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  • WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

    - by d3j4vu
    I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

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  • Visual C++ function suddenly 170 ms slower (4x longer)

    - by Mikael
    For the past few months I've been working on a Visual C++ project to take images from cameras and process them. Up until today this has taken about 65 ms to update the data but now it has suddenly increased significantly. What happens is: I launch my program and for the first 30 or so iterations it performs as expected, then suddenly the loop time increases from 65 ms to 250 ms. The odd thing is, after timing each function I found out that the part of the code which is causing the slowdown is fairly basic and has not been modified in over a month. The data which goes into it is unchanged and identical every iteration but the execution time which is initially less than 1 ms suddenly increases to 170 ms while the rest of the code is still performing as expected (time-wise). Basically, I am calling the same function over and over, for the first 30 calls it performs as it should, after that it slows down for no apparent reason. It might also be worth noting that it is a sudden change in execution time, not a gradual increase. What could be causing this? The code is leaking some memory (~50 kb/s) but not nearly enough to warrant a sudden 4x slowdown. If anyone has any ideas I'd love to hear them!

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  • C# and Objects/Classes

    - by user1192890
    I have tried to compile code from Deitel's C# 2010 for programmers. I copied it exactly out of the book, but it still can't find main, even though I declared it in one of the classes. Here is a look at the two classes: For GradeBookTest: // Fig. 4.2: GradeBookTest.cs // Create a GradeBook object and call its DisplayMessage method. public class GradeBookTest { // Main method begins program execution public static void Main(string[] args) { // create a GradeBook object and assign it to myGradeBook GradeBook myGradeBook = new GradeBook(); // call myGradeBook's DisplayMessage method myGradeBook.DisplayMessage(); } // end Main } // end class GradeBookTest Now for the GradeBook class: // Fig. 4.1: GradeBook.cs // Class declaration with one method. using System; public class GradeBook { // display a welcome message to the GradeBook user public void DisplayMessage() { Console.WriteLine( "Welcome to the Grade Book!" ); } // end method DisplayMessage } // end class GradeBook That is how I copied them. Here is how they appeared in the book: 1 // Fig. 4.2: GradeBookTest.cs 2 // Create a GradeBook object and call its DisplayMessage method. 3 public class GradeBookTest 4 { 5 // Main method begins program execution 6 public static void Main( string[] args ) 7 { 8 // create a GradeBook object and assign it to myGradeBook 9 GradeBook myGradeBook = new GradeBook(); 10 11 // call myGradeBook's DisplayMessage method 12 myGradeBook.DisplayMessage(); 13 } // end Main 14 } // end class GradeBookTest and // Fig. 4.1: GradeBook.cs // Class declaration with one method. using System; public class GradeBook { // display a welcome message to the GradeBook user public void DisplayMessage() { Console.WriteLine( "Welcome to the Grade Book!" ); } // end method DisplayMessage } // end class GradeBook I don't see why they are not working. Right now I am using Visual Studio Pro 2010. Any Thoughts?

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  • Automating Excel through the PIA makes VBA go squiffy.

    - by Jon Artus
    I have absolutely no idea how to start diagnosing this, and just wondered if anyone had any suggestions. I'm generating an Excel spreadsheet by calling some Macros from a C# application, and during the generation process it somehow breaks. I've got a VBA class containing all of my logging/error-handling logic, which I instantiate using a singleton-esque accessor, shown here: Private mcAppFramework As csys_ApplicationFramework Public Function AppFramework() As csys_ApplicationFramework If mcAppFramework Is Nothing Then Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework Call mcAppFramework.bInitialise End If Set AppFramework = mcAppFramework End Function The above code works fine before I've generated the spreadsheet, but afterwards fails. The problem seems to be the following line; Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework which I've never seen fail before. If I add a watch to the variable being assigned here, the type shows as csys_ApplicationFramework/wksFoo, where wksFoo is a random worksheet in the same workbook. What seems to be happening is that while the variable is of the right type, rather than filling that slot with a new instance of my framework class, it's making it point to an existing worksheet instead, the equivalent of Set mcAppFramework = wksFoo which is a compiler error, as one might expect. Even more bizarrely, if I put a breakpoint on the offending line, edit the line, and then resume execution, it works. For example, I delete the word 'New' move off the line, move back, re-type 'New' and resume execution. This somehow 'fixes' the workbook and it works happily ever after, with the type of the variable in my watch window showing as csys_ApplicationFramework/csys_ApplicationFramework as I'd expect. This implies that manipulating the workbook through the PIA is somehow breaking it temporarily. All I'm doing in the PIA is opening the workbook, calling several macros using Excel.Application.Run(), and saving it again. I can post a few more details if anyone thinks that it's relevant. I don't know how VBA creates objects behind the scenes or how to debug this. I also don't know how the way the code executes can change without the code itself changing. As previously mentioned, VBA has frankly gone a bit squiffy on me... Any thoughts?

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  • Visual C++ function suddenly 170x slower

    - by Mikael
    For the past few months I've been working on a Visual C++ project to take images from cameras and process them. Up until today this has taken about 65 ms to update the data but now it has suddenly increased significantly. What happens is: I launch my program and for the first 30 or so iterations it performs as expected, then suddenly the loop time increases from 65 ms to 250 ms. The odd thing is, after timing each function I found out that the part of the code which is causing the slowdown is fairly basic and has not been modified in over a month. The data which goes into it is unchanged and identical every iteration but the execution time which is initially less than 1 ms suddenly increases to 170 ms while the rest of the code is still performing as expected (time-wise). Basically, I am calling the same function over and over, for the first 30 calls it performs as it should, after that it slows down for no apparent reason. It might also be worth noting that it is a sudden change in execution time, not a gradual increase. What could be causing this? The code is leaking some memory (~50 kb/s) but not nearly enough to warrant a sudden 4x slowdown. If anyone has any ideas I'd love to hear them!

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  • How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

    - by andnil
    When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

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  • How do I exclude a properties file when deploy

    - by Huy
    I want to include this file when running locally, but exclude it when deploy. I tried the following the doesn't seem to work. <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-jar-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.3</version> <executions> <execution> <phase>package</phase> <goals> <goal>jar</goal> </goals> <configuration> <excludes> <exclude>filename.properties</exclude> </excludes> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin>

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  • In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

    - by Irchi
    Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

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  • Why doesn't sed's automatic printing deliver the expected results?

    - by CodeGnome
    What Works This sed script works as intended: $ echo -e "2\n1\n4\n3" | sed -n 'h; n; G; p' 1 2 3 4 It takes pair of input lines at a time, and swaps the lines. So far, so good. What Doesn't Work What I don't understand is why I can't use sed's automatic printing. Since sed automatically prints the pattern space at the end of each execution cycle (except when it's suppressed), why is this not equivalent? $ echo -e "2\n1\n4\n3" | sed 'h; n; G' 2 1 2 4 3 4 What I think the code says is: The input line is copied to the hold space. The next line is read into the pattern space. The hold space is appended to the pattern space. The pattern space (line1 + newline + line2) is printed automatically because we've reached the end of the execution cycle. Obviously, I'm wrong...but I don't understand why. Can anyone explain why this second example breaks, and why print suppression is needed to yield the correct results?

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  • i don't know how to solve this error

    - by wide
    in local it works. when i load server, i got this error. Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. (e.g. <head runat="server" />). Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. (e.g. <head runat="server" />). Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Using themed css files requires a header control on the page. (e.g. <head runat="server" />).] System.Web.UI.PageTheme.SetStyleSheet() +2458406 System.Web.UI.Page.OnInit(EventArgs e) +8699420 System.Web.UI.Control.InitRecursive(Control namingContainer) +333 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +378

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  • iPhone app developed with SDK 4.2, requires backward compatibility with iOS 3.1.3 .. easy way?

    - by mrd3650
    I have built an iPhone app with SDK 4.2 however I know also want to make it compatible with iOS 3.1.3. First step was to set the Deployment Target to 3.1.3. It runs fine on the 3.2 Simulator but the app crashes at times since I'm using some methods which are not available in this early SDK. So my qestion is, is there a straight forward way to locate the offending methods/classes I'm using in my project which are not available in 3.1.3 ? (without manually going through each method call and consult with the docs for the SDK availability?) Thanks. UPDATE: I have executed the app on 3.1.3 and attempted to manually test each execution path with the hope of locating all exceptions. This was completed with some level of success. However, what if the application is huge? and there are lots of execution paths? There must be some tool for this scenario. Any thoughts are much appreciated.

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  • Slowing process creation under Java?

    - by oconnor0
    I have a single, large heap (up to 240GB, though in the 20-40GB range for most of this phase of execution) JVM [1] running under Linux [2] on a server with 24 cores. We have tens of thousands of objects that have to be processed by an external executable & then load the data created by those executables back into the JVM. Each executable produces about half a megabyte of data (on disk) that when read right in, after the process finishes, is, of course, larger. Our first implementation was to have each executable handle only a single object. This involved the spawning of twice as many executables as we had objects (since we called a shell script that called the executable). Our CPU utilization would start off high, but not necessarily 100%, and slowly worsen. As we began measuring to see what was happening we noticed that the process creation time [3] continually slows. While starting at sub-second times it would eventually grow to take a minute or more. The actual processing done by the executable usually takes less than 10 seconds. Next we changed the executable to take a list of objects to process in an attempt to reduce the number of processes created. With batch sizes of a few hundred (~1% of our current sample size), the process creation times start out around 2 seconds & grow to around 5-6 seconds. Basically, why is it taking so long to create these processes as execution continues? [1] Oracle JDK 1.6.0_22 [2] Red Hat Enterprise Linux Advanced Platform 5.3, Linux kernel 2.6.18-194.26.1.el5 #1 SMP [3] Creation of the ProcessBuilder object, redirecting the error stream, and starting it.

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  • How to delay program for a certain number of milliseconds, or until a key is pressed?

    - by Jack
    I need to delay my program's execution for a specified number of milliseconds, but also want the user to be able to escape the wait when a key is pressed. If no key is pressed the program should wait for the specified number of milliseconds. I have been using Thread.Sleep to halt the program (which in the context of my program I think is ok as the UI is set to minimise during the execution of the main method). I have thought about doing something like this: while(GetAsyncKeyState(System.Windows.Forms.Keys.Escape) == 0 || waitTime > totalWait) { Thread.Sleep(100); waitTime += 100; } As Thread.Sleep will wait until at least the time specified before waking the thread up, there will obviously be a large unwanted extra delay as it is scaled up in the while loop. Is there some sort of method that will sleep for a specified amount of time but only while a condition holds true? Or is the above example above the "correct" way to do it but to use a more accurate Sleep method? If so what method can I use? Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • Automated browser testing: How to test JavaScript in web pages?

    - by Dave
    I am trying to write an application that will test a series of web-pages programmatically. The web pages being tested have JavaScript embedded within them which alter the structure of the HTML when they complete execution. It is then the goal to take the final HTML (post-execution of the embedded JavaScript) and compare it against a known output. Essentially, the Input --- Output for the test application is: URL ---[retrieve HTML]--- HTML ---[execute JS, then compare]--- PASS/FAIL Here is the challenge: I have been unable to find a solution that is able to take the HTML I retrieve from the URL and process the JavaScript, as a browser would, and generate the final HTML a user might see from "View Source" on the same page within the browser. It would be very surprising if this sort of approach has not been made before, so I'm hoping someone out there knows of a fitting solution for this application/problem? If at all possible, I'm hoping for a solution that integrates with .NET (I've tried using the WebBrowser, with no luck). However, if there is an existing 3rd party application that can do exactly this, that would be quite acceptable. Thanks in advance for the suggestions! Dave

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  • SAS V9.1.3 - Error when combining %INC and CALL EXECUTE

    - by Mark
    Hi, I am getting a resolution error with some SAS v9.1.3 code. Here is some code I want to store in a .txt file (called problem2.txt) and bring into SAS with a %INC %macro email020; %if &email = 1 %then %do; %put THIS RESOLVED AT 1; %end; %else %if &email = 2 %then %do; %put THIS RESOVLED AT 2; %end; %put _user_; %mend email020; %email020; Then this is the main code: filename problem2 'C:\Documents and Settings\Mark\My Documents\problem2.txt'; %macro report1; %let email = 1; %inc problem2; %mend report1; %macro report2 (inc); %let email = 2; %inc problem2; %mend report2; data test; run = 'YES'; run; data _null_; set test; call execute("%report1"); call execute("%report2"); run; The log shows: NOTE: CALL EXECUTE generated line. 1 + %inc problem2; MLOGIC(EMAIL020): Beginning execution. WARNING: Apparent symbolic reference EMAIL not resolved. ERROR: A character operand was found in the %EVAL function or %IF condition where a numeric operand is required. The condition was: &email = 1 ERROR: The macro EMAIL020 will stop executing. MLOGIC(EMAIL020): Ending execution. So the question is why does CALL EXECUTE generate %inc problem2 rather than %report1, causing SAS to miss the assignment and what can I do about it?

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  • MobaXTerm - SSH Key authentication

    - by Chip Sprague
    I have a key that I converted and works fine with Putty. I have tried these formats: ssh -p 1111 -i id_rsa [email protected] ssh -i id_rsa -p 1111 [email protected] The key is in the same folder as the MobaXTerm executable. Thanks! EDIT: [chip.client] $ ssh -p 1111 -i id_rsa [email protected] -v Warning: Identity file id_rsa not accessible: No such file or directory. OpenSSH_5.6p1, OpenSSL 0.9.8r 8 Feb 2011 debug1: Reading configuration data /etc/ssh_config debug1: Connecting to 192.168.0.9 [192.168.0.100] port 1111. debug1: Connection established. debug1: identity file /home/chip/.ssh/id_rsa type -1 debug1: identity file /home/chip/.ssh/id_rsa-cert type -1 debug1: Remote protocol version 2.0, remote software version OpenSSH_5.3p1 Debian-3ubuntu7 debug1: match: OpenSSH_5.3p1 Debian-3ubuntu7 pat OpenSSH* debug1: Enabling compatibility mode for protocol 2.0 debug1: Local version string SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.6 debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT received debug1: kex: server->client aes128-ctr hmac-md5 [email protected] debug1: kex: client->server aes128-ctr hmac-md5 [email protected] debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REQUEST(1024<1024<8192) sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_GROUP debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_INIT sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REPLY debug1: checking without port identifier Warning: Permanently added '[192.168.0.100]:1111' (RSA) to the list of known hosts. debug1: ssh_rsa_verify: signature correct debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS received debug1: Roaming not allowed by server debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_REQUEST sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_ACCEPT received debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey debug1: Next authentication method: publickey debug1: Trying private key: /home/chip/.ssh/id_rsa debug1: No more authentication methods to try. Permission denied (publickey). [01/09/2011 - 09:15.38] ~

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  • vsftpd 500 OOPS: priv_sock_get_int

    - by user1613878
    I have a problem with vsftpd that replies "500 OOPS: priv_sock_get_int" when i do command "ls". following is a snip of ftp client console running on osx. And I'm using test account that has home directory on the ftp server, not virtual account. Connected to 192.0.0.20. 220 satellite Name (192.0.0.20:john): test_account 331 Please specify the password. Password: 230 Login successful. Remote system type is UNIX. Using binary mode to transfer files. ftp> ls 500 OOPS: priv_sock_get_int 421 Service not available, remote server has closed connection. and my vsftpd.conf local_enable=YES write_enable=YES #local_umask=022 local_umask=002 #anon_upload_enable=YES #anon_mkdir_write_enable=YES #dirmessage_enable=YES #xferlog_enable=YES connect_from_port_20=YES #chown_uploads=YES #chown_username=whoever #xferlog_file=/var/log/vsftpd.log #xferlog_std_format=YES #idle_session_timeout=600 #data_connection_timeout=120 #nopriv_user=test #async_abor_enable=YES #ascii_upload_enable=YES #ascii_download_enable=YES ftpd_banner=welcome #deny_email_enable=YES #banned_email_file=/etc/vsftpd.banned_emails #chroot_local_user=YES #chroot_list_enable=YES #chroot_list_file=/etc/vsftpd.chroot_list #ls_recurse_enable=YES listen=YES #listen_ipv6=YES #ssl_enable=NO pasv_enable=YES pasv_max_port=12500 pasv_min_port=12000 port_enable=YES pasv_address=192.0.0.20 pasv_promiscuous=YES port_promiscuous=YES file_open_mode=0666

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  • Cant connect to mysql using self signed SSL certificate

    - by carpii
    After creating a self-signed SSL certificate, I have configured my remote mysqld to use them (and ssl is enabled) I ssh into my remote server, and try connecting to its own mysqld using ssl (mysql server is 5.5.25).. ~> mysql -u <user> -p --ssl=1 --ssl-cert=client.cert --ssl-key=client.key --ssl-ca=ca.cert Enter password: ERROR 2026 (HY000): SSL connection error: error:00000001:lib(0):func(0):reason(1) Ok, I remember reading theres some problem with connecting to the same server via SSL. So I download the client keys down to my local box, and test from there... ~> mysql -h <server> -u <user> -p --ssl=1 --ssl-cert=client.cert --ssl-key=client.key --ssl-ca=ca.cert Enter password: ERROR 2026 (HY000): SSL connection error Its unclear what this "SSL connection error" error refers to, but if I omit the -ssl-ca, then I am able to connect using SSL.. ~> mysql -h <server> -u <user> -p --ssl=1 --ssl-cert=client.cert --ssl-key=client.key Enter password: Welcome to the MySQL monitor. Commands end with ; or \g. Your MySQL connection id is 37 Server version: 5.5.25 MySQL Community Server (GPL) However, I believe that this is only encrypting the connection, and not actually verifying the validity of the cert (meaning I would be potentially vulnerable to man-in-middle attack) The ssl certs are valid (albeit self signed), and do not have a passphrase on them So my question is, what am I doing wrong? How can I connect via SSL, using a self signed certificate? MySQL Server version is 5.5.25 and the server and clients are Centos 5 Thanks for any advice Edit: Note that in all cases, the command is being issued from the same directory where the ssl keys reside (hence no absolute path)

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  • ssh key error - Permission denied (publickey,gssapi-keyex,gssapi-with-mic)

    - by user1963938
    Amazon Ec2 :: Redhat 6. 64 Bit I'm trying to follow the socks5 guidelines (http://www.catonmat.net/blog/linux-socks5-proxy/ ) to open a socks on one of our servers but unfortunately I got suck at step 1 . ssh -N -D 0.0.0.0:1080 localhost I get error Permission denied (publickey,gssapi-keyex,gssapi-with-mic). How do I fix it ? More debug info ssh -v -f -N -D 0.0.0.0:1080 localhost OpenSSH_5.3p1, OpenSSL 1.0.0-fips 29 Mar 2010 debug1: Reading configuration data /etc/ssh/ssh_config debug1: Applying options for * debug1: Connecting to localhost [127.0.0.1] port 22. debug1: Connection established. debug1: permanently_set_uid: 0/0 debug1: identity file /root/.ssh/identity type -1 debug1: identity file /root/.ssh/id_rsa type -1 debug1: identity file /root/.ssh/id_dsa type -1 debug1: Remote protocol version 2.0, remote software version OpenSSH_5.3 debug1: match: OpenSSH_5.3 pat OpenSSH* debug1: Enabling compatibility mode for protocol 2.0 debug1: Local version string SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.3 debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEXINIT received debug1: kex: server->client aes128-ctr hmac-md5 none debug1: kex: client->server aes128-ctr hmac-md5 none debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REQUEST(1024<1024<8192) sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_GROUP debug1: SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_INIT sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_KEX_DH_GEX_REPLY debug1: Host 'localhost' is known and matches the RSA host key. debug1: Found key in /root/.ssh/known_hosts:1 debug1: ssh_rsa_verify: signature correct debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS received debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_REQUEST sent debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_ACCEPT received debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,gssapi-keyex,gssapi-with-mic debug1: Next authentication method: gssapi-keyex debug1: No valid Key exchange context debug1: Next authentication method: gssapi-with-mic debug1: Unspecified GSS failure. Minor code may provide more information Credentials cache file '/tmp/krb5cc_0' not found debug1: Unspecified GSS failure. Minor code may provide more information Credentials cache file '/tmp/krb5cc_0' not found debug1: Unspecified GSS failure. Minor code may provide more information debug1: Unspecified GSS failure. Minor code may provide more information debug1: Next authentication method: publickey debug1: Trying private key: /root/.ssh/identity debug1: Trying private key: /root/.ssh/id_rsa debug1: Trying private key: /root/.ssh/id_dsa debug1: No more authentication methods to try. Permission denied (publickey,gssapi-keyex,gssapi-with-mic).

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  • Cannot connect with Cisco VPN but can connect with ShrewSoft VPN

    - by rodey
    EDIT: We connected an air card to the computer to use a different Internet connection and using the Cisco software, we were able to successfully connect to our VPN server. I just don't understand why the ShrewSoft VPN client would connect but the Cisco connection won't. I'm not our network admin so sorry if I butcher some of the terminology. I have a computer at remote site that connects to our network through Cisco VPN. It uses the Cisco VPN software to do so. The problem is that the computer at this site cannot connect to our VPN because it is getting error "Reason 412: The remote peer is no longer responding." To see if perhaps something on their network was blocking the connection, I installed the ShrewSoft VPN client on the computer, imported our .pcf file and connected with no problem. I have tried two different versions of the Cisco VPN software (4.8.0.* and 5.0.03.*) and have the same problem. I installed Wireshark on the computer and have confirmed (while trying to connect through Cisco) that the computer is trying to contact the VPN server but is not receiving a response. We are not having any other problems regarding users not being able to connect. I'm at a loss at what else to check. I'll be monitoring this and have access to the computer at any time.

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  • WDS's MDT DeploymentShare and REMINST replicated with DFS-R does not read WIM from local WDS

    - by mbrownnyc
    I've read several guides on using DFS-R with WDS and MDT to replicate REMINST and DeploymentShare, and I have a particularly strange problem. On the receiving server, after configuring WDS and mounting the DeploymentShare into MDT's DeploymentWorkbench, I also performed the following: 1) in .\Control\Bootstrap.ini, changed DeployRoot to \%wdsserver%\DeploymentShare$ 2) Changed the UNC path at the root of the MDT Deployment Share in the DeploymentWorkbench to match that of the current server. 3) In Unattend.xml files located: .\Control**, modified the following value to match the current server: <cpi:offlineImage catelog://HOST/ I am able to boot and grab the LiteTouch PE image off the local WDS TFTP server, but the WIM files, the scripts, everything else is being pulled off the WDS server at the remote site (the original WDS server that was the source of the files within the DFS-R replicated folder). What do I do in order to solve this problem? I've grepped all the files below the DeploymentShare to look for instances of the hostname of the WDS server at the remote site (the source of the files), but I found none. Here are the guides I referred to: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc771324%28WS.10%29.aspx http://blogs.technet.com/b/askds/archive/2009/12/16/wds-and-dfsr-love-at-first-sync.aspx http://oasysadmin.com/2011/11/03/copying-moving-and-replicating-the-mdt-2010-deployment-share/

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  • How to safely remove a USB device from 2008 Core server?

    - by Qwerty
    I have a Hyper-V Core server 2008 that I administer via command line and remote tools. We have now got a new backup system in place and it involves me connecting an External USB drive (G:) to backup system state files. My question is how should I safely remove the drive for its weekly offsite swap? I've tried using the devcon tool however it just says the 'removal failed with no devices removed' with no other explanation. I have noticed that there isnt a readily available x64 version of devcon and that might be the cause of the problem. (I have read of people downloading a amd64 version but I have not located it myself, if someone knows where it is please let me know). The devcon command worked on my old 2003 x86 server with the command: devcon remove *3200AVJ_EXTERNAL* I have also looked at using fsutil volume dismount g: but it doesn't seem to work as G: is still listed as a connected volume. I have checked that the volume is not in use via remote tools and the net file command. Both show no open files in the G:\ volume. This could be a decent substitute as it might be used to flush any remaining IO to the volume can anyone clarify? Thanks in advance.

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  • Ubuntu 9.10 RSA authentication: ssh fails, filezilla runs fine

    - by MariusPontmercy
    This is quite a mistery for me. I usually use passwordless RSA authentication to login into my remote *nix servers with ssh and sftp. Never had any problem until now. I cannot connect to an Ubuntu 9.10 machine: user@myclient$ ssh -i .ssh/Ganymede_key [email protected] [...] debug1: Host 'ganymede.server.com' is known and matches the RSA host key. debug1: Found key in /home/user/.ssh/known_hosts:14 debug2: bits set: 494/1024 debug1: ssh_rsa_verify: signature correct debug2: kex_derive_keys debug2: set_newkeys: mode 1 debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS sent debug1: expecting SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS debug2: set_newkeys: mode 0 debug1: SSH2_MSG_NEWKEYS received debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_REQUEST sent debug2: service_accept: ssh-userauth debug1: SSH2_MSG_SERVICE_ACCEPT received debug2: key: .ssh/Ganymede_key (0xb96a0ef8) debug2: key: .ssh/Ganymede_key ((nil)) debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,password,keyboard-interactive debug1: Next authentication method: publickey debug1: Offering public key: .ssh/Ganymede_key debug2: we sent a publickey packet, wait for reply debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,password,keyboard-interactive debug1: Trying private key: .ssh/Ganymede_key debug1: read PEM private key done: type RSA debug2: we sent a publickey packet, wait for reply debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,password,keyboard-interactive debug2: we did not send a packet, disable method debug1: Next authentication method: keyboard-interactive debug2: userauth_kbdint debug2: we sent a keyboard-interactive packet, wait for reply debug2: input_userauth_info_req debug2: input_userauth_info_req: num_prompts 1 Then it falls back to password authentication. If I disable password authentication on the remote machine my connection attempt just fails with a "Permission denied (publickey)." state. Same thing for sftp from command line. The "funny" thing is that the exact same RSA key works like a charm with a Filezilla sftp session instead: 12:08:00 Trace: Offered public key from "/home/user/.filezilla/keys/Ganymede_key" 12:08:00 Trace: Offer of public key accepted, trying to authenticate using it. 12:08:01 Trace: Access granted 12:08:01 Trace: Opened channel for session 12:08:01 Trace: Started a shell/command 12:08:01 Status: Connected to ganymede.server.com 12:08:02 Trace: CSftpControlSocket::ConnectParseResponse() 12:08:02 Trace: CSftpControlSocket::ResetOperation(0) 12:08:02 Trace: CControlSocket::ResetOperation(0) 12:08:02 Status: Retrieving directory listing... 12:08:02 Trace: CSftpControlSocket::SendNextCommand() 12:08:02 Trace: CSftpControlSocket::ChangeDirSend() 12:08:02 Command: pwd 12:08:02 Response: Current directory is: "/root" 12:08:02 Trace: CSftpControlSocket::ResetOperation(0) 12:08:02 Trace: CControlSocket::ResetOperation(0) 12:08:02 Trace: CSftpControlSocket::ParseSubcommandResult(0) 12:08:02 Trace: CSftpControlSocket::ListSubcommandResult() 12:08:02 Trace: CSftpControlSocket::ResetOperation(0) 12:08:02 Trace: CControlSocket::ResetOperation(0) 12:08:02 Status: Directory listing successful Any thoughts? M

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  • VirtualBox Issue: virtualbox changed my Computer Name's ip address in Windows

    - by suud
    I had installed virtualbox 4.2.2 in Windows 7. My Computer Name is: MY-PC My IP address (using ipconfig /all command) is: 192.168.1.101 My IP is dynamic and I set DNS to google dns (8.8.8.8) When I ping MY-PC, I got this result: Pinging MY-PC [192.168.56.1] with 32 bytes of data: Reply from 192.168.56.1: bytes=32 time<1ms TTL=128 Reply from 192.168.56.1: bytes=32 time<1ms TTL=128 Reply from 192.168.56.1: bytes=32 time<1ms TTL=128 Reply from 192.168.56.1: bytes=32 time<1ms TTL=128 My virtualbox was not running and I expected the ip adress of MY-PC is 192.168.1.101, not 192.168.56.1 Then I run command: nbtstat -a MY-PC and I got this result: VirtualBox Host-Only Network: Node IpAddress: [192.168.56.1] Scope Id: [] NetBIOS Remote Machine Name Table Name Type Status --------------------------------------------- MY-PC <00> UNIQUE Registered WORKGROUP <00> GROUP Registered MY-PC <20> UNIQUE Registered MAC Address = 08-00-27-00-60-B3 Local Area Connection: Node IpAddress: [0.0.0.0] Scope Id: [] Host not found. Wireless Network Connection: Node IpAddress: [192.168.1.101] Scope Id: [] NetBIOS Remote Machine Name Table Name Type Status --------------------------------------------- MY-PC <00> UNIQUE Registered WORKGROUP <00> GROUP Registered MY-PC <20> UNIQUE Registered MAC Address = 94-0C-6D-E5-6D-5D So it seems virtualbox caused this problem. I want to know how to change back my Computer Name's ip address to 192.168.1.101 (or any ip address that set by my internet connection)?

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  • BackupExec errors when starting services

    - by blade
    Hi, I've installed backupexec 2010 trial on my server, with an appropriately-privileged AD account, but get errors when starting the required services from the login page: Processing services Start services on server: WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ Starting Enterprise Vault Admin Service on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. The service Enterprise Vault Admin Service is already running on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. Starting Backup Exec Remote Agent for Windows Systems on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. The service Backup Exec Remote Agent for Windows Systems is already running on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. Starting Backup Exec Device & Media Service on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. Error starting the service Backup Exec Device & Media Service on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. Service-specific error code returned: 0x2000e2d3 (536928979) Starting Backup Exec Server on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. Error starting the service Backup Exec Server on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. The dependency service or group failed to start. Starting Backup Exec Job Engine on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. Error starting the service Backup Exec Job Engine on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. The dependency service or group failed to start. Starting Backup Exec Agent Browser on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. Error starting the service Backup Exec Agent Browser on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. The dependency service or group failed to start. Starting Backup Exec DLO Administration Service on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. Error starting the service Backup Exec DLO Administration Service on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. Error code returned: Starting Backup Exec DLO Maintenance Service on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. The service Backup Exec DLO Maintenance Service is already running on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. Starting Backup Exec Web Service on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. The service Backup Exec Web Service is already running on WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ. Start services on server WIN-HQ7JSCRTTSQ completed. Processing services completed! How can I resolve this?

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