx", data: "{ 'name':'" + $('#name').val() + "', 'pwd':'" + $('#pwd2').val() + "' }", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", context: document.body, success: function () { //$(this).addClass("done"); $(this).hide(); $('.mouse, .window').hide(); } }); }); the problem is I can't seem to catch name and pwd variables in Login page's preinit event or page load event here is the code in c#: protected void Page_PreInit(object sender, EventArgs e) { //taking javascript argument in preinit event //from here I'll have to build the page for specific lookbook var name = Request.QueryString["name"]; var pwd = Request.QueryString["pwd"]; } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { var name = Request.QueryString["name"]; var pwd = Request.QueryString["pwd"]; SignIn(name); } I can't seem to get username name and password in c# side, help is appreciated. Here is my final javascript code c# code remains the same: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { //if MOUSE class is clicked $('.mouse').click(function () { var name = $('#name').val(); var pwd = $('#pwd').val(); $.ajax({ url: "http://localhost:51870/code/Login.aspx?name="+ name +"&pwd="+pwd, context: document.body, success: function () { //$(this).addClass("done"); $(this).hide(); $('.mouse, .window').hide(); } }); }); }); </script> Thanks Zachary

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  • reCAPTCHA Ajax API + custom theme not working

    - by Felix
    I can't see where I'm going wrong. I've tried everything I could think of, reCAPTCHA is just not working with the Ajax API. Here's what my code looks like: <!-- this is in <head> --> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://api.recaptcha.net/js/recaptcha_ajax.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { Recaptcha.create("my key here", "recaptcha_widget", { "theme": "custom", "lang": "en", "callback": function() { console.log("callback"); } // this doesn't get called }); }); </script> <!-- ... this is in <body> --> <div id="recaptcha_widget" style="display: none"> <div id="recaptcha_image"></div> <div id="recaptcha_links"> <a href="javascript:Recaptcha.reload()">get another</a> &bull; <a class="recaptcha_only_if_image" href="javascript:Recaptcha.switch_type('audio')">switch to audio</a> <a class="recaptcha_only_if_audio" href="javascript:Recaptcha.switch_type('image')">switch to image</a> &bull; <a href="javascript:Recaptcha.showhelp()">help</a> </div> <dt>Type the words</dt> <dd><input type="text" id="recaptcha_response_field" name="recaptcha_response_field"></dd> </div>

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  • Using an existing IQueryable to create a new dynamic IQueryable

    - by dnoxs
    I have a query as follows: var query = from x in context.Employees where (x.Salary > 0 && x.DeptId == 5) || x.DeptId == 2 order by x.Surname select x; The above is the original query and returns let's say 1000 employee entities. I would now like to use the first query to deconstruct it and recreate a new query that would look like this: var query = from x in context.Employees where ((x.Salary > 0 && x.DeptId == 5) || x.DeptId == 2) && (x,i) i % 10 == 0 order by x.Surname select x.Surname; This query would return 100 surnames. The syntax is probably incorrect, but what I need to do is attach an additional where clause and modify the select to a single field. I've been looking into the ExpressionVisitor but I'm not entirely sure how to create a new query based on an existing query. Any guidance would be appreciated. Thanks you.

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  • MDA BindingFailure detected

    - by Vnuk
    WebForms web site upon first launch from VS2008 throws this exception on my dev machine, after clicking continue everything works. Also, everything works on server when deployed. What is this VJSharpCodeProvider, why is it being loaded in vb.net project and why did it start happening all of a sudden? The assembly with display name 'VJSharpCodeProvider' failed to load in the 'LoadFrom' binding context of the AppDomain with ID 2. The cause of the failure was: System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. File name: 'VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a' === Pre-bind state information === LOG: User = quad7\devuser LOG: DisplayName = VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a (Fully-specified) LOG: Appbase = file:///C:/dev/ins/ LOG: Initial PrivatePath = C:\dev\ins\bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). === LOG: This bind starts in default load context. LOG: Using application configuration file: C:\dev\ins\web.config LOG: Using machine configuration file from C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\config\machine.config. LOG: Post-policy reference: VJSharpCodeProvider, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/fakturaTest/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/Windows/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/Temporary ASP.NET Files/root/f645d80b/bb4d1cdf/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/dev/ins/bin/VJSharpCodeProvider/VJSharpCodeProvider.EXE.

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  • web.xml - Java Servlet Filters and WebSphere - URL Pattern issues

    - by Ed
    Hi, So we are running a web application that has been tested on Tomcat, Glassfish, WebLogic and WebSphere. All run correctly except WebSphere. The issue is that filters are not processed for files under a certain directory. For example I have a filter that checks the user's lanuage from browser cookies and another that get the user's username, in the web.xml there are configured like so: <!-- ****************************** --> <!-- * Security context filtering * --> <!-- ****************************** --> <filter> <filter-name>SetSecurityContextFilter</filter-name> <filter-class> com.test.security.SecurityContextServletFilter </filter-class> </filter> <!-- ****************************** --> <!-- ** Locale context filtering ** --> <!-- ****************************** --> <filter> <filter-name>SetLocaleFilter</filter-name> <filter-class> com.test.locale.LocaleServletFilter </filter-class> </filter> <filter-mapping> <filter-name>SetSecurityContextFilter</filter-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </filter-mapping> <filter-mapping> <filter-name>SetLocaleFilter</filter-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </filter-mapping> Both filters set a static threadlocal variable which can be accessed from a static getter, but when the same file 'test.jsp' invokes the getters, under 'contextroot/js' they return the default values (as if unset) while under 'contextroot/pages' they are correct. Any ideas? Thanks in advance.

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  • STOP Application Pool Issue Programitically IIS7

    - by Sumit Kute
    In my application I needs to stop a application pool programmitically in IIS 7. I have created a local acccount and given him Administrative Priviledges. Here is the code Private static void StopApplication() { string serviceHostDeploymentType = "local"; if (serviceHostDeploymentType.Equals("local")) { WindowsIdentityImpersonate newIdentity = new WindowsIdentityImpersonate(); if (newIdentity.Impersonate("AccountName", Environment.MachineName, "Password")) { try { ServerManager serverManager = ServerManager.OpenRemote("Server"); string siteName = GetWebSiteNameById(serverManager, 1); Site parentWebsite = serverManager.Sites[siteName]; if (parentWebsite != null) { ApplicationPool apppool = serverManager.ApplicationPools["Application Pool Name"]; if (apppool != null) { apppool.Stop(); } } } finally { newIdentity.Undo(); } } } else { throw new ConfigurationErrorsException("..."); } } I am getting an error Access is denied. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80070005 (E_ACCESSDENIED)). Stack Trace at Microsoft.Web.Administration.Interop.IAppHostMethodInstance.Execute() at Microsoft.Web.Administration.ConfigurationElement.ExecuteMethod(String methodName) at Microsoft.Web.Administration.ApplicationPool.Stop() at ServerManagerTesting.Form1.StopApplication() at ServerManagerTesting.Form1.button1_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnMouseUp(MouseEventArgs mevent) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button, Int32 clicks) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ButtonBase.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.DebuggableCallback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) at System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.DispatchMessageW(MSG& msg) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ComponentManager.System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.IMsoComponentManager.FPushMessageLoop(Int32 dwComponentID, Int32 reason, Int32 pvLoopData) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoopInner(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at System.Windows.Forms.Application.ThreadContext.RunMessageLoop(Int32 reason, ApplicationContext context) at ServerManagerTesting.Program.Main() at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart()

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  • Lazy-loading with Spring HibernateDaoSupport ?

    - by umanga
    Greetings I am developing a non-webapplication using Spring+Hibernate. My question is how the HibernateDaoSupport handles lazy-loading , because after a call do DAO , the Session is closed. Take a look at following psuedo-code: DAO is like: CommonDao extends HibernateDaoSupport{ Family getFamilyById(String id); SubFamily getSubFamily(String familyid,String subfamilyid); } Domain model is like: Family{ private List<SubFamily> subfamiles; public List<SubFamily> getSubFamiles(); } SubFamily{ private Family family; public Family getFamily(); } In the application I get DAO from app-context and want to following operations.Is this possible to do with lazy-loading because AFAIK after every method (getFamilyById() , getSubFamily() ) the session is closed. CommonDAO dao=//get bean from application context; Family famA=dao.getFamilyById(familyid); // //Do some stuff List<SubFamily> childrenA=fam.getSubFamiles(); SubFamily asubfamily=dao.getSubFamily(id,subfamilyid); // //Do some other stuff Family famB=asubfamily.getFamily();

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  • How to check whether a user belongs to an AD group and nested groups?

    - by elsharpo
    hi guys, I have an ASP.NET 3.5 application using Windows Authentication and implementing our own RoleProvider. Problem is we want to restrict access to a set of pages to a few thousand users and rathern than inputing all of those one by one we found out they belong to an AD group. The answer is simple if the common group we are checking membership against the particular user is a direct member of it but the problem I'm having is that if the group is a member of another group and then subsequently member of another group then my code always returns false. For example: Say we want to check whether User is a member of group E, but User is not a direct member of *E", she is a member of "A" which a member of "B" which indeed is a member of E, therefore User is a member of *E" One of the solutions we have is very slow, although it gives the correct answer using (var context = new PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain)) { using (var group = GroupPrincipal.FindByIdentity(context, IdentityType.Name, "DL-COOL-USERS")) { var users = group.GetMembers(true); // recursively enumerate return users.Any(a => a.Name == "userName"); } } The original solution and what I was trying to get to work, using .NET 3.5 System.DirectoryServices.AccountManagement and it does work when users are direct members of the group in question is as follows: public bool IsUserInGroup(string userName, string groupName) { var cxt = new PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain, "DOMAIN"); var user = UserPrincipal.FindByIdentity(cxt, IdentityType.SamAccountName, userName); if (user == null) { return false; } var group = GroupPrincipal.FindByIdentity(cxt, groupName); if (group == null) { return false; } return user.IsMemberOf(group); } The bottom line is, we need to check for membership even though the groups are nested in many levels down. Thanks a lot!

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  • Large number of simultaneous long-running operations in Qt

    - by Hostile Fork
    I have some long-running operations that number in the hundreds. At the moment they are each on their own thread. My main goal in using threads is not to speed these operations up. The more important thing in this case is that they appear to run simultaneously. I'm aware of cooperative multitasking and fibers. However, I'm trying to avoid anything that would require touching the code in the operations, e.g. peppering them with things like yieldToScheduler(). I also don't want to prescribe that these routines be stylized to be coded to emit queues of bite-sized task items...I want to treat them as black boxes. For the moment I can live with these downsides: Maximum # of threads tend to be O(1000) Cost per thread is O(1MB) To address the bad cache performance due to context-switches, I did have the idea of a timer which would juggle the priorities such that only idealThreadCount() threads were ever at Normal priority, with all the rest set to Idle. This would let me widen the timeslices, which would mean fewer context switches and still be okay for my purposes. Question #1: Is that a good idea at all? One certain downside is it won't work on Linux (docs say no QThread::setPriority() there). Question #2: Any other ideas or approaches? Is QtConcurrent thinking about this scenario? (Some related reading: how-many-threads-does-it-take-to-make-them-a-bad-choice, many-threads-or-as-few-threads-as-possible, maximum-number-of-threads-per-process-in-linux)

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  • Reachability sometimes fails, even when we do have an internet connection

    - by stoutyhk
    Hi I've searched but can't see a similar question. I've added a method to check for an internet connection per the Reachability example. It works most of the time, but when installed on the iPhone, it quite often fails even when I do have internet connectivity (only when on 3G/EDGE - WiFi is OK). Basically the code below returns NO. If I switch to another app, say Mail or Safari, and connect, then switch back to the app, then the code says the internet is reachable. Kinda seems like it needs a 'nudge'. Anyone seen this before? Any ideas? Many thanks James + (BOOL) doWeHaveInternetConnection{ BOOL success; // google should always be up right?! const char *host_name = [@"google.com" cStringUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; SCNetworkReachabilityRef reachability = SCNetworkReachabilityCreateWithName(NULL, host_name); SCNetworkReachabilityFlags flags; success = SCNetworkReachabilityGetFlags(reachability, &flags); BOOL isAvailable = success && (flags & kSCNetworkFlagsReachable) && !(flags & kSCNetworkFlagsConnectionRequired); if (isAvailable) { NSLog(@"Google is reachable: %d", flags); }else{ NSLog(@"Google is unreachable"); } return isAvailable; }

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  • Incoming connections from 2 different Internet connections

    - by RJClinton
    I am hosting a Gameserver on my Windows 2003 Server 32 Bit Server. Due to some limitations of my ISP, I have to take 2 Internet connections in order to satisfy my bandwidth requirement. I am facing serious problems here. The Internet is supplied using Wimax. I am given a POE and the RJ45 from both the POE (2 connections) are plugged into a Netgear 100mbps Switch and another RJ45 connects the server to the switch. I have tried to configure the IP addresses and gateway of both connections to the single NIC in the server. The IP series and the gateway of each Internet connection are very much different. I know that this is not the proper approach, because alternate gateways are meant to be only for backup in case of main gateway failure and the usage of the gateways depends upon the metric (correct me if I am wrong). I am planning to get a second PCI NIC so that I can connect each of the Internet connections into its respective NIC. If I use this approach, will I be able to accept connections on both NICs? Also, please suggest any other alternatives that I might use.

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  • WSE 3.0 crashes when ClearHeaders is called

    - by Daniel Enetoft
    Hi! I'm developing a client-server application in c# using WSE web-service. One of the things that the user can do is send jpg images to the server for backup via the web-service. Recently strange errors have occurred. This does not happen for all users, just a few. On the client side the exception is a System.Net.WebException Exception message: The operation has timed out and on the server the following warning is found in the event viewer: Exception information: Exception type: HttpException Exception message: Server cannot clear headers after HTTP headers have been sent. Request information Request URL: MyUrl/Service.asmx Request path: /MyWebService/Service.asmx User host address: ------- User: Is authenticated: False Authentication Type: Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Thread information: Thread ID: 7 Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at System.Web.HttpResponse.ClearHeaders() at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapServerProtocol.WriteException(Exception e, Stream outputStream) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.ServerProtocolFactory.Create(Type type, HttpContext context, HttpRequest request, HttpResponse response, Boolean& abortProcessing) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.WebServiceHandlerFactory.CoreGetHandler(Type type, HttpContext context, HttpRequest request, HttpResponse response) Does anyone have an idea where this error can come from? I have already tried to raise the "maxRequestLength" in web.config to 16Mb but this doesn't fix it. Regards /Daniel

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  • Searching for flexible way to specify conenction string used by APS.NET membership

    - by bzamfir
    Hi, I develop an asp.net web application and I use ASP.NET membership provider. The application uses the membership schema and all required objects inside main application database However, during development I have to switch to various databases, for different development and testing scenarios. For this I have an external connection strings section file and also an external appsettings section, which allow me to not change main web.config but switch the db easily, by changing setting only in appsettings section. My files are as below: <connectionStrings configSource="connections.config"> </connectionStrings> <appSettings file="local.config"> .... ConnectionStrings looks as usual: <connectionStrings> <add name="MyDB1" connectionString="..." ... /> <add name="MyDB2" connectionString="..." ... /> .... </connectionStrings> And local.config as below <appSettings> <add key="ConnectionString" value="MyDB2" /> My code takes into account to use this connection string But membership settings in web.config contains the connection string name directly into the setting, like <add name="MembershipProvider" connectionStringName="MyDB2" ...> .... <add name="RoleProvider" connectionStringName="MyDB2" ...> Because of this, every time I have to edit them too to use the new db. Is there any way to config membership provider to use an appsetting to select db connection for membership db? Or to "redirect" it to read connection setting from somewhere else? Or at least to have this in some external file (like local.config) Maybe is some easy way to wrap asp.net membership provider intio my own provider which will just read connection string from where I want and pass it to original membership provider, and then just delegate the whole membership functionality to asp.net membership provider. Thanks.

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  • How do I pass a lot of parameters to views in Django?

    - by Mark
    I'm very new to Django and I'm trying to build an application to present my data in tables and charts. Till now my learning process went very smooth, but now I'm a bit stuck. My pageview retrieves large amounts of data from a database and puts it in the context. The template then generates different html-tables. So far so good. Now I want to add different charts to the template. I manage to do this by defining <img src=".../> tags. The Matplotlib chart is generate in my chartview an returned via: response=HttpResponse(content_type='image/png') canvas.print_png(response) return response Now I have different questions: the data is retrieved twice from the database. Once in the pageview to render the tables, and again in the chartview for making the charts. What is the best way to pass the data, already in the context of the page to the chartview? I need a lot of charts, each with different datasets. I could make a chartview for each chart, but probably there is a better way. How do I pass the different dataset names to the chartview? Some charts have 20 datasets, so I don't think that passing these dataset parameters via the url (like: <imgm src="chart/dataset1/dataset2/.../dataset20/chart.png />) is the right way. Any advice?

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